MATS 2 Sec 1

Question 1

What pressure setting are clearances for a/c within the CTR based on?

Answer 1

QNH. QFE should only be passed when requested

Question 2

What ASR is EGHH in?

Answer 2

Portland

Question 3

What pressure settings are used for aircraft outside CAS below the TA?

Answer 3

Portland ASR setting

Question 4

What is the transition altitude at within the Solent Control Area?

Answer 4

6,000ft AMSL, this reverts to 3,000ft AMSL outside of the operating hours of Solent Approach

Question 5

How shall clearances to VFR/SVFR departures be issued?

Answer 5

Should be given via a specified VRP. When requested an aircraft may be cleared “on track South/North” rather than via a VRP, for aircraft wishing to depart Rwy 26 on track to the west approval must be obtained from the approach controller.

Question 6

What are your considerations for aircraft joining from the NW?

Answer 6

NW sector is vulnerable to poor Radar coverage, therefore VFR joining clearances via Tarrant Rushton should not be issued when Rwy 26 is in use and there is an IFR departure.

A circular flow of traffic is to be established instructing the inbound a/c to join via the Northern Zone Boundary or Ringwood lakes thus avoiding rwy 26 climbout.

Question 7

What are your considerations for aircraft joining from the NE?

Answer 7

Radar performance issues mean that caution should be exercised when allowing VFR joiners from Stoney Cross VRP to join DW left for Rwy 08 as jet IFR departures to the North or North-West will turn left at 2.0DME. If in any doubt about the Radar performance and in order to reduce any risks, VFR joiners should be instructed to remain outside CAS when there are IFR departures.

Question 8

What are your considerations for VFR joiners during periods of heavy traffic?

Answer 8

Consideration must be given to employing a circular flow system during high levels of traffic, using the Northern Zone Boundary and Tarrant Rushton VRP as entry/exit points.

Question 9

Can you hold aircraft over the VRP’s?

Answer 9

No, in accordance with MATS 1

Question 10

What are the VRP’s for VFR/SVFR clearances?

Answer 10

Sandbanks (SBX)- SW
Hengistbury Head (HGS)- SE
Stoney Cross (STX)- NE
Tarrant Rushton (TAR)- NW

Question 11

What conditions is Radar identification using the VRPs subject to?

Answer 11

Flight is operating with visual reference to the surface and at a height of 3000ft or less above the surface.

Question 12

Which VFR aircraft may be issued with Standard VFR clearances?

Answer 12

Locally based operators who have signed a LOA.

Question 13

Give an example of a standard VFR departure clearance

Answer 13

“<C/S>, hold position, after departure standard (VRP/direction) VFR, Squawk 7377”

Question 14

What is the EGHH conspicuity code?

Answer 14

7377

Question 15

What level are all standard VFR clearances subject to?

Answer 15

not above 2000ft QNH

Question 16

Can we issue standard SVFR clearances?

Answer 16

No

Question 17

What are your considerations for the issuance of VFR clearances at night?

Answer 17

VRPs Tarrant Rushton and Stoney Cross are not readily visible during hours of darkness so clearances relative to these should be given as the respective Cardinal Directions instead.

Question 18

Give an example of a clearance issued to an aircraft operating within the CCT

Answer 18

“<C/S> hold position, after departure clearance into the circuit VFR, Squawk 7010”

For higher ciruits;

“<C/S> hold position, after departure clearance into the circuit VFR at 1500ft, Squawk 7010”

Question 19

What are the standard circuit heights?

Answer 19

1200ft QNH

1500ft for turbine powered A/C and all A/C with a MTOW above 5700kg

700ft QNH- Low Level CCT

Question 20

What is the standard level issued to IFR aircraft?

Answer 20

3000ft QNH only training flights requiring a Radar Vector approach are exempt from this- in this case the aircraft will be issued climb to 2000ft QNH on an appropriate heading.

Controllers should retain some flexibility and may issue higher levels if the BIA hold is not active

Question 21

What are the R/T fail procedures for IFR A/C?

