MBA Drills & Vocab 2 Flashcards

1
Q

It means that cash is received by the business from the proprietor. It results in the immediate receipt of cash.

A

Antony commenced business with ` 10,000

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2
Q

________accounting is a form of accounting which enables a business to be conducted more efficiently.

A

Management

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3
Q

The conventions, concepts, rules and procedures that together make up accepted accounting practice at any given time are called _______

A

GAAP

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4
Q

Which of the following is the art of recording, classifying and summarising in a significant manner, and in terms of money transactions and events which are in part at least, of a financial character and interpreting the results thereof.

A

Accounting

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5
Q

Which of the following accounting system provides a system of checks and balances?

A

Double Entry

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6
Q

Which of the following concept tells that to recognize revenue it has to be realized?

A

Realisation concept

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7
Q

Which of the following implies that a business unit is separate and distinct from the person who owns or controls it?

A

Business Entity

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8
Q

________basis is a process of accounting that recognizes the impact of transactions on the financial statements in the time periods when revenues and expenses occur instead of when cash is received.

A

Accrual

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9
Q

Inflation accounting is also called _______

A

Replacement

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10
Q

________ is an increase in economic benefits during the accounting period in the form of inflows or enhancements of assets or a decrease in liabilities, thereby increases equity and net worth.

A

Income

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11
Q

Outstanding wages A/c is________A/c

A

Personal

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12
Q

Debt may be of types

A

3

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13
Q

Bad Debts A/c is_______A/c

A

Nominal

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14
Q

Which of the following is a residual interest in the assets after deducting liabilities?

A

Equity

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15
Q

Which of the following is a concept that implies each transaction and event must be expressible in monetary terms ?

A

Money measurement

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16
Q

Prepaid Insurance A/c is ________A/c

A

Personal

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17
Q

Creditor may be types

A

4

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18
Q

A process of accounting where revenue and expense recognition would occur when cash is received and disbursed is called_______

A

Cash

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19
Q

________ they are the present obligations arising from past events. It also arises when an asset is created or acquired.

A

Liabilities

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20
Q

Which of the following is the after-tax cash flow generated by a business minus the cost of the capital it has deployed to generate that cash flow?

A

EVA

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21
Q

The basic sequence in the accounting process can best be described as

A

Transaction, source document, journal entry, ledger account, trial balance

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22
Q

Which one of the following systems of recording transactions has a dual aspect concept of accounting?

A

Double entry system

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23
Q

Indicate all of the following statements that correctly describe the net income. Net income

A

Increases owners’ equity.

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24
Q

A manufacturer is considering the point at which a transaction can be recognized within its profit and loss account. At which of the following stages is this permitted?

A

Order placed for the goods

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25
Q

In the books of account, if a transaction is completely deleted, will it affect the trial balance?

A

No

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26
Q

Which of the following accounts with normal balance is shown at the debit side of a trial balance?

A

Cash account

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27
Q

Which items influence the trial balance agreement?

A

Partial omission of a transaction

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28
Q

What is used in preparing trial balance?

A

Ledger accounts

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29
Q

When debit balance is equal to credit balance, then the trial balance means

A

Mathematically, Capital + Liabilities = Assets

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30
Q

What is the trial balance used for?

A

It records balances of accounts

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31
Q

The accounting system, in which accounting entries are made on the basis of amount, having become due for payment or receipt, is known as?

A

Accrual system of accounting

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32
Q

The documents relating to purchase of asset must be authorized by

A

Senior management

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33
Q

Bookkeeping is mainly concerned with

A

Recording the economic activities

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34
Q

Trial balance is used to check the accuracy of

A

Ledger accounts balances

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35
Q

When is trial balance prepared?

A

At the end of an accounting period

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36
Q

Accounting to the rules of debit and credit for balance sheet accounts:

A

Decrease in liability and owners’ equity accounts are recorded by debits.

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37
Q

Accrual-basis of accounting

A

Leads to the reporting of more complete information than cash-basis

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38
Q

Revenue is generally recognized being earned at the point of time when

A

Billed to customers

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39
Q

Double entry bookkeeping means

A

Entry for two aspects of transaction

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40
Q

Depreciation is calculated under diminishing balance method, based on

A

Book value

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41
Q

Depreciation amount charged on a machinery will be debited to:

A

Depreciation account

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42
Q

Which of the following is the example of revenue reserve?

A

Investment fluctuation fund

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43
Q

The loss on sale of an asset is debited to:

A

Profit and loss account

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44
Q

The main objective of depreciation is

A

To calculate net profit

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45
Q

Which of the following is the example of capital reserve?

A

Premium received on issue of shares or debentures

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46
Q

Which of the following methods of depreciation is not recognized by Income Tax Law?

A

Straight line Method

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47
Q

According to straight line method of providing depreciation, the depreciation

A

Remains constant

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48
Q

Salvage value means

A

Estimated disposal value

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49
Q

According to Companies Act, 1956, secret reserves can be created by:

A

Banking and insurance companies

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50
Q

According to fixed instalment method, depreciation is calculated on

A

Original cost

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51
Q

Asset Disposal A/c is prepared when:

A

Provision for depreciation a/c is prepared

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52
Q

In accounting, becoming out of date or obsolete is known as

A

Obsolescence

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53
Q

Depreciation is generated due to

A

Wear and tear

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54
Q

Total amount of depreciation of an asset cannot exceed its

A

Depreciable value

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55
Q

At the end of the year, depreciation account is transferred to:

A

Profit and loss account

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56
Q

What is the purpose of making a provision for depreciation in the accounts?

A

To charge the cost of fixed assets against profits

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57
Q

General reserves are shown in:

A

Balance sheet

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58
Q

Dividend equalisation reserve is:

A

Specific reserve

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59
Q

Depreciation is charged on:

A

Fixed tangible assets

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60
Q

Repairs to building and machinery are categorised under which of the following heads?

A

Miscellaneous expenditures

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61
Q

Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013 provides general instructions for the preparation of _______ .

A

balance sheet only

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62
Q

In a profit and loss account, all indirect revenue expenses are shown in the ______ side and the indirect revenue incomes are shown in the ______ side.

A

debit; credit

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63
Q

The _______ refers to a statement that summarises and presents the financial position of a company on any given date.

A

balance sheet

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64
Q

The format of financial statements prescribed in Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013 was voluntarily applicable from _______ .

A

Apr-15

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65
Q

_______ is the final process for any accounting year.

A

Preparation of financial statements

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66
Q

Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013 provides instructions for the preparation of the _______ of Indian corporations.

A

Balance sheet and the profit and loss statement

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67
Q

Which among the following are the forms of the balance sheet?

A

Horizontal or vertical

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68
Q

Which of these is NOT included in current liabilities?

A

Capital work-in-progress

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69
Q

Profit and loss statement is also called_______ . Choose the correct option.

A

Statement of income

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70
Q

In order to achieve _______ , organisations prepare financial statements by following a uniform pattern or standards as instructed by the local Accounting Standards Board (ASB) and the relevant Act.

A

comparability

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71
Q

Preparation of the financial statement is the _______ step of the accounting cycle.

A

final

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72
Q

In a balance sheet, the _______ balances are reflected by assets.

A

debit

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73
Q

_______ is the balance in the statement of profit and loss disclosing allocations and appropriations, such as dividend paid, bonus shares and transfer to/from reserves.

A

Surplus

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74
Q

Capital work-in-progress is a _______ .

A

fixed asset

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75
Q

On the bank statement, cash deposited by the company is known as

A

Credit

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76
Q

What is “Deposit in transit” in bank reconciliation?

A

Added to Bank Balance

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77
Q

Bank reconciliation statement compares a bank statement with_____________ .

A

Cashbook

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78
Q

An unadjusted balance in a cash book is because of the result of which error?

A

The omission of Bank charges

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79
Q

In a cash book, the favourable balance indicates

A

Debit Balance

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80
Q

What type of cheques is that which is issued by a firm but not yet presented to the bank?

A

Outstanding cheques

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81
Q

‘NSF’ marked in cheque sent back by the bank indicates

A

Not sufficient funds

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82
Q

Bank reconciliation description is composed of

A

Business Accountant

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83
Q

Unpresented cheques also referred to as

A

Outstanding cheques

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84
Q

In a cash book, bank charges of `5,000 was not recorded. Name the correct cash book adjustment

A

It will be credited in cash book

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85
Q

The ideal level of liquid ratio is:

A

1:01

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86
Q

Operating Ratio is used to examine the profitability from ___________ .

A

sale of core products

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87
Q

Current ratio is also known as

A

Working capital ratio

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88
Q

In which of the following measures is the operating liquidity available to an organisation?

A

Working capital turnover ratio

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89
Q

Which ones are also referred to as management ratios?

A

Activity ratios

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90
Q

When the concept of ratio is defined in respected to the items shown in the financial statements, it is termed as

A

Accounting ratio

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91
Q

Accounting ratios are divided into four main categories. Which one of the following was not included in it?

A

Control ratios

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92
Q

Which of the following is not a limitation of ratio analysis?

A

It cannot be used in forecasting.

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93
Q

Which of the following is not true about ratio analysis?

A

It is not useful in inter-firm and intra firm comparison.

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94
Q

Which one is the ratio of cost of goods sold by an organisation to its average inventory during a given accounting period?

A

Inventory Turnover Ratio

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95
Q

Liquid ratio is also known as:

A

Quick ratio

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96
Q

Which of the following ratios is used to compare an organisation’s total loans against its shareholders’ investments in an organisation?

A

Debt-Equity ratio

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97
Q

Quick assets divided by current liabilities is:

A

Liquid ratio

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98
Q

The ideal level of current ratio is:

A

2:01

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99
Q

___________ measures an organisation’s ability to meet its long-term obligations.

A

Solvency Ratio

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100
Q

Which of the following ratios measures short-term solvency?

A

Liquidity ratios

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101
Q

Quick Ratio is also referred to as the___________ . Which one is correct?

A

Acid test ratio

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102
Q

A higher value of Debtors Turnover Ratio can ___________ the average collection period of the organisation.

A

lower

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103
Q

Profit is equal to:

A

Contribution – Fixed cost

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104
Q

Marginal cost is equal to:

A

Variable cost

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105
Q

Marginal cost is equal to :

A

Total cost – Fixed cost

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106
Q

The CVP analysis, break-even analysis, and MOS are the tools used for:

A

Financial business analysis

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107
Q

P/V ratio establishes the relationship between:

A

Contribution and sales value

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108
Q

Contribution is equal to:

A

Selling price – Variable cost

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109
Q

The CVP analysis is used for finding __________ of a project.

A

Profitability

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110
Q

The break-even analysis is done by finding __________ of an organisation.

A

BEP

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111
Q

If an organisation deals with several products, its break-even point can be calculated with the help of:

A

Composite BEP

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112
Q

If the P/V ratio is 30% of sales, then what is the remaining 70% of sales?

A

Variable cost

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113
Q

The relationship between profit and volume can be represented through __________ ratio.

A

P/V

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114
Q

MOS is known as:

A

Difference between total sales and sales at bep

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115
Q

The CVP analysis helps a finance manager in framing:

A

Budget

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116
Q

Where the cost under two alternatives is equal, the break-even point is calculated with the help of:

A

Cost BEP

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117
Q

Which one of the following is not an advantage of P/V ratio?

A

Providing information on variations in capital invested

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118
Q

__________ is the change in the total cost of production when an additional unit of product is produced.

A

Marginal cost

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119
Q

Activity Ratios are also known as:

A
  1. Performance ratios
  2. Turnover ratios
  3. Efficiency ratios
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120
Q

Activity ratios include:

A
  1. Stock turnover ratio
  2. Trade receivables turnover ratio
  3. Trade payables turnover ratio
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121
Q

Ratio Analysis:

A
  1. is an arithmetical relationship between two accounting variables
  2. provide quantitative relationship between two variables
  3. It is one of the mean of financial analysis
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122
Q

Liquidity ratio includes:

A
  1. Current ratios
  2. Quick or liquid or acid test ratio
  3. Absolute liquid ratio
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123
Q

Solvency ratios include:

A
  1. Debt-equity ratio
  2. Propriety ratio
  3. Total asset to debt ratio
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124
Q

Which of the following liabilities are taken into account for quick ratios?

A
  1. Trade creditors
  2. Outstanding expenses
  3. Bank overdraft
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125
Q

Which of the following document is prepared for documentary evidence by business?

A
  1. Receipt
  2. Invoice
  3. Vouchers
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126
Q

Profit and loss account is prepared to ascertain _____ by business over an accounting period. Choose correct option.

A
  1. The net profit earned

2. The net loss suffered

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127
Q

As per the reverse order of liquidity format of the balance sheet, which of the following comes under the heading of a fixed asset?

A
  1. Tangible
  2. Intangible
  3. Capital work-in-progress
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128
Q

As per schedule III, of the companies act, 2013, which of the following represents fixed assets?

A
  1. Tangible and Intangible
  2. Intangible assets under development
  3. Capital work-in-progress
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129
Q

As per general instructions for the preparation of profit and loss account, in respect of a finance company, revenue from operations shall include revenue from _______ .

A
  1. Interest

2. Other financial services

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130
Q

If the turnover of the corporate body is below one hundred crore rupees, then which of the following rounding off methods shall apply?

A
  1. Rounded off to the nearest lakhs, millions or crores, more or decimals there of.
  2. Rounded off to the nearest hundreds, thousands, rupees lakhs or millions or decimals there of.
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131
Q

Any written evidence in support of a business transaction is called ______

A

Voucher

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132
Q

The account that records expenses, gains and losses is

A

Nominal account

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133
Q

__________ refers to the analysis of the percentage increase or decrease in corresponding items in comparative financial statements.

A

Horizontal Analysis

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134
Q

The Profit and Loss account is prepared to ascertain __________ by the business over an accounting period. Choose the correct option.

a. The net profit earned
b. The net loss suffered
c. The gross profit or gross loss
d. Both a and b

A

d. both a and b

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135
Q

In order to achieve __________ , organisations prepare financial statements by following a uniform pattern or standards as instructed by the international or local accounting standards board.

(a) Transparency
(b) Affordability
(c) Comparability
(d) Both a and c

A

(d) Both a and c

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136
Q

Which among the following measures the actual cash generated by the organisation within a particular period?

A

Cashflow statement

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137
Q

Which among the following are the activities that are related to the purchase or sale of long-term investments and assets?

A

Investing activities

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138
Q

Which of the following is/are types of financial statement analysis?

(a) Horizontal analysis
(b) Vertical analysis
(c) External analysis
(d) All of these

A

(d) All of these

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139
Q

Which of the following factors highlights the reliability of information?

(a) Free from errors
(b) Complete
(c) Free from bias
(d) All of these

A

(d) All of these

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140
Q

Among the following, which one refers to the total amount of money received by a business entity after selling its products or services?

A

Revenue

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141
Q

Among the following, which is/are the importance of financial statement analysis?

(a) Helps in forecasting the financial health of the organisation
(b) Helps creditors know the creditworthiness of the organisation
(c) Improves the decision making of investors
(d) All of these

A

(a) All of these

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142
Q

The profit and loss account or the income statement shows which types of expenses are incurred by the organisation during a particular period?

A

Revenues and expenses

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143
Q

Profit and loss statement is also called __________ . Choose the correct option.

A

Statement of income

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144
Q

The cash inflows and outflows of any organisation can further be classified into how many activities?

A

Three

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145
Q

Preparation of the financial statement is the __________ step of the accounting cycle.

A

final

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146
Q

Which among the following refers to the ability of financial statements to stand useful over time against financial information obtained from other sources?

A

Comparability

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147
Q

__________ can be defined as the difference between net total sales and cost of goods sales.

(a) Gross profit
(b) Gross loss
(c) Return of sales
(d) Both a and b

A

(b) Gross loss

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148
Q

Which one is the expense that a business entity has to bear in day-to-day business operations?

(a) Operating expenses
(b) Administrative expenses
(c) Both a and b
(d) Production expense

A

(a) Operating expenses

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149
Q

__________ part of financial statements reflects the financial performance of the organisation.

(a) Balance sheet
(b) Cash book
(c) Cash flow statement
(d) Profit and Loss

A

(a) Profit and Loss

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150
Q

Which among the following expenses is/are not indirect expense(s)?

(a) Selling expense
(b) Office expense
(c) Financial expense
(d) Purchase of product

A

(a) Purchase of product

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151
Q

Which among the following is also known as the statement of sources of funds and application of funds?

A

Balance sheet

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152
Q

Which among the following are the forms of the balance sheet?

A

Horizontal or vertical

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153
Q

Internal rate of return is …

A

Rate at which discounted cash inflow is equal to the discounted cash outflow

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154
Q

Leasing of machinery can be categorised as ________

A

Financing decision

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155
Q

Listed companies can be valued at

A

Market value

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156
Q

Promotion of welfare of human by corporate is called ________

A

Corporate philanthropy

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157
Q

Book value of assets includes

A

Fixed assets, current asset, intangible asset

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158
Q

How is the P/E ratio calculated?

(a) (Market value) / (Quick ratio)
(b) (Earnings per share) / (Market capitalisation)
(c) (Market value per share) / (Earnings per share)
(d) (Earnings per share) / (Market value)

A

(c) (Market value per share) / (Earnings per share)

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159
Q

What is the most important use of the P/E ratio for investors?

A

It helps investors decide whether a company’s shares are overpriced or under-priced.

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160
Q

Which of the following valuation methods is based on “Going concern concept”?

A

Book value method

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161
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three fundamental methods of firm valuation?

A

Market share

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162
Q

What does a high P/E ratio suggest?

A

A company shares are currently overpriced.

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163
Q

Unlisted company can be valued at

A

Net asset method

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164
Q

What is the value of the firm usually based on?

A

The value of equity.

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165
Q

A company has a profit attributable to ordinary shareholders of 100,000. The number of ordinary shares of £1 in issue during the year was 300,000. The market value of the company’s shares at the yearend was 6.50. The price/earnings ratio for this company is:

(Unverified question, doubtful)

A

19.5 times

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166
Q

What does the price-to-earnings ratio (P/E) tell you?

A

How much investors are willing to pay per unit of a company’s earnings.

167
Q

Which of the following has net profit as basis for calculation?

A

Average rate of return

168
Q

Corporate wealth maximisation is the value maximisation for ________

A

Stakeholders

169
Q

Which of the following defines the market to book value?

A

The ratio of stock market valuation divided by the value of its NAV.

170
Q

A mutually exclusive decision means:

A

Accepting of an alternative, leads to rejecting of other

171
Q

Shareholder’s wealth increases with the increase in ________

A

Dividend and market value of the firm

172
Q

What does the price/earnings (PE) ratio measure?

A

The multiple that the stock market places on a company’s earnings

173
Q

Which of these is an organisational barrier to communication?

A

Excessive authority layers

174
Q

This communication is a free form of communication and does not follow any fixed pattern.

A

Informal

175
Q

In communication, some certain rules and principles need to be followed while conveying a message.

A

Normal

176
Q

communication involves the visual display of information through aids such as photos, signs, logos, codes, symbols and designs.

A

Visual

177
Q

A process that involves transferring information from one party to another is called.

A

Information Sharing

178
Q

Communication skills include all aspects of communication, that is, oral, written and listening skills.
True or Falls

A

TRUE

179
Q

Effective business communication saves the time and cost incurred by preventing redoing of misunderstood tasks.
True or False

A

TRUE

180
Q

How many Cs are involved in effective communication?

A

7

181
Q

Communication helps in maintaining discipline and control in an organisation.
True or False

A

TRUE

182
Q

Encoding is a process of deciphering the encoded message received from the sender and understanding its intended meaning.
True or False

A

FALSE

183
Q

Communication between the production manager of an organisation and vendors regarding the quality of raw material is internal communication.
True or False

A

FALSE

184
Q

Based on the____ , communication can be internal or external in the organisation.

A

Target audience

185
Q

Which type of communication flows between employees working at the same level?

A

Horizontal communication

186
Q

____is a type of perceptive bias where a particular perception of one’s personality trait influences the perception of the entire personality of that person.

A

Halo effect

187
Q

Counseling employees for eliminating their fear of superiors can help them communicate effectively.
True or False

A

TRUE

188
Q

Which of the following is the acknowledgement of receiving the message or a reply to the message?

A

Feedback

189
Q

Which of these is not a benefit of business communication?

A

Threatening consumers

190
Q

Communication is the process of passing information and understanding from one person to another.
True or False

A

TRUE

191
Q

___refers to difficult or special words, which are specific to a group or profession.

A

Jargon

192
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of Non-verbal Communication?

A

Infrequent

193
Q

Verbal communication is faster than non-verbal communication.
True or False

A

FALSE

194
Q

Non-verbal language has no particular grammar and syntax.

True or False

A

TRUE

195
Q

Which of these is not an element of a good speech?

A

Uninteresting

196
Q

Oral communication can help us save time by cutting down time spent on first writing and then reading a message.
True or False

A

TRUE

197
Q

Which of the following factors act as barriers for oral messages?

A
  1. Noise
  2. Language
  3. Accent
198
Q

Which of the following is a universal facial expression?

A

Sadness

199
Q

Oral communication that adds a personal touch and develops better relationships is

A

Interpersonal

200
Q

Glossophobia cannot be treated by which of the following:

A

Speaking in front of a large audience right away

201
Q

Which of these is not a benefit of oral communication?

A

Good for lengthy messages

202
Q

Oral communication cuts down money spent on paper.

True or False

A

TRUE

203
Q

Both verbal and non-verbal communication include vocal and non-vocal elements,
True or False

A

TRUE

204
Q

Public speakers should ideally open with a________.

A

Quotation

205
Q

Which of the following is not an example of non-verbal communication?

A

Shouting as “I don’t know.”

206
Q

Which of the following can be used to regulate the flow of a conversation?

A

Nodding of head

207
Q

Which of the following is true of non-verbal communication?

A

It is continuous.

208
Q

Non-verbal and verbal communication share the same evolutionary history.
True or False

A

FALSE

209
Q

Which of the following is not good business etiquette?

A

Personal criticism

210
Q

___is the extreme fear of public speaking.

A

Glossophobia

211
Q

A skill in decoding non-verbal cues cannot be taught or learned.
True or False

A

FALSE

212
Q

Which of the following represents actual use of communication skills?

A

Writing 9%; Reading 16%; Speaking 30%; and Listening 45%

213
Q

The most desirable type of listening is______concentrating on the words being spoken.

A

Active listening

214
Q

There are_______elements of reading.

A

5

215
Q

________is defined as the process of decoding a series of written symbols and getting meaning from them.

A

Reading

216
Q

In which type of listening, the listener is vulnerable to the speaker’s influence?

A

Emphatic listening

217
Q

______is the process of speedy reading to gain the gist of a text.

A

Skimming

218
Q

A reader is looking for some specific information only. Which technique would you suggest to him?

A

Scanning

219
Q

________is the type of listening where the listener is just pretending to listen and is otherwise indifferent to what is being said.

A

Passive Listening

220
Q

Which of the following is not one of the Ten Commandments for becoming an effective leader?

A

Show disinterest

221
Q

______development is closely connected to comprehension.

A

Vocabulary

222
Q

______are the smallest units of spoken language.

A

Phonemes

223
Q

In which type of listening does the listener select the part that he is desirous of listening and ignores the rest?

A

Selective listening

224
Q

For listening that leads to understanding, a listener should not______.

A

Interrupt and ask questions

225
Q

______is the relationship between individual sounds (phonemes) in a spoken language and letters in that language.

A

Phonics

226
Q

Which among the following could be a commandment of listening?

A

Empathise with the speaker

227
Q

Which of these is not an element of reading?

A

Expression

228
Q

According to Gough and Hillinger (1980), which of the following is not an innate skill?

A

Reading

229
Q

In which type of phonics, the readers are taught to connect letters to their corresponding phonemes first and then use these together to create a word?

A

Synthetic phonics

230
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of written communication?

A

Time consuming

231
Q

Consider the following template:

To: [Click here and type name]

CC: [Click here and type name]

From: [Click here and type name]

Date: 09/29/97

Re: [Click here and type subject]

This is a template of a/an .

A

Memo

232
Q

In business world, the abbreviation “NB” stands for _________.

A

Please note

233
Q

In case, the letter is addressed to a firm and no particular head is known; then, the name of the receiver should be prefixed with which of the following courtesy titles?

A

M/s

234
Q

Which of the following informs people about the date, time, venue and reason of the meeting?

A

Notice

235
Q

Which of these is not an essential feature of a report?

A

Ambiguity

236
Q

Which of the following is not considered as an appropriate e-mail etiquette?

A

Writing in capitals

237
Q

__________ proposals are requested by clients themselves, or submitted in response to an advertisement published by the client.

A

Solicited proposals

238
Q

Which of the following communications provides a permanent record and is beneficial for future references?

A

Written

239
Q

Nowadays,________ are fast replacing the use of memos in organisations.

A

Emails

240
Q

___________is an important tool used in the decision-making process and can help the management to review and evaluate the performance of various departments in the organisation.

A

Report

241
Q

Which of the following summaries accompanies a business proposal?

A

Executive summary

242
Q

Which of the following is not an essential feature of a report?

A

Elaborate

243
Q

Which of the following is the most detailed type of document used in case of applying for jobs?

A

Curriculum Vitae

244
Q

Which is the longest part of the letter?

A

Main paragraph

245
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of e-mails?

A

Can contain viruses

246
Q

Which of the following is an important principle to follow while drafting a report?

A

A report should be organised

247
Q

Which section or part of a business proposal is created with an intent to stimulate interest of the prospective buyer in the proposal?

A

Cover letter

248
Q

Which of the following is not required for good written communication skills?

A

Knowledge of English

249
Q

In a letter, complimentary close is also known as

A

Subscription

250
Q

‘Bottle up feelings that explode’ are the traits of a/an:

A

Aggressive person

251
Q

In one’s professional life, the ability to be assertive can put one on the fast track to a ____________ role.

A

Leadership

252
Q

‘Using dramatic words and being hostile’ are the features of a/an:

A

Aggressive person

253
Q

When one is aggressive, the power he/she uses is and may come across as pushy or even bullying.

A

Selfish

254
Q

__________ is communicating and expressing one’s thoughts, feelings and opinions in a manner that makes one’s views and needs clearly understood by others without putting down their thoughts, feelings or opinions.

A

Assertiveness

255
Q

Managing assertively helps managers to work effectively by sharpening their ___________ skills.

A

People

256
Q

An _________ always considers his own best interest without regard for the rights, needs, feelings or desires of others.

A

Aggressive individual

257
Q

Calm thinking and respectful negotiation are the features of a/an:

A

Assertive person

258
Q

Which of the following is not a trait of empathetic employees?

A

Do not provide constructive feedback

259
Q

Which of the following describes the attributes of emotional intelligence?

A

Ability to understand others’ points of view

260
Q

Who coined the term ‘Emotional Intelligence’?

A

John Mayer and Peter Salovey

261
Q

Which of the following is not a key element of emotional intelligence?

A

Courtesy

262
Q

As per Goleman, what percentage of success at work can be attributed to ordinary intelligence (IQ)?

A

20%

263
Q

Which of the following researchers introduced the most extensively used model of emotional intelligence?

A

Daniel Goleman

264
Q

What kind of relationship has been observed between emotional intelligence and job stress?

A

Inverse

265
Q

Which of the following is not a trait of self-regulated employees?

A

Do not abide by their values

266
Q

Match the following lists:

List I. List II
A. Self-awareness i. Ability to sense other’s feelings
B. Self-management. ii. Understanding one’s own emotions
C. Empathy iii. Handling one’s emotions and completing tasks at hand

A

A – ii; B – iii; C – i

267
Q

‘A person who is aware and conscious about himself is always aware of how they feel and how their emotions and/or actions can affect people around them.’ Which element of emotional intelligence is described in this statement?

A

Self-awareness

268
Q

Which of the following is not one of the key managerial skills?

A

Managing change

269
Q

Leaders focus on ___________ .

A

Achievements

270
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of leadership?

A

Leadership is a position

271
Q

Which of the following factors are not responsible for creating and sustaining an organisational culture as per Stephen Robbins?

A

Monetary rewards

272
Q

_________ stage of socialisation entails all the learning that occurs before a new employee joins the organisation.

A

Pre-arrival stage

273
Q

Assertion: Leadership cannot be considered as a position or

Reason: Leadership is a relationship between people in which one person is the leader and other people are followers who have trust in their leader.

Choose the correct answer:

A

Both the assertion and the reason are correct

274
Q

Choose the odd one out.

A

Tacit networks

275
Q

Which among the following is the ability to manage, motivate and influence workers to work with confidence and enthusiasm?

A

Leadership

276
Q

Consider the following statements and choose the correct

Statement I: Effective leadership helps in influencing the behaviour of people

Statement II: Effective leadership helps in the training and development of the subordinates

A

Statement I – True; Statement II – True

277
Q

___________ refers to the set of norms, values, beliefs, assumptions, perceptions and attitudes that exist within an organisation and are held by its employees.

A

Organisational culture

278
Q

Which of the following is not a function of organisational culture?

A

Predicts human behaviour

279
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of leadership?

A

Annual process

280
Q

In _________ stage of socialisation, long-lasting changes take place as the new employee excels in the skills required for his or her new roles.

A

Metamorphosis stage

281
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a transformational leader?

A

Intense

282
Q

Avinash, the manager of AXZ Corporation, seeks the opinion of his group members before taking the final decision on most of the important matters concerning the organisation. What kind of a manager (leader) is he?

A

Democratic

283
Q

Which leadership style is also known as the free-rein style of leadership?

A

Laissez-faire style

284
Q

Which of the following is not one of the top six leadership challenges?

A

Guiding projects

285
Q

In an organisation, a manager has given his employees the entire authority to make decisions on their own. What kind of a leader can the manager be called?

A

Laissez-Faire

286
Q

In which leadership style, leaders include other employees in the decision-making process?

A

Democratic style

287
Q

In a negotiation process, there is set of rules and procedures to resolve a conflict.

A

No predetermined

288
Q

A ____________ is a dynamic individual who focusses on the teamwork along with leading the team to produce effective results.

A

Leader

289
Q

The minimum number of parties required in a negotiation process is _________ .

A

Two

290
Q

Leaders should have excellent ___________ skills that make them communicate with others without a problem.

A

Interpersonal

291
Q

In a negotiation process, parties involved in negotiations try to reach a ____________ agreement.

A

mutual

292
Q

Leaders should be able to __________ their teams and guide them with passion, inspiration and sincerity.

A

Motivate

293
Q

Which of the following theories is also called great man theory?

A

Charismatic leadership theory

294
Q

Democratic leadership style is also known as

A

Participative style

295
Q

Which type of leadership style was demonstrated by Jack Stahl, the former President of Coca-Cola?

A

Situational style

296
Q

Actions of closed posture include:

A

Crossed legs

297
Q

An example of open posture includes which of these actions?

A

Upright and firm head

298
Q

Touching the face, playing with jewellery, running hands through the hair, etc., come under:

A

Fidgeting

299
Q

Which of these visual aids is/are used to show geographic areas or other locations?

A

Maps

300
Q

Resisting or avoiding eye contact is often considered to be signs of ____________ , inattentiveness or lack of confidence by most people.

A

Rudeness

301
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of visual aids?

A

Visual aids make the audience lose their attention span.

302
Q

_________ cultures perceive direct eye contact as a sign of competitiveness.

A

Asian

303
Q

__________ may include movement from any part of the body.

A

Gestures

304
Q

“Smiling in between the topics and appearing optimistic will help in getting the audience’s attention.” Which of the following quality of the presenter is being talked about?

A

Facial expressions

305
Q

“Careful dressing up is important as clothing may consciously/unconsciously send a negative message”. Which quality of the presenter is being talked about?

A

Dress code

306
Q

Which element of a presentation should have a description set in a framework that the audience can comprehend the information easily, absorb data and make sense out of it?

A

New information

307
Q

While delivering presentation, pausing in between _____________ is useful in creating impact.

A

Key information

308
Q

Which of these should a presentation begin with?

A

Introduction

309
Q

_________ are often composed in PowerPoint because users can create visually appealing instructions for distributors to flip through.

A

Brand style guides

310
Q

_________ are suitable tools to stress on a point or to explain a topic when the real object is not physically present.

A

Photographs

311
Q

The of a team is improved by exploiting the collective ideas, knowledge and skills of all the members of the team.

A

Overall performance

312
Q

At the ___________ stage, there is a gradual elevation in group performance level as members learn to cooperate and initiate to emphasise on group goals.

A

Norming

313
Q

At the __________ stage, the performance of the members of the group reaches its maximum limit.

A

Performing

314
Q

Which of the following is the next stage after forming in group development?

A

Storming

315
Q

Which teams are formed for a temporary period to achieve a critical task say, problem solving or new product development?

A

Virtual teams

316
Q

Teams represent the hierarchical structure within an organisation in terms of authority, which is clearly defined on the:

A

Organisational chart

317
Q

The concept of teams gained significance in the:

A

1970s

318
Q

____________ indicates the willingness of a member to support the decisions on reaching a certain stage or point.

A

Consensus

319
Q

In which of the following games each participant is given a single sheet of paper and told that they must construct the tallest free-standing structure in just five minutes using no other materials?

A

Paper Tower

320
Q

Coin logo is a type of __________ .

A

Communication game

321
Q

Which of the following team is also called an autonomous workgroup?

A

Self-managed teams

322
Q

A task force or a project team comes under:

A

Cross-functional teams

323
Q

Which of the following is not an aspect of developing a team of leaders?

A

Sneak peek

324
Q

At which stage conflict and competition among group members may emerge?

A

Storming

325
Q

Picture pieces game is a type of _________ game.

A

Problem solving

326
Q

Eye contact is a game that is conducted for:

A

Trust building

327
Q

At the __________ stage, the group is dissolved as the objective of the group is fulfilled.

A

Adjourning

328
Q

“The work is distributed among the members of the group so that they can display their potential.” Which of the following feature of the team is referred here?

A

Delegation of work

329
Q

____________ -level conflict refers to the conflict which occurs at any level of the organisation.

A

Organisational

330
Q

When a manager demands too much output in a short period, it can lead to among employees.

A

Demotivation

331
Q

Conflicts at the workplace create a sense of ___________ among employees and hamper their productivity.

A

Insecurity

332
Q

Conflicts are helpful in ___________ of doubts or apprehension.

A

Clarification

333
Q

____________ communication can lead to misunderstanding between employees.

A

Improper

334
Q

The very first step in conflict resolution process is ____________ .

A

Define the source of the conflict

335
Q

Which of the following types of conflict occurs within a single group or between the members of a group?

A

Intra-group conflict

336
Q

___________ conflict occurs between two or more organisations.

A

Inter-organisational

337
Q

________________ refers to a technique of conflict resolution in which both parties are required to give up their motives and think collectively to resolve a conflict.

A

Compromise

338
Q

___________ may be referred to as a struggle or tussle between individuals with varied needs, ideas, beliefs, values or goals.

A

Conflict

339
Q

A/An _____________ is a communication strategy that helps in redirecting a person’s argumentative energy rather than attempting to overcome it.

A

Agreement frame

340
Q

Which of the following is a probable reason for conflict in an organisation?

A

Change of policies

341
Q

The Mahabharata is classified as ___________ .

A

Smriti

342
Q

Heard literature is known as ____________ .

A

Sruti

343
Q

Which of the following is concerned with a worker’s loyalty and sense of belongingness to the organisation?

A

Work ethos

344
Q

Business professionals and businesses can learn to form alliances from which of the scriptures?

A

Mahabharata

345
Q

What is the meaning of dharma?

A

Righteousness

346
Q

Which of the following important management lessons are not associated with Kautilya’s Arthasasthra?

A

Utilise resources optimally

347
Q

As per Aristotle, a writer may persuade his audience by using three types of rhetorical appeals. Which of the following options is not a part of those three Aristotelian appeals?

A

Samos

348
Q

________ refers to the beliefs of people which help in distinguishing between different cultures.

A

Ethos

349
Q

Decision making in silence means ____________ .

A

Brain Stilling

350
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of western management?

A

Focus on quantity

351
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of Indian management?

A

Focus on individual initiatives

352
Q

Which of the following behaviour is expressed by a passive person?

A
  1. Blames Others

2. Do not have rights.

353
Q

Assertive behaviour includes:

A

All of these:

  1. Being open in expressing wishes, thoughts and feeling and encouraging others to do the same.
  2. Accepting responsibilities and being able to delegate to others.
  3. Listening to view of others and responding appropriately whether in agreement with those or not.
354
Q

Which of the following is correct with respect to a manager giving feedback to employees?

A
  1. Provide specific and constructive feedback without demoting the employees.
  2. Ask for feedback.
  3. Provide feedback promptly without waiting.
355
Q

Which of the following is true with respect to leaders?

A
  1. Leaders set a common direction and purpose for other people.
  2. Leaders can convince people.
  3. Leaders give motivation and enthusiasm to other people.
356
Q

What is/are the main purpose of presentations?

A
  1. Motivate
  2. To celebrate
  3. To inform
357
Q

Which of these are signs of nervousness in the presenter?

A
  1. Fidgeting

2. Pausing

358
Q

Which of the following are the tips for making effective PowerPoint presentations?

A

If the slides are too text heavy, viewers will get distracted reading to long blocks of wording and stop listening to the speaker.

359
Q

Which of the following are the advantages of presentation?

A
  1. Presentations are face to face.
  2. Presentations offer flexibility.
  3. Presentations engage audience engagement.
360
Q

An effective presentation is based on:

A
  1. Voice Delivery
  2. The presenter.
  3. Content.
  4. All of these.
361
Q

Which of the following is an important aspect of effective team management?

A
  1. Understand the needs and traits of all team members.
  2. Managers need to make the team members comfortable so that they can open up and work.
  3. Managers need to gel up with people involved to get work done.
362
Q

Which of the following is the reason for the formation of teams?

A
  1. To encourage mutual decision making as a team
  2. To form an environment of sustenance and trust among team members.
  3. To provide voluntary support to all team members.
363
Q

Implementation of Vedic knowledge assures that it is possible to achieve best results using a positive and right approach by implementing social responsibilities related to _____________ .

A
  1. Corporate philanthropy.
  2. Community development programs.
  3. Family welfare programs.
364
Q

The fundamental principle of _________ is that in his whole conduct, man should be guided exclusively by considerations derived from the present life itself.

A

Secularism

365
Q

‘Lack of involvement in excisions’ and ‘role ambiguity’ are the types of _________ causes of stress.

A

Organisational

366
Q

Which of the following is not an extra organisational cause of stress?

A

Coping with daily life

367
Q

Who defined value as a belief that something is good and desirable?

A

M. Haralambos

368
Q

_________ not only help the organisation to recruit better quality employees but also help to attract staff, who are a better fit.

A

Core values

369
Q

Which of the following are group causes of stress?

A

Conflict

370
Q

According to _________ , an individual’s thoughts, words and actions have consequences.

A

The Great Law

371
Q

_________ focuses on taking ownership of one’s life.

A

The Law of Responsibility

372
Q

According to_________, Nirvana or enlightenment exists on the earth in impermanent moments.

A

The Law of Here and Now

373
Q

Which of the following does not come under organisational causes of stress?

A

Lack of social support

374
Q

_________ states that the people one meets and the places one inhabits are entirely one’s choice.

A

The Law of Growth

375
Q

Sources of stress or factors related to stress can be broadly divided into _________ parts.

A

Four

376
Q

Which of the following is not a feature of secular management?

A

Inclusion of ethical, spiritual, moral and human values

377
Q

The term value is derived from the _________ word ‘valere’ meaning ‘to be strong, to prevail or to be of worth.’

A

Latin

378
Q

_________ means desire less, while ‘Karma’ means action.

A

Nishkam

379
Q

Education set up under the chairmanship of Mr. S. B. Chavan, in its report to the Indian Parliament in February _________, has identified five core universal values.

A

1999

380
Q

The term spirituality has been derived from a Latin word SPIRITUS which refers to _________ .

A

Breath

381
Q

__________ practices in business are controlled with ethical standards which are beneficial for their employees.

A

Unfair

382
Q

Business ethics are __________ practices and should be followed by every business.

A

Voluntary

383
Q

Business ethics relate to different __________ groups connected with a business such as or consumers, stakeholders.

A

Social

384
Q

Business ethics is also associated with principles and__________ of moral duty and obligation.

A

Standards

385
Q

The decisions taken by the employees and the management are driven by ethics and __________ .

A

Values

386
Q

Business ethics is __________ and may vary across different countries and different types of businesses.

A

Relative

387
Q

Every business should follow certain basic principles and set up a __________.

A

Code of conduct

388
Q

There prevails a myth that business ethics has more to do with __________than management.

A

Religion

389
Q

Business ethics is the basic __________ which lays out the foundation for conducting business in a fair and ethical manner.

A

Framework

390
Q

__________ refers to a set of moral beliefs and principles that govern the behaviour and activities of a group or an individual in a society.

A

Ethics

391
Q

The word __________ means character, manner, culture and mindset.

A

Ethos

392
Q

__________relates to the code of conduct regarding what is right and what is wrong.

A

Business ethics

393
Q

With the changing __________, there are new regulations and newer threats and issues which need to be handled.

A

Technology

394
Q

The word ‘ethics’ is taken from the __________ word ethos.

A

Greek

395
Q

The final step in ethical decision-making and resolving business problems is __________ .

A

Implement the plan

396
Q

Ethical _______ is nothing but interpretation of the situation at hand.

A

Reasoning

397
Q

When there are two or more ethical principles which could lead to an equally good or equally bad outcome, it gives rise to the situation of an _______ .

A

Ethical dilemma

398
Q

The conceptual aspects of ethical dilemma are related to the complexity of decision making arising out of a _______ situation.

A

Moral

399
Q

An ethical dilemma is a _______ situation a person faces in which a decision must be taken about the adequate action to be taken.

A

Composite

400
Q

The codes of ethics and conduct are actually _______ .

A

Structured

401
Q

Due to which of the following, ethical dilemma may arise?

  1. Failure of an individual character
  2. Difference between personal values and social standards
  3. Conflict between personal values and Organisational values
  4. All of these
A
  1. All of these
402
Q

For managing the issue of ethical dilemmas, a business professional has to first outline the situation and identify the core _______ .

A

Values

403
Q

Which of the following amount to unethical practice?

  1. Insider trading
  2. Bribery
  3. Discrimination
  4. All of these
A
  1. All of these
404
Q

Ethical _______ leadership is the concept that leaders should be guided and motivated by their own and others’ values.

A

Values-based

405
Q

The tone set by demonstrating ethical _______ by managers determines how employees must respond to ethical challenges.

A

Leadership

406
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of an ethical dilemma?

  1. Cannot be solved by can be resolved
  2. Indecisive outcomes
  3. Availability of limited resources to handle the confusing situations
  4. All of these
A
  1. All of these
407
Q

Organisations have witnessed colossal monetary costs in the form of fines or _______ settlements.

A

Legal

408
Q

Ethical culture in the organisation brings the benefits of promoting ethical conduct and greater levels of _______ .

A

Confluence

409
Q

Ethical culture in organisation helps in shaping the behaviour of _______ .

A

Employees

410
Q

An ethical dilemma is a _______ dilemma that results in a debatable decision-making process.

A

Moral

411
Q

A code of ethics and _______ offers an invaluable opportunity for a responsible organisation to further its positive public identity.

A

Conduct

412
Q

Costs to reputation have spanned from dissipating confidence in an organisation to downfall in _______ .

  1. Sheer market
  2. Stock market
  3. Urban market
  4. Grey market
A
  1. Stock market
413
Q

Ethical _______ is a set of principles that help in differentiating between what is morally right and what is morally wrong.

A

Culture