MBA Drills & Vocab Flashcards

1
Q

Which theory is based on the assumption that human behavior is influenced more by unseen or unconscious forces rather than conscious and rational thoughts?

A

Psychoanalytical

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2
Q

What is the goal an individual would like to achieve during his / her lifetime referred to as?

A

Terminal value

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3
Q

The attitude of the employees with reference to the rules and regulations of an organization is called as what?

A

Discipline

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4
Q

What is the main focus of study of OB?

A

Human Behaviour

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5
Q

When individuals have similar likes and dislikes, they are known as a group of what type of group?

A

Peer Group

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6
Q

What are the three levels that OB can be observed in organizations?

A

Individual ,Group and Organizational

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7
Q

The basis of which model is power with a managerial orientation of authority?

A

Autocratic

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8
Q

Who introduced the concept of MBO ?

A

Peter Drucker

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9
Q

The feeling an employee gets when the job does fulfil all his expectation is referred as what?

A

Job Satisfaction

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10
Q

The extent to which a person is able to identify himself with his job is called as what?

A

Job Involvement

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11
Q

How many dimensions are there to job satisfaction?

A

Three

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12
Q

The extent to which a person considers himself to be capable and important is referred as what?

A

Self-Esteem

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13
Q

In theory X how did the manager perceive the workers ?

A

Lazy , with no motivation

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14
Q

What can be described as how a person affects others, how he understands and views himself and his pattern of inner and outer measurable traits?

A

Personality

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15
Q

If someone is afraid of spiders that person will then scream. This attitute is referred as what?

A

Behavioural Component

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16
Q

What is the ability to affect others for the sake of accomplishing only one goal is known as?

A

Machiavellianism

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17
Q

The productivity studies at Western Electric’s Hawthorne plant in the United States was conducted by whom?

A

Elton Mayo and Roethlisberger

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18
Q

The feelings of an employee towards his job, as well as his colleagues is referred to as what?

A

Attitudes

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19
Q

To change one’s attitude, people are often influenced by one of the following approaches; which one is this?

A

Friends and Peers

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20
Q

Who was the first person who attempted to study human behavior at work using a systematic approach?

A

Taylor

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21
Q

The belief of an individual that what happens is within or beyond his control is called what?

A

Locus of Control

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22
Q

The standards that an individual adopts when making an appraisal of someone or something is referred as what?

A

Values

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23
Q

Public relations officers, salesmen and receptionists are chosen mainly on the basis of which skill?

A

Communication skills

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24
Q

Which model of OB is based on leadership with a managerial orientation of support?

A

Supportive

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25
Q

The concept of an attitude comes from which study?

A

Social psychology

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26
Q

In which model are the employees towards security and benefits and are heavily dependent on the organization?

A

Custodial

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27
Q

The feeling of an employee regarding his job, supervisors, and fellow employees is referred to as what?

A

Attitudes

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28
Q

Theory X and Theory Y were propounded by who?

A

Douglas Mcgregor

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29
Q

People who are relaxed and easy-going would fall under which kind of personality?

A

Type B

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30
Q

Which skill is required to be successful in such jobs as those as sales representatives and public relations officers?

A

Tolerance

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31
Q

What is described as a structure driven process for integrating an organization’s personnel, information and technology?

A

Organization Design

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32
Q

What skill is considered direct and forceful?

A

Assertiveness

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33
Q

Which of the following is the main characteristic of a diverse workforce ?

A

Heterogenous

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34
Q

“According to Herzberg which of following factor is considered as hygiene factor?”

A

Company Policies

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35
Q

What should every leader have to conceptualise future of the organization?

A

Vision

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36
Q

Which OB model is based on power with a managerial orientation of authority?

A

Autocratic

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37
Q

Which theory is based on the assumption that human behaviour is influenced more by unseen or unconscious forces rather than conscious and rational thoughts?

A

Psychoanalytical

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38
Q

Control of information that other people need in order to achieve an essential objective is an example of which power?

A

Information Power

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39
Q

What do we call a relationship between people according to the network of personal and social relationships which originate from within the formal set-up?

A

Informal Organization

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40
Q

According to Managerial grid which leadership style is considered to be all time effective?

A

Team Management

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41
Q

Which legitimate power is based on the social norm?

A

Reciprocity

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42
Q

“From which ancient word does the term ‘Leadership’ comes from?”

A

Leith

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43
Q

Who is credited with bringing out the concept of the Hawthorne Effect?

A

Mayo

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44
Q

Which power is used by those who have a heightened need for power to modify behavior and exert influence?

A

Legitimate Power

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45
Q

According to which theory is the organization considered as a machine and the human beings as different components/parts of that machine?

A

Classical Theory

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46
Q

How many forces does Porter refer to in his Competitive Forces and Strategies ?

A

Five

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47
Q

Accommodating people’s needs by leaders and organizations is called as

A

Concern for people

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48
Q

What are the three needs proposed by McClelland’s theory of needs?

A

Power, Affiliation , Achievement

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49
Q

Which power is based on what one knows, experiences and special skills or talents?

A

Expert Power

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50
Q

What is the temporary alliance of two or more individuals or organizations that, for the shared objective, combine their efforts and resources?

A

Coalition

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51
Q

What are the realistic steps to accomplish the vision and aim of a company as planned referred as?

A

Operative goals

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52
Q

What are socially structured units composed of individuals called as ?

A

Organizations

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53
Q

On what basic foundation leadership is built upon?

A

Mission

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54
Q

To have a wider outlook, what should a leader encompass?

A

Knowledge of varied fields

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55
Q

Which of the following term describes “The firm seeking share of the market or market standing”?

A

Business

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56
Q

When there is a scarcity of the organization’s resources, different groups compete with each other to get a greater share of those resources. what does this refer to?

A

Competition

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57
Q

What is the name given to a system used to define a hierarchy within an organization?

A

Organization Structure

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58
Q

Which of the following refers to acquisition of the required material resources and financial resources?

A

Capital

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59
Q

The extent to which a person is able to identify himself with his job is called as what?

A

Job Involvement

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60
Q

What do we call two or more individuals, interacting and interdependent who have come together to achieve particular objectives ?

A

Group

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61
Q

Which is the initial phase of team development in which members of a group are introduced to others?

A

Forming

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62
Q

“Identify the name of the structure of jobs and functions which are defined by the management to achieve the objectives of an organization called as?”

A

Formal Organization

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63
Q

In which of the OB models does the manager play the role of a coach ?

A

Collegial

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64
Q

Who has created a series of metrics known as a balanced scorecard?

A

Robert S Kaplan and David P Norton

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65
Q

Promises of promotion, money and reward from many social sectors are an example of which kind of reward?

A

Impersonal

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66
Q

According to which theory is the organization considered as an open system that regularly interacts with the environment?

A

Modern Organizational Theory

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67
Q

Which of the following are examples of Group-level concepts in OB ?

A

Teams and conflicts

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68
Q

Which skill is required to be successful in such jobs as those as sales representatives and public relations officers?

A

Tolerance

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69
Q

What is the full form of SOPs?

A

Standard Operating Procedures

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70
Q

What is the goal an individual would like to achieve during his lifetime referred as?

A

Terminal value

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71
Q

Leaders need to know the demographic composition, culture of the organisation’s consumers and consumer patterns to design goods and services for unique populations, what does this attributes to?

A

Factors in sociology

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72
Q

Who propounded the Hierarchy of Needs Theory?

A

Abraham Maslow

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73
Q

What helps leaders to give competitive edge over others?

A

Innovation

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74
Q

Who recommended a “pull” rather than a “push” strategy to motivate employees?

A

Mary Parker Follet

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75
Q

Public relations officers, salesmen and receptionists are chosen mainly on the basis of which skill?

A

Communication skills

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76
Q

Which one is a one-dimensional diagram?

A

Bar diagram

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77
Q

Another name for a cumulative frequency polygon is:

A

Ogives

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78
Q

___________ include scales wherein the researchers ask the respondents for their relative preference between two or more objects.

A

Comparative scales

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79
Q

The broader classification of tables is into__________ types.

A

Two

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80
Q

__________ is the scale that contains absolute or true zero, which implies the absence of any trait.

A

Ratio

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81
Q

Histogram can be drawn only for:

A

Continuous frequency

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82
Q

Another name for a sector diagram is a:

A

Pie chart

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83
Q

What is the shape of a pie chart?

A

Circle

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84
Q

A polygon can be drawn from a:

A

Histogram

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85
Q

_____________ are the commonly used graphical presentations for the set of statistical distributions.

A

Frequency polygons

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86
Q

Ogives can help locate graphically the:

A

Median

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87
Q

The histogram is an efficient means for representing:

A

Median

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88
Q

In _________ scale, the variables are named or labelled in no specific order. This is the measurement scale in which numbers are assigned to things, beings or events to classify or identify or label them.

A

Nominal

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89
Q

Bar diagram is suitable for presenting:

A

Single variable

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90
Q

In ______________ approach of ranking scale, the respondents are asked to rank their choices according to their preferences.

A

Rank order

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91
Q

Mode = 3 Median−________ Mean

A

2

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92
Q

The sum of deviation of value from their mean is equal to:

A

0

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93
Q

Which of the following is not a common measure of central tendency?

A

Range

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94
Q

The mode of the numbers 8, 8, 10, 8, 10, 15, 15, 15, 10 is

A

8 and 10

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95
Q

Calculate Median from the following data set: 6, 4, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 4

A

4

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96
Q

The sum of squares of deviations of different values from their arithmetic mean is

A

Minimum

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97
Q

Which of the following is the geometric mean of 2, 4, and 8?

A

4

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98
Q

Which of the following is true?

A

Notation for mode is Z

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99
Q

Calculate median from the following data set: 5, 5, 11, 9, 8, 5, 8

A

8

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100
Q

The positional measure of central tendency

A

Median

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101
Q

The average of all the observations in a data set is known as:

A

Mean

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102
Q

If each item is reduced by 9, Arithmetic Mean is

A

Decreased by 9

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103
Q

Which of the following is the value that most often occurs in a dataset?

A

Mode

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104
Q
Which of the following is the mode (Z) when the following data is converted into an ordinary frequency table?
2 students get less than 4 marks 
5 students get less than 8 marks
13 students get less than 12 marks 
16 students get less than 16 marks 
20 students get less than 20 marks
A

Z = 10

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105
Q

Q2 is ____________.

A

Median

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106
Q

Quartiles divide the entire set into ____________ equal parts.

A

Four

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107
Q

Quartiles are the values that divide a list of numerical data into ____________ quarters.

A

Three

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108
Q

The measures of dispersion can be used to study the dispersed values near the____________value.

A

Mean

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109
Q

The ____________can be calculated by dividing SD with the mean of the series.

A

Coefficient of SD

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110
Q

The ____________ is half of the distance between the third and the first quartile.

A

Quartile deviation

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111
Q

The average of the squared differences from the Mean is called ____________.

A

Variance

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112
Q

The coefficient of ____________ is a measure of relative variability.

A

Variation

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113
Q

An ____________ measures of dispersion contain the same unit as the original data set.

A

Absolute

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114
Q

Measures of dispersion are also known as the averages of the ____________.

A

‘Second order’

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115
Q

____________ represents the difference between the highest value and the lowest value in a data series.

A

Range

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116
Q

The ____________ is defined as a statistical measure that is used to calculate the average deviation from the mean value of the given data set.

A

Mean deviation

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117
Q

Lower quartile is denoted by ____________.

A

Q1

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118
Q

The probability of the intersection is called the_________probability.

A

Joint

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119
Q

Association with_________contributed to very slow and sporadic growth of probability theory as a mathematical discipline.

A

Gambling

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120
Q

The _________ had its origin in gambling and games of chance.

A

Theory of probability

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121
Q

In the binomial distribution, each trial is known as a _________ trial.

A

Bernoulli

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122
Q

Blaise Pascal and Pierre de Fermat emphasised the development of_________and probability theory.

A

Combinations

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123
Q

A_________for an event E is said to be the set of all outcomes which are not included in a particular set of outcomes for event E.

A

Compliment

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124
Q

A probability distribution is a summary of all probabilities for a value of _________variable.

A

Random

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125
Q

When the outcomes in a permutation can be repeated it can be referred to it as permutations with _________.

A

Repetition

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126
Q

The specific multiplication rule is simple but it is applicable only when two events are _________.

A

Independent

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127
Q

_________ is another event that occurs as a result of combining other events.

A

Union

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128
Q

Businesses work in an_________environment.

A

Uncertain

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129
Q

The_________distribution function is used when there are random variables occurring or random events occurring at a certain rate over some time.

A

Poisson

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130
Q

In probability theory, we have different_________rules under certain conditions namely specific rule and general rule.

A

Multiplication

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131
Q

A _________ refers to a number that exhibits the chance or likelihood that a certain event will happen.

A

Probability

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132
Q

The formula for the probability is:

A

Probability (P) = Favourable Outcome(s)

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133
Q

_______ correlation refers to the correlation between two data series in which the data is ranked.

A

Rank

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134
Q

Whenever one variable change in a particular direction, the change in another variable is _______ .

A

Inevitable

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135
Q

_______ is employed as a widely used and reliable method of analysing the linear relation between variants.

A

Correlation

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136
Q

When there is the relation between the variables, it has been said that the variables are _______ .

A

Correlated

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137
Q

A _______ correlation infers that two or more variables have a strong relationship with each other.

A

High

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138
Q

When the change in one variable results in the change in another variable in the same direction is it said to have _______ .

A

Positive correlation

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139
Q

Correlation refers to the_______ interrelatedness between two variables.

A

Linear

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140
Q

A _______ correlation implies that the variables are hardly associated.

A

Weak

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141
Q

A _______ diagram graphically presents the relation or the association without significantly, providing numerical value for comparison.

A

Scatter

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142
Q

_______ correlation is used to find the degree of the linear relationship between two variables.

A

Simple

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143
Q

When the change in one variable is in one direction but the change in another variable is just opposite to it, it is called as _______ .

A

Negative correlation

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144
Q

It is acceptable that there are various methods of establishing an association between the _______ .

A

Variable

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145
Q

Hypothesis t represents a tentative relationship between two or more ________ .

A

Variables

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146
Q

Hypothesis is a proposed explanation given for a/an ________ situation.

A

Observed

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147
Q

heprocedure to utilise test statistics to check whether a hypothesis is ________ is known as hypothesis testing.

A

TRUE

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148
Q

A hypothesis refers to an ________ that is made in the population parameter and a sample statistic is used to verify the same.

A

Assumption

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149
Q

________ test is a part of directional hypothesis that talks not only about the relationship between two variables but also the direction of relationship.

A

One-tailed

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150
Q

A ________ statement is derived from a problem statement.

A

Hypothesis

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151
Q

________ tests which make assumptions about the parameters of the population from which a sample is derived.

A

Parametric

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152
Q

________ is used to compare the ratio of variances of two samples under study.

A

F-test

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153
Q

A hypothesis refers to an assumption that is made in the population parameter and a ________ statistic is used to verify the same.

A

Sample

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154
Q

Hypothesis is a very useful ________ to solve various research problems and issues.

A

Tool

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155
Q

Hypothesis is a specificprediction, which can be ________ .

A

Tested

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156
Q

Hypothesis testing assists the researcher in deriving ________ results, as it takes into consideration the errors due to sampling.

A

Realistic

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157
Q

hypothesis is a very useful tool to solvevarious research ________ and issues.

A

Problems

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158
Q

A ________ statement cannot bedirectly tested.

A

Problem

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159
Q

The formation of a hypothesis helps the researcher remain focused on the ________ problem.

A

Research

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160
Q

A hypothesis should be clear and specific to facilitate a deep and ________ study.

A

Comprehensive

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161
Q

A hypothesis refers to an assumption that is made in the population and a sample statistic is used to verify the same.

A

Parameter

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162
Q

A ________ refers to an assumption that is made in the population parameter and a sample statistic is used to verify the same.

A

Hypothesis

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163
Q

A researcher ________ forms a hypothesis about a problem and then tests it to check its validity by using statistical measures.

A

First

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164
Q

Both hypothesis and problem statements arise from a ________ situation.

A

predefined

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165
Q

The procedure to utilise test statistics to check whether a hypothesis is true is known as hypothesis ________ .

A

Testing

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166
Q

A hypothesis should ________ define its topic.

A

Clearly

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167
Q

A hypothesis refers to an assumption that is made in the ________ parameter and a sample statistic is used to verify the same.

A

Population

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168
Q

A researcher first forms a hypothesis about a problem and then tests it to check its ________ by using statistical measures.

A

Validity

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169
Q

Hypothesis is formulated to solve the problem by testing it with the help of various tests of ________ .

A

Significance

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170
Q

MS between columns = SS between columns/( _______ – 1)

A

c

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171
Q

In ANOVA, one type of variation occurs due to:

A

Chance

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172
Q

In two-way ANOVA, there are _______ possible null hypotheses.

A

Two

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173
Q

_______ = MS between/MS within

A

F-ratio

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174
Q

_______ is used to study and explain the amount of variation in more than two samples or data sets.

A

ANOVA

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175
Q

In a chi-square test, first the researcher finds out the expected frequency on the basis of _______ .

A

Distribution

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176
Q

Chi-squared test is used for measuring how well the observed distribution of data fits with the expected distribution of data in case of:

A

Independent variables

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177
Q

In one-way ANOVA, if the value of F-ratio lies under the limits of acceptance region:

A

The null hypothesis is accepted and the alternate hypothesis is rejected.

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178
Q

The _______ is used to determine whether a substantial difference exists between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in one or multiple categories.

A

Chi-squared test

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179
Q

_______ is used when a researcher wants to test the differences between groups that have been split on the basis of two attributes or independent variables or factors.

A

One-way ANOVA

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180
Q

In chi-square test for _______ , two attributes are tested to find out whether they are associated with each other.

A

Independence

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181
Q

In the formula of Chi-square test what does O signify?

A

Observed value

182
Q

Residual variation = _______ – (SS between + SS within)

A

Total SS

183
Q

Chief component of first-generation computer was

A

Vacuum Tubes and Valves

184
Q

Which type of computers uses the 8-bit code called EBCDIC?

A

Mainframe computers

185
Q

he ALU of a computer responds to the commands coming from

A

Control section

186
Q

A hybrid computer

A

Resembles both a digital and analogue computer

187
Q

The brain of any computer system is

A

CPU

188
Q

Microprocessors as switching devices are for:

A

Fourth Generation Computers

189
Q

Which of the following IC was used in third generation of computers?

A

SSI and MSI

190
Q

UNIVAC is:

A

Universal Automatic Computer

191
Q

What is the main difference between a mainframe and a super computer?

A

Supercomputers are focused to execute few programs as fast as possible while mainframe uses its power to execute as many programs concurrently

192
Q

Integrated Circuits (ICS) are related to which generation of computers?

A

Third generation

193
Q

To produce high quality graphics (hardcopy) in color, you would want to use a/n

A

Plotter

194
Q

The two major types of computer chips are

A

Logic chips and Memory chips

195
Q

Computer is free from tiresome and boardroom. We call it

A

Reliability

196
Q

Storage capacity of magnetic disk depends on?

A. tracks per inch of surface
B. bits per inch of tracks
C. disk pack in disk surface
D. All of above

A

Option D

197
Q

A storage area used to store data to a compensate for the difference in speed at which the different units can handle data is

A

Buffer

198
Q

The two kinds of main memory are:

A

RAM and ROM

199
Q

The basic operations performed by a computer are

A
  1. Arithmetic operations
  2. Logical operations
  3. Storage and relative functions
200
Q

ASCII and EBCDIC are the popular character coding systems. What does EBCDIC stand for?

A

Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange CodeExtended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code

201
Q

Any text or graphic that you insert in a appears at the top of every page in the document.

A

Header

202
Q

The ________ feature helps you to automatically correct the spelling mistakes that one commits while typing.

A

AutoCorrect

203
Q

To save the document from unauthorised access; you will use the ________ command.

A

Restrict Editing

204
Q

Heading 1, Heading 2, Title and Strong are the in a document.

A

Styles

205
Q

Which of the following options should be used to place the selected text or character above the normal text?

A

Superscript

206
Q

Reema is trying to find a synonym for a word in a MS-Word document. Which option should she use?

A

Thesaurus

207
Q

Which of the following defines the area that appears just above the bottom margin of the page?

A

Footer

208
Q

Identify the correct path for hyperlink in MS-Word.

A

Insert W Links W Hyperlink

209
Q

The footnote or endnote is separated from the entire text of the document by a ________ line.

A

Horizontal

210
Q

________ provide consistent style, look and feel to the entire document.

A

Themes

211
Q

Which of the following styles is used to make the text strong or thick?

A

Bold

212
Q

Which of the following options helps to provide the range of the pages of the document?

A

Print Custom Range option

213
Q

________ is a method in Microsoft Word to keep track of the alterations you make to a document.

A

Track Changes

214
Q

Header & Footer button is located under the ____________ group of the Insert tab.

A

Text

215
Q

Which PowerPoint view works best for adding slide transitions?

A

Slide Sorter view

216
Q

Which key is used to start a presentation?

A

F5

217
Q

The special effects used to introduce slides in a presentation are called

A

Transitions

218
Q

The ____________ tab consists of the commands that let you work with slides.

A

Slide Show

219
Q

What is the term used when you press and hold the left mouse key and move the mouse around the slide?

A

Dragging

220
Q

To edit a chart, you can

A

Double click the chart object

221
Q

In the context of the animations, what is a trigger?

A

An item on the slide that acts when clicked

222
Q

The ____________ allow you to specify the appearance of the slides in the slide show.

A

Transition styles

223
Q

___________ allows you to format a cell or range of cells based on specific conditions.

A

Conditional formatting

224
Q

% is a/an ___________ operator.

A

Arithmetic operator

225
Q

Which of the following is the correct path for the LOOKUP FUNCTION?

A

Formulas  Function  Lookup & Reference  LOOKUP

226
Q

How many types of font styles are available in MS Excel?

A

Four

227
Q

n the syntax of the VLOOKUP function, ___________ refers to a logical value that specifies whether you want to find an exact or estimated match.

A

range_lookup

228
Q

Both formulas and functions must be preceded by the ___________ for Excel to understand them.

A

Equal sign

229
Q

Which of the following functions returns TRUE if all the arguments used in the function are true?

A

AND

230
Q

___________ a worksheet refers to the process of changing the appearance of the data so that it can be more readable.

A

Formatting

231
Q

By default, the width of a column in a worksheet is ___________ characters.

A

8.43

232
Q

ROUND(45893.674539011567, 5) will return ___________ .

A

45893.67454

233
Q

Which of the following tabs contains the tools to check spellings, translate words, add comments, and protect a workbook?

A

Review tab

234
Q

Simran creates a workbook and types her name in cell A1. She noticed that the typed name also displays at one other place in the workbook. Which is this place?

A

Formula bar

235
Q

The ___________ function returns the future value of an investment or a loan, based on a fixed interest rate and a fixed payment.

A

FV()

236
Q

he syntax of the FV function is as follows:

=FV(rate, nper, pmt, [pv], [type])

In this syntax, nper stands for?

A

Total number of payments periods in an annuity

237
Q

In MS Excel, the range of cells D7 to K100 is referenced as ___________ .

A

D7:K100

238
Q

Which of the following options is used for defining the print area of a worksheet?

A

Margin

239
Q

The Protect Workbook button is found under ___________ tab of MS Excel.

A

Review

240
Q

Which of the following spreadsheet applications is developed by Microsoft?

A

MS Excel

241
Q

Which of the following functions helps in adding the specified arguments?

A

SUM()

242
Q

Which of the following options is not present in Highlight Cells Rules conditional formatting?

A

Less Than

243
Q

A ___________ is a single selection of a group of cells.

A

Range

244
Q

Which of the following functions is used to join two or more text strings into a single text string?

A

CONCATENATE()

245
Q

The ___________ returns the current date and time of a computer.

A

NOW() function

246
Q

A ___________ refers to the amount of space between data and an edge of a page in the worksheet.

A

Margin

247
Q

Which of the following levels of organisational behaviour includes the study of group formation, team conflict, leadership, power and politics?

A

Group

248
Q

Which of the following factors can motivate an employee?

A
  1. Appreciation

2. Rewards and Recognition

249
Q

Which of the following is defined as a process of influencing, motivating, inspiring and directing people to attain organisation goals?

A

Leadership

250
Q

The third level in organisational behaviour is the________level, which includes the changes in organisation’s culture, management and their effect on the group and individuals.

A

Organisational

251
Q

Which of the following are the advantages of studying organisational behaviour?

A
  1. Cordial Interpersonal Relationship
  2. Employees feel valued and involved
  3. Good working Environment
252
Q

Which of the following experiments were done to find out workers’ feelings and sentiments towards their work and working conditions?

A

Experiments in interviewing workers

253
Q

Which of the following is defined as the study of human cultures, beliefs, values, ideas, practices, etc., in the past and present?

A

Anthropology

254
Q

‘X is one of the outstanding employees of an organisation and displays a high need for achievement’. Which of the following behaviour of X is represented in the provided sentence?

A

Internal

255
Q

Which of the following is necessary to make new employees comfortable and confident in expressing their ideas?

A

Healthy organisation culture

256
Q

Which of the following skills are needed by a manager to effectively manage employees in an organisation?

A
  1. Leadership skills
  2. Conceptual skills
  3. Negotiation skills
257
Q

Which of the following is the scientific study of the mental processes and behaviour of human beings?

A

Psychology

258
Q

Organisational behaviour is a_______tool that aids organisations in understanding the cause for the problem, predicting measures for action and controlling its consequences for human benefit.

A

Human

259
Q

Which of the following helps in understanding motivation at work, interpersonal relationships, training needs and the effect of personality traits on behaviour?

A

Psychology

260
Q

Which of the following management movements came in after the Industrial Revolution?

A

Scientific management

261
Q

A________consists of two or more people that interact with each other to achieve specific or common goals.

A

Group

262
Q

In which of the following studies, the primary purpose was to make an observational analysis of the informal workgroup?

A

Bank wiring room experiments

263
Q

Organisational behaviour is:

A

Interdisciplinary approach

264
Q

Which of the following levels of organisational behaviour deals with the perception, personality, learning, motivation and attitudes of the employees in an organisation?

A

Individual

265
Q

Which of the following is not an internal behavioural process?

A

Leading

266
Q

The purpose of the Hawthorne Experiments I was/were to understand the impact on the productivity of:

A
  1. Social situations of workers
  2. Human Factor
  3. Employee Attitude
267
Q

________was developed by Hackman and Oldham to measure both overall and specific facets of job satisfaction.

A

Job Diagnostic Survey

268
Q

________ refers to an expression of a favourable or unfavourable evaluation of a person, place, thing or event.

A

Attitude

269
Q

Which of the following refers to how much a person values himself?

A

Self-esteem

270
Q

In which of the following cases, individuals are only concerned with themselves and do not like being social?

A

Introversion

271
Q

Which of the following reflects or denotes people’s characteristics, such as thoughts, behaviour and feelings?

A

Personality trait

272
Q

_______refer to the collective conceptions of what is good or bad, desirable or undesirable and proper or improper in a culture.

A

Values

273
Q

Which of the following psychologists invented ‘Self Theory’?

A

Carl Rogers

274
Q

Which of the following is defined as the common traits which shape the behaviour of an individual and are found in a majority of people within a society or culture?

A

Central traits

275
Q

The ________shows the tendencies which may seem like they are trying to usurp other employee’s duties.

A

Commander

276
Q

Which is the example of values?

A

All of these

277
Q

Which of the following is not a trait theory?

A

Self-theory

278
Q

Which of the following best defines personality traits?

A

Unique qualities of an individual

279
Q

Which of the following personality traits is possessed by an individual who is ready to explore new things out of curiosity, imagination and art?

A

Open to experiences

280
Q

_______is identifying with the job, actively taking part in the job and considering performance important to self-worth.

A

Job Involvement

281
Q

An individual’s behaviour and personality are based on which of the following traits?

A

All of these

282
Q

In which of the following cases, individuals are more concerned with what is happening outside and like being socially active?

A

Extraversion

283
Q

Who discovered the social learning theory?

A

Albert Bandura

284
Q

Which of the following personality traits is possessed by an individual who is moody, angry and depressed?

A

Neuroticism

285
Q

___________ are the other groups to which a group is compared to.

A

Reference Groups

286
Q

___________ is the next stage after forming. This stage starts with knowing the other members of the team cautiously.

A

Storming

287
Q

Monetary factors are ___________ factors to work which influence motivation.

A

Extrinsic

288
Q

__________ means shuffling of jobs among individuals.

A

Job rotation

289
Q

Individuals who are assigned to perform a particular job, task or project form ___________ .

A

Task Group

290
Q

A collection of individuals sharing mutual viewpoints and objectives is defined as a ___________ .

A

Group

291
Q

__________ refer to the factors that represent employees’ perception about their jobs.

A

Motivators

292
Q

__________ theory is also called Three Needs Theory.

A

McClelland’s theory

293
Q

A group structure status includes ___________ .

A

All of these

294
Q

_________ refers to the perception of employees that a particular amount of effort will lead to a certain level of performance.

A

Effort-performance relationship

295
Q

When a direct informal face-to-face interaction and communication occurs among members of a group, it is said to be a

A

Primary group

296
Q

________ include needs for the drive to become what one is capable of becoming. It includes growth, achieving one’s potential and self-fulfilment.

A

Self-actualisation needs

297
Q

The concept of ___________ deals with identifying human behaviour and is concerned with understanding the reason behind why individuals act and react in a Certain manner.

A

Motivation

298
Q

_______ groups are those groups that are formed by the organisation for accomplishment of specific tasks and projects.

A

Formal

299
Q

_________ refers to the extent of belongingness towards each other in the group.

A

Cohesiveness

300
Q

_______ refers to the perception of employees that if they perform in a particular way, they might get certain rewards.

A

Instrumentality

301
Q

__________ include recognition and appreciation.

A

Non-monetary factors

302
Q

The most famous and influential theory on workplace motivation was developed by the psychologist ___________ .

A

Abraham H. Maslow

303
Q

_________ is the last stage in team development and is only applicable for the temporary teams.

A

Adjourning

304
Q

ERG Theory was given by ___________ .

A

Clayton Alderfer

305
Q

Which among the following is not a leadership theory?

A

Need Theory

306
Q

___________ focus on the day-to-day events to administer and manage the system.

A

Managers

307
Q

Which leadership theory discuses human skills, technical skills and conceptual skills?

A

Behavioral

308
Q

Which leadership style is demoted by (5, 5)?

A

Middle-of-the-Road

309
Q

Managerial grid has how many dimensions?

A

2

310
Q

Which among the following denotes team management?

A

(9, 9)

311
Q

Which theory categorised traits?

A

Allport’s Trait Theory

312
Q

This is low concern for production and low concern for people. Choose the correct answer.

A

Impoverished Management

313
Q

Which among the following is/are not part of basic foundation of leadership skills?

A

Morale

314
Q

___________ are considered as powerful traits and very few people have a personality which is dominated by these traits.

A

Cardinal traits

315
Q

Being friendly, jovial, loyal and agreeable are the example of which trait?

A

central trait

316
Q

_________ is a collegial style wherein the leader has high concern for people and low concern for production.

A

Country Club

317
Q

__________ is the ability to manage, motivate and influence workers to work with confidence and enthusiasm.

A

Leadership

318
Q

Leaders ________ while managers __________.

A

both a and c

319
Q

Maturity level is discussed under which theory?

A

Hersey Blanchard Situational Leadership Theory

320
Q

________ theory was developed by Fred E. Fiedler.

A

Contingency

321
Q

A ____________refers to the person having clear idea about how the future should look.

A

Visionary leader

322
Q

Which theory comes under historical leadership theory?

A

Contingency

323
Q

__________ skills refer to the individual’s knowledge of the system, processes and techniques.

A

Technical

324
Q

_______ leadership includes transformational leadership, leader-member exchange, servant leadership, and authentic leadership.

A

Contemporary

325
Q

______ is the power possessed by an individual because of his/her superior ability or expertise in one or more areas.

A

Expert power

326
Q

Under which technique do managers set a deadline for others to comply with a request?

A

Assertiveness

327
Q

Which is not the type of power?

A

None of these

328
Q

Which of the following powers practiced only when a manager influences employees by punishment?

A

Coercive power

329
Q

_____ base of power includes coercive power, reward power, and legitimate power.

A

Formal

330
Q

‘Organisational politics is generally outside one’s specific job requirements’ shows which of the following politics features?

A

Non-official base

331
Q

______ type of power is used by an individual who is liked and respected by others.

A

Referent power

332
Q

______ are more prominent in the case of interdependent departments in organisations, where the support of one team is necessary to accomplish the objectives of the other team.

A

Coalition

333
Q

Which among the following is not the negative impact of power?

A

eliminates conflict

334
Q

This implies exchanging favours and benefits through a process of negotiation.

A

Bargaining

335
Q

Using this technique, managers set a deadline for others to comply with a request, command others to do what they were expected to do and emphasise on the importance of complying with the request and repeatedly reminding others of their obligations.

A

Assertiveness

336
Q

______ is the negative part of power that is exercised only when a manager has to influence employees by punishment.

A

Coercive power

337
Q

______ refers to possessing authority and influencing others.

A

Power

338
Q

_________ is the unique characteristics of an organisation.

A

Both a and b

339
Q

______ organisation refers to a structure of jobs and functions which are defined by the management to achieve the objectives of an organisation and is bound by rules, procedures and systems.

A

Formal

340
Q

_______ introduced the human relations approach in the classical theory of organisation.

A

Neo-classical theorists

341
Q

The evolution of organisation theories is broadly categorised in ___________ phases.

A

Four

342
Q

Which among the following is/are the objectives followed by every organisation?

A

All of these

343
Q

_________ pioneered the Hawthorne studies.

A

Elton Mayo

344
Q

_______ viewed the organisation as a machine and the humans working in these organisations as the components of this machine.

A

Classical theorists

345
Q

______ organisation is a relationship between people according to the network of personal and social relationships which originate from within the formal set-up.

A

Informal

346
Q

The business environment includes ___________ environment.

A

Both a and b

347
Q

Every organisation has:

A

All of these

348
Q

The ___________ is the set of interrelated concepts, definitions which elaborates the behaviour of each employee, group or subgroups, who interacts for performing the jobs intended towards the achieving a common goal.

A

Organisational theory

349
Q

There is how many types of organisations formed based on relationships?

A

Two

350
Q

_______ organisations arise from personal and social relationships between people working in the system.

A

Informal

351
Q

Which is not the feature of the formal organisation?

A

Come up automatically

352
Q

_____ gave the concept of management and also identified division of labour and specialisation for improving productivity.

A

Adam smith

353
Q

_______ lays the foundation for various classifications of organisations which is known as the Organisational Configurations.

A

Henry Mintzberg

354
Q

The __________ structure is typical of larger companies that operate in bigger geographical areas or they operate in different domains for different products.

A

Divisional

355
Q

_______ indicates the position that an organisation wishes to achieve in the future.

A

Vision

356
Q

______ is the degree to which the different activities, rules, procedures, instructions, etc., are mentioned, defined and standardised in an organisation.

A

Formalisation

357
Q

____ is a framework architecture in which an organisation runs its business.

A

Organisation design

358
Q

A __________ is a design wherein an organisation has teams, and each team works towards a common goal.

A

Team Structure

359
Q

Which feature of strategic intent determines the future course of the organisation?

A

Direction

360
Q

This feature of strategic intent provides a direction for the future destination of the organisation.

A

Destiny

361
Q

This structure is characterised by many guidelines and procedures, but the employees are highly independent.

A

Professional Organisation

362
Q

The __________ structure includes a specific level of system and this is normally preferred for larger multinational organisations.

A

Administrative

363
Q

Organisation design involves various aspects of life at work that includes which of the following?

A

All of these

364
Q

______ shows the way an organisation can produce the target quota of products, by making the process efficient and by eliminating waste.

A

Organisational effectiveness

365
Q

The concept of strategy was introduced in the 1960s by __________ , known as the “father of strategic management”.

A

Igor Ansoff

366
Q

A structure that results by combining two or more types of organisational structures such as by combining the functional and divisional structures is called the __________ structure.

A

Matrix structure

367
Q

________ differentiation is the number of levels in the organisation.

A

Vertical

368
Q

A __________ is the structure in which design is not defined by, or limited to, the horizontal, vertical or external boundaries.

A

Boundaryless organisation

369
Q

_____ differentiation is the number of different units at the same level in the organisation.

A

Horizontal

370
Q

What is is neither too flat nor is hierarchical in its structure?

A

Flatarchies

371
Q

Harvard University Professor Michael E. Porter developed an effective model for industry analysis. The model is known as the __________ .

A

Porter’s Five Forces Model

372
Q

How many Ds of strategic intent are there?

A

3

373
Q

It refers to the ability of an organisation to pursue its objectives in every situation.

A

Tenacity

374
Q

________ refers to how the organisational structure groups the company’s functions, offices and teams.

A

Departmentalisation

375
Q

An organisational structure’s ________ defines how many employees each manager is responsible for within the company.

A

Span of control

376
Q

This type of structure is informal in nature and is generally used in small-scale organisations.

A

Line structure

377
Q

________ is an organisational structure in which an organisation is divided into different independent or autonomousunits.

A

Divisional structure

378
Q

The organisational ________ varies on the basis of organisational objectives and strategies selected to achieve them.

A

Structure

379
Q

________ is defined as an organisation structure in which every employee is placed somewhere on an organisational chart.

A

Reporting relationships

380
Q

________ ensures a deeper commitment and dedication of employees in their assigned tasks.

A

Employee involvement

381
Q

________ refers to the degree of authority of an organisation in the world at large.

A

Influence

382
Q

A ________ organisational structure is also known as the flat organisational structure.

A

Horizontal structure

383
Q

It is done by grouping people on the basis of common customers or types of customers.

A

Customerdepartmental grouping

384
Q

________ is the element that determines the company’s procedures, rules and guidelines as adopted by management.

A

Formalisation

385
Q

This is also called a hybrid organisation structure.

A

Matrix structure

386
Q

________ information sharing refer to information sharing among people at the parallel or same level, position, rank or status people of the organisation.

A

Horizontal

387
Q

A ________ culture refers to the culture which is deemed worthy of attention.

A

Progressive

388
Q

This means a process wherein all the employees and owners of the organisation interact with each other.

A

Socialisation

389
Q

Subcultures are ________ which tend to develop in large organisations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences.

A

Mini-cultures

390
Q

This leads to low self-esteem and efforts that weaken the organisational culture and hamper the goal achievement process.

A

Lack of Motivation

391
Q

________ model represents an individual as a window comprising four quadrants.

A

Johari Window

392
Q

In the statement ‘This area represents the information that is known only to the individual and not to others’, which area of the Johari Window is being talked about?

A

Hidden area

393
Q

________ culture expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organisation’s members.

A

Dominant

394
Q

There are three levels of organisational culture described by ________ .

A

Edgar Henry Schein

395
Q

There are how many pillars of the iceberg model?

A

Three

396
Q

________ refers to the need of all the employees of an organisation to work inharmony to achieve common goals.

A

Uniformity

397
Q

Organisational ________ is a result of underlying beliefs, values, norms and ethics that are practiced by the members of an organisation.

A

Culture

398
Q

Which is/are not organisation’s visible elements?

A

Turnover rates

399
Q

Iceberg model of culture was given by Anthropologist ________ in the 1970s as an analogy for the cultural codes that prevail in any society.

A

Edward T. Hall

400
Q

Who is regarded as the father of scientific management, who gave the scientific human resource management approach?

A

Frederick W. Taylor

401
Q

Employees may also have ____________ from their seniors, colleagues and subordinates.

A

Grievances

402
Q

During Industrial revolution period, the concept of ____________ management emerged.

A

Personnel

403
Q

HRM is based on human ____________

A

Orientation

404
Q

The success of an organisation depends on the capabilities of its ____________ resources.

A

Human

405
Q

Effective HRM practices enable employees to have clarity of their ____________ .

A

Job roles

406
Q

____________ aims at developing skills, knowledge and abilities of both the recruits and existing employees so that they can perform effectively.

A

Training

407
Q

Human Resource Management (HRM) is the process of obtaining, utilising and developing a satisfied ____________ .

A

Workforce

408
Q

Employee ____________ involves all those activities that are directed towards providing different facilities and services to employees apart from wages or salaries.

A

Welfare

409
Q

____________ is a systematic process of determining an organisation’s future workforce requirements.

A

Human Resource Planning

410
Q

____________ is one of the important HRM practices wherein particular job duties and requirements.

A

Job analysis

411
Q

What led to the shift in the economy (1750-1850) from agriculture to industry?

A

Industrial revolution

412
Q

____________ is a process of assessing the job performance of employees after a fixed period.

A

Performance appraisal

413
Q

____________ refers to a strategic approach of managing an organisation’s people in such a way that they work towards meeting organisational goals and objectives.

A

Human resource management

414
Q

Post- ____________ activities, such as induction, orientation and training also form the part of the recruitment and selection process of an organisation.

A

Selection

415
Q

____________ involves attracting a pool of applicants for a particular job position, while selection is a process of choosing a suitable applicant from that pool.

A

Recruitment

416
Q

____________ involves determining the wages and salaries of employees at different levels and positions in an organisation.

A

Compensation management

417
Q

Recruitment is one of the most fundamental and value-added processes of _________ .

A

Human Resource Management

418
Q

Effective _________ helps to identify gaps in the existing workforce of an organisation

A

Human Resource Planning

419
Q

_________ is regarded as a negative process that involves sorting appropriate candidates for the job position from the generated pool.

A

Selection

420
Q

The high level of _________ force organisations to change their recruitment policy.

A

Competition

421
Q

In _________ step, a large number of people are grouped together in order to screen the right candidate later

A

Searching

422
Q

_________ involves shifting an employee from one job to another, one department to another, or one branch to another.

A

Transfers

423
Q

_________ is the first step in the recruitment process wherein the HR personnel determine the number of people needed.

A

Recruitment planning

424
Q

_________ is considered to be a positive process that involves attracting and obtaining applications from potential job seekers.

A

Recruitment

425
Q

_________ factors are the factors that are beyond the control of an organisation.

A

Internal

426
Q

_________ involves moving an employee to a higher position with higher responsibilities, facilities, status and salary within the organisation according to his/her efficiency and performance.

A

Promotion

427
Q

_________ is one of the most crucial steps wherein the HR personnel consider organisational objectives and job description.

A

Screening

428
Q

The availability of _________ in the location of the organisation influences its recruitment policy to a large extent.

A

Labour

429
Q

_________ is the last step of the recruitment process. In this step, the entire recruitment is monitored to identify loopholes.

A

Evaluation and control

430
Q

In _________ development the HR personnel formulate a recruitment strategy, which focuses on where, how and when to search for the right people.

A

Strategy

431
Q

_________ factors are the factors that are under the control of an organisation.

A

Internal

432
Q

Organisations can also hire people who are sent on _________ by the government or any financial institution.

A

Liability

433
Q

The success or failure of any organisation depends a great deal on the calibre of its most important asset, i.e., its _________ .

A

Human resource

434
Q

A positive _________ of an organisation helps to attract people easily.

A

Goodwill

435
Q

Choose the odd-one-out.

A

Assessment centre method

436
Q

Which one is the most important step in the training process?

A

Deciding training objectives

437
Q

Consider the following characteristics of training and select the option that best describes the given characteristics.

Characteristic I: Employees are trained in a realistic job setting but at a place different from the one in which they work

Characteristic II: The training is provided by qualified instructors with an imitation of the actual work conditions.

Characteristic III: This method of training is suitable when a large number of employees are to be trained at the same time and for the same kind of work.

A

Vestibule training

438
Q

In the process of training, which step comes after assessing the training needs?

A

Deciding training objectives

439
Q

In ____________ , you can use your smartphone or other devices to receive bits of job-related training and development as and when required.

A

Geofencing

440
Q

On-the-job training method wherein organisations rotate their employees:

A

Job rotation

441
Q

____________ is a process of building the competencies of employees for future performances.

A

Training

442
Q

The act of placing a new employee under the senior one for on-the-job training is called ____________ .

A

Mentoring

443
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Computer-based Training?

A

Requires an instructor’s assistance

444
Q

In ____________ method, the organisation appraises an employee based on the feedback received from various sources, such as superiors, subordinates, colleagues and the employee himself/herself.

A

360-degree appraisal method

445
Q

A company generated a net monetary benefit of training of 4 crores and its total costs of training was1.25 crores. What is its ROI?

A

320%

446
Q

Which of the following HR metrics are used to determine how effective HR is in delivering their initiatives?

A

Cost of training per employee

447
Q

A productive and successful ____________ ensures the availability of experienced and capable employees in an organisation.

A

Succession planning

448
Q

Which of the following types of training was developed by Kurt Lewin?

A

Sensitivity training

449
Q

Which of the following is not a drawback of the performance management system?

A

Inexpensive

450
Q

A training method in which employees are acquainted with actual job conditions is ____________ .

A

Simulation

451
Q

____________ involves one-to-one coaching.

A

Mentoring

452
Q

Which of the following is not true with respect to performance appraisal?

A

Performance appraisal increases internal conflicts