Answer 21

a) Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C.

b) i. Maintain for a period of seven minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude, if this is higher. The period of seven minutes begins when the transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure.
ii.I f failure occurs when the aircraft is following a notified departure procedure such as a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and clearance to climb, or re-routing instructions have not been given, the procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached. Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher.
iii.Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points.

c) If being radar vectored, or proceeding offset according to RNAV, without a specified limit, continue in accordance with ATC instructions last acknowledged for three minutes only and then proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight planned route. Pilots should ensure that they remain at, or above, the minimum safe altitude.

d) Comply with the loss of communications procedures notified for the destination aerodrome in the AD 2 section of the UK AIP.

e) i. Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome as closely as possible to the ETA last acknowledged by ATC. If no such ETA has been acknowledged, the pilot should use an ETA derived from the last acknowledged position report and the flight-planned times for the subsequent sections of the flight.
ii.Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome at the highest notified Minimum Sector Altitude taking account of en-route terrain clearance requirements.
iii. If following a notified Standard Arrival Route (STAR), after the seven minute period detailed in paragraph (b) (i) has been completed, pilots should arrange descent as close as possible to the published descent planning profile. If no descent profile is published, pilots should arrange descent to be at the minimum published level at the appropriate designated Initial Approach fix.

f) On reaching the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome, begin further descent at the last acknowledged EAT. If no EAT has been acknowledged, the descent should be started at the ETA calculated in (e) (i), above, or as close as possible to this time. If necessary, remain within the holding pattern until the minimum holding level, published for the facility, has been reached. The rate of descent in holding patterns should not be less than 500 FT per minute. If ‘Delay not determined’ has been given, do not attempt to land at the destination aerodrome, divert to the alternate destination specified in the current flight plan or another suitable airfield.

g) Carry out the notified instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigational aid and, if possible, land within 30 minutes of the EAT or the calculated ETA. When practical, pilots should take account of visual landing aids and keep watch for instructions that may be issued by visual signals from the ground.

Question 22

What are the conditions attached to airways departures in the LOA with Southampton

Answer 22

Any departure rwy 08/26 must cross the easter Bournemouth CTR boundary at altitude 4000ft or above.

Question 23

What are the R/T failure procedures for fixed wing VFR A/C?

Answer 23

VFR aircraft should select squawk 7600 as soon as R/T failure detected.
When outside CAS- the pilot shall route to either the Northern Zone Boundary or Hengistbury Head VRP, dependant on where they had been operating. Once there they may enter the CTR, direct to base leg of the duty runway, not above altitude 2000ft QNH. The pilot should maintain a good lookout for other A/C in the CTR and on the FAT. ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1. Once on base leg pilot is to look out for ALDI lamp signals from the VCR.
Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the A/C enters the CTR from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.

Question 24

What are the R/T Failure Procedures for VFR Helis?

Answer 24

Helis should select code 7600

If operating outside CAS the heli should position to either the Northern Zone Boundary of Hengistbury Head VRP and the enter the CTR direct to the Northern/Southern airfield boundary not above alititude 2000ft VFR.

Pilots should maintain a good look out for other A/C operating within the CTR .

ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1.

If the helicopter is inbound from the North, they shall remain North of Runway 08/26 at all times,
and land on the grass between Taxiway Tango and Whiskey.

If the helicopter is based, they may then reposition to their company, maintaining a good lookout for other aircraft and vehicles moving around the taxiway network.

If they are not based, they should wait on the grass until assistance
arrives.

If the helicopter is inbound from the South, they shall remain South of Runway 08/26 at all times. On passing the airfield boundary, they should position onto the grass, West of Romeo.

Based Helicopters should look out for light signals from the VCR for approval to cross Runway 08/26 and land at their company.

If the helicopter is not based, they should wait for assistance.
It should be noted that helicopters inbound from the North will be given light signals from the VCR
but are unlikely to see them.

Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the helicopter enters the Control Zone from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.

Question 25

What are the Fan-Stop procedures?

Answer 25

Practice fan-stop/engine failure will be requested by the pilot. When approved, the A/C shall be instructed to report climbing away.

Question 26

Describe how re-join calls will be issued?

Answer 26

Aircraft inbound VFR will be given:-
* Joining Clearance
* Runway in Use
* QNH
The pilot should be asked to report at, or approaching the relevant VRP, at which point the pilot should be asked to report the airfield in sight.

The pilot should then be passed:-
* Instruction on where to join the circuit – i.e. downwind; base-leg
* Information on the activity of the visual circuit
* Information on any relevant instrument traffic
* If requested, the QFE
The aircraft is then transferred to ADC. APP/APS ATCO should be aware of the traffic loading in ADC
and if appropriate, hold aircraft outside the CTR to await the joining Clearance.

In SVFR conditions, aircraft should be instructed to report at the designated VRP to await onward clearance.

Question 27

Considerations for Non-radio aircraft

Answer 27

Non-radio aircraft may be authorised to depart or enter the CTR, providing that the pilot is fully briefed by the Duty ATCO before the intended flight and the weather in the Zone is suitable for VFR flight, or forecast to be so at the ETD/ETA.

For an inbound flight, the pilot must be instructed to telephone ATC immediately prior to his departure and pass an accurate ETA. The APP/APS ATCO will issue a joining Clearance but the pilot is to be advised that they should not proceed with entry into the Zone if more than +/-10 minutes outside that time. He should also be requested to advise Bournemouth ATC promptly if he lands elsewhere on route. The Duty ATCO shall consider the following before accepting any non-radio
movement:-
* Other traffic
* Weather (actual or forecast)
* Any reason that such traffic would constitute a flight safety hazard

If there is any doubt to the safety of permitting the movement, it is to be refused.

Question 28

What are the considerations for limiting training flights?

Answer 28

When considering requests for training flights, ATC will take the following points into account:-
* No IFR flight is to be delayed by VFR or circuit training traffic.
* Requests for circuit training for light aircraft are to be approved only at, or shortly before ETD
on a day-to-day basis. Advance bookings shall not normally be accepted and all circuit
booking is only approved “subject traffic” at the appropriate time
* Priority for circuit training will be given to locally based operators.
* Normally, no more than three aircraft will be allowed in the circuit at any one time, although
the ADC/Air Controller may use their discretion and apply further restriction for any, or all of
the following reasons:-
 Weather conditions preclude all the aircraft being continuously visible from the Tower
 Delays to departures, either VFR or particularly, IFR
 VFR aircraft wishing to join the circuit area are held outside the CTR for a significant time
waiting the joining clearance
 Circuit area congestion resulting in aircraft orbiting for lengthy periods

Question 29

What is the airborne time tolerance for A/C on a training flight plan?

Answer 29

flight plan time +15 mins

Question 30

What priority is a Instrument Rating Test given over other A/C?

Answer 30

Priority over all other a/c except scheduled flights and thoes of a higher priority rating.

Question 31

What restrictions apply to training aircraft of size B737 or greater?

Answer 31

They are only permitted to conduct instrument or vectored visual approaches and they must follow the prescribed noise abatement procedures as detailed under the NPRs.

Question 32

What lights must remain on during training flights?

Answer 32

The runway edge lights must not be turned off under any circumstances. Other combinations to simulate different runway conditions are permitted.

Question 33

What are the tolerances for airborne times when no slot has been issued?

Answer 33

+/- 15 mins

Question 34

To whom do we pass the slot updates?

Answer 34

The Handling Agent.

Question 35

Whom do we advise of CFMU reroutes received via an ACK message?

Answer 35

The operator.

Question 36

Whom do we contact to impose flow restrictions into EGHH?

Answer 36

Swanwick Supervisor/GS Airports. Also the airports Operations Director is to be informed.

Question 37

To whom do the NPRs apply?

Answer 37

To all turbine aircraft and all aircraft with a MTOW greater than 5700kgs, unless specifically instructed by ATC, or deviations is required for safety reasons.

Question 38

What is the NPR for runway 26 departures?

Answer 38

Climb straight ahead to 0.6DME then track 270 degrees MAG to 3.1DME before commencing any turn.

Also applies to all LH and RH circuits.

Question 39

What are the NPRs for runway 08?

Answer 39

Departing NE (track 001-079 degrees)- Climb S/A to 1.0DME, then track 075 Mag to 5.6DME before commencing any turn.

Departing S or SW (track 080-259 degrees)- Climb S/A to 1.0DME then track 075 deg Mag to 4.1DME before commencing any turn. (This also applies to RH circuits).

Departing W or NW (track 260-360 degrees)- Climb S/A to 2.0DME to be no lower than 1500ft QNH before commencing any turn (this also applies to LH visual Circuits).

Question 40

What are the NPRs for light prop A/C with a MTOW of 5700kgs or less?

Answer 40

Either runway- Climb S/A to 1.0DME or 700ft QNH, whichever is first, before commencing any turn

Question 41

What are the preferred CCT directions?

Answer 41

Away from Bournemouth itesel so RH for Rwy 26, LH for Rwy 08. This should be varied from time to time to avoid excessive noise pollution in one area.

Question 42

What direction must low level circuits be done?

Answer 42

To the South of the Airfield, so RH for Rwy 08 and LH Rwy 26

Question 43

When and how many Low Level circuits are permitted for A/C?

Answer 43

After an Instrument Apporach or a maximum of 2 per 1 hour booked circuit detail.

Question 44

What distances must A/C with a MTOW in excess of 5700Kg intercept the FAT when making visual approaches for Rwy 26?

Answer 44

Not less than 3NM from the North
Not less than 4.1NM from the South

Between the hours of 2200L and 0630L all A/C self positioning for an ILS or Visual approach must establish at no less than 8NM and not below 2500ft QNH.

Question 45

What distances must A/C with a MTOW in excess of 5700Kg intercept the FAT when making visual approaches for Rwy 08?

Answer 45

Not less than 4NM from either direction.

Between the hours of 2200L and 0630L all A/C self positioning for an ILS or Visual approach must establish at no less than 8NM and not below 2500ft QNH.

Question 46

What is the procedure upon receipt of a noise complaint?

Answer 46

ATC staff are not to deal with them. Call should be transferred to the Voice Mail ext 500. Where the caller remains insistent, they should be transferred to the Environment and Community Manager (ext 111) or their full name, address and tel no to be taken and referrer to the MATs who will reply as appropriate.

Question 47

How much notice is required for us to accept diversions?

Answer 47

30 mins

Question 48

Whom do we inform of a diversion request?

Answer 48

The Terminal Duty Operations Manager (TDOM). They will inform us where the A/C will be parked after checking it can be accepted.

We should also inform the Operations Director regarding any commercial A/C which require to divert in

Question 49

What weather warnings are passed on and to who?

Answer 49

RFFS- All warnings
Airport Refuellers- Thunderstorm
Snow co-ordinator and head of Ops- Snow and frost warnings

Question 50

When do we send DEP messages?

Answer 50

When a VFR aircraft is leaving UK airspace and for IFR training flights routing EXMOR to Cardiff

Question 51

Who do we notify about Special flights which do not have an authorisation number from the CAA?

Answer 51

The MATS

Question 52

Conditions for release of small free balloons

Answer 52

Permission for the release of small free balloons from locations inside the CTR may be granted,
providing that the released balloons will not affect ATC operations or cause a flight hazard. A contact name and number must be obtained and noted in the ATC Diary, along with the site and other relevant details of the proposed release.
The ANO requires that balloons exceeding 2000 in number but not greater than 10,000 are subject to
written permission of CAA. This permission applies to Regulated Airspace and Aerodrome Traffic
Zones. Copies of permission granted for individual releases are maintained in the Flight Notification File. It should be noted that permission to release more than 1000 balloons simultaneously within an
ATZ requires CAA permission. Controllers should therefore ensure that such permission has been granted before approving release.

Question 53

Who do we inform about Hot Air Balloons and what do we need to pass?

Answer 53

The Forestry Commision needs to know about any Hot Air Balloon flights including non-approved ones and their height, route, c/s, company and/or general description

Question 54

Procedure for Dudmoor Farm

Answer 54

Dudmoor Farm is a farm strip located 2.5nm south of the airfield. An Autogyro operates from here and the pilot has agreed to squawk 7377 and has Mode S. If he wishes to depart he must call ATC to bookout and request permission to get airborne, details are passed by the TWR ATSA to RDR ATSA who will then verbally pass any approval granted. The a/c must be airborne within 15 mins.

Operations are not permitted when Met Vis is below 1500m and/or the c.c. is below 600ft.

Question 55

How many model flying clubs are there and how do we control them?

Answer 55

3
Matchams and North End House- require to call and request permission before lifting and on cessation.
Oldfield- Only need to inform us when they start/finish as theya re outside the FRZ.

Question 56

Where do visiting helicopters park?

Answer 56

Normally at a remote parking area such as taxiway R

Question 57

Who do the helicopters talk to on when taxiing?

Answer 57

Always to AIR even when GMC is open so as to allow AIR to integrate them with other a/c.

Question 58

What are the procedures for helicopters lifting from Bliss Aviation?

Answer 58

Bliss based helicopters will advise the ADC when they have started and request their departure
clearance. When the helicopter reports ready for departure, before issuing “Lift at your discretion” the ADC Controller or in co-ordination with GMC will: complete the following:
▪ A broadcast will be made to all vehicles that a helicopter is lifting or alighting from Bliss or
any other nearby destination.
▪ Any vehicles on point to point clearances must have reached their destination or cleared the
affected area.
▪ Any other aircraft movement will be co-ordinated or asked to give way as appropriate.
▪ The helicopter will be advised that vehicles are on NSOL, when that is the case.
▪ The helicopter will be asked to report landing complete before any other aircraft or point to
point vehicles are given clearance through the area.
▪ Despite being ready it can take a few minutes for the helicopter to lift when departing. If the controller feels this time is becoming excessive, r/t confirmation shall be sought from the pilot that the departure is still imminent.
▪ If Rivergate is flooded and vehicle free flow is in progress, this shall be stopped and
confirmation received from security to that effect before a helicopter movement is
authorised.

Question 59

What are the procedures for helicopters landing at XLR?

Answer 59

Helicopters that need to land at the XLR facility are not allowed to route directly to the XLR apron.
Irrespective of the runway in use, they should alight on the runway 26 threshold, and then ground or
air-taxi to the parking area at Juliet, via taxiway November.
The same procedure should be used in reverse for departing helicopters.

This is all due to the proximity of the XLR apron to the 26 glidepath critical area, aircraft at holding
point November and the size of the apron.

Question 60

What are the procedures for the operation of the NPAS heli?

Answer 60

Procedures for the operation of the NPAS helicopter UKP10 are detailed at Annexe I and the effect of its operation on Draken FA20s is detailed at 1.17.7
NPAS are required to have a Final Approach and Take Off (FATO) area. It is located 30m South of the NPAS hangar and is illuminated by stand alone battery powered lighting deployed each day; normally prior to the Airport closing and retrieved after opening.
The intent is to only use the FATO during the out-of-hours period but an approach to the FATO might
be requested for training purposes during hours of operation. This needs to be authorised in advance
by booking out and the FATO lights can only be operated if there is no other traffic active at the time.
When cleared to use the FATO, the Controller should specify the clearance to do so.
Full details of the FATO are at Annex I.

Question 61

Where can Helicopters conduct training?

Answer 61

At the helicopter aiming point established on the grass are west of taxiway T abeam hangar 12. All training, including circuits should take place within this area.
Additionally, “Confined Areas” training will be carried out in the area to the north of Taxiway Tango.
Such training will not be permitted for solo student pilots and during such training, pilots should
make an “Ops Normal” call every 10 mins.

Question 62

What is the circuit height for Helicopters?

Answer 62

700ft QNH

Question 63

Where can helicopters conduct quick stop training?

Answer 63

Should be done on the runway however when this is not feasible it should be done on the area on the far north side.

Question 64

What level do Pipeline/Powerline helicopters normally operate?

Answer 64

200-500ft AGL

Question 65

Whom do we inform of requests to release sky lanterns?

Answer 65

MATS

Question 66

Describe the EGHH FRZ

Answer 66

Standard ATZ and Runway Protection Zones (RPZ- the rectangles extending from the threshold to 5km that are 500m either side of centreline, from sfc to 2000ft AGL)

Question 67

When do we need to let management know about a UAS?

Answer 67

-When the UAS wishes to operate within the FRZ
-The UAS weighs 25kg or more
-UAS wishes to fly above 400ft AGL

Question 68

Do we handle the requests for fuel?

Answer 68

No, only in special circumstances. A/C must make their own arrangements

Question 69

What movements do we inform special branch about?

Answer 69

-A/C inbound/outbound to/from the ROI, NI or Isle of Man
-All ROI registered A/C
-Any diversion from ROI, NI, Channel Islands or foreign country, whatever the reason
Any movement considered being doubtful of nature

Question 70

Who do we pass requests for extensions

Answer 70

The TDOM

Question 71

What are the actions in the event of an OOH incident?

Answer 71

In the event of an incident (2) during any lone controller period of operations, the following procedures are to be followed:-

• The Controller must resolve the immediate traffic situation, remove him/herself from duty
  and close the Watch
• The TDOM, RFFS and Swanwick en-route are to be informed that the aerodrome is closed
• Operators or the Handling Agent of planned movements are to be informed of the situation and consequent possible delays
• The MATS or member of the management team, as deemed the most practicable, is to be
  advised
• The Controller must assess the availability of a relief Controller and call them in if feasible
  and without compromise to subsequent operational cover

Any incident or accident where the safety of an aircraft was compromised and where the actions
of the Controller are considered to have contributed to the incident

Question 72

Who do we inform of flights looking for fuel ooh?

Answer 72

Fuelling Manager and if he isn’t available the Airport Ops Director

Question 73

What are the met conditions for the various LVP states?

Answer 73

LVP ready procedures- Met vis/IRVR (touchdown) 600m to 1000m and is likely to continue to deteriorate or the C.C is 300ft and likely to reduce further

LVP Safeguarding- Met vis/IRVR is equal to or less than 600m or the C.C is less than 200ft

Question 74

What are the met conditions for initiating LVP ready procedures and what do you need to do during that state?

Answer 74

When met vis or Touchdown indication of the Instrumented Runway Visual Range (IRVR) is reported as 600m to 1000m and is likely to continue to deteriorate, or the cloud ceiling is 300 feet and likely to reduce further the following
procedures are to be implemented:-

-Safety 1 is to deploy LVP blocker boards at : M, D, E, N, J, A, C and Jets entrance(2)

-Security are to deploy blocker boards on the apron at crossing point 3 and no pedestrians
permitted to use ACP’s if the met’ vis’ is ≤ 600 m

-Open taxiway B if necessary

-Stop bars and runway guard lights illuminated, the lighting panel used appropriately

-The standby generator must be on for all aircraft movements when Touchdown IRVR <800M

-Adjust the taxi pattern to take account of the blocker boards

-Use the lead on / lead off / turning circle lights

-Adopt the Jets (Hangar 600) LVP movement procedures for relevant aircraft

Inform the following people that LVP’s are or are about to be in force:
o AFS (Ext 141)
o Safety 1 (Radio)
o Handling (Ext 252)
o TDOM (Ext 170)
o XLR (01202 364401)
o Jets (01202 596340)
o CP2 Security (Ext 186) - State whether or not pedestrians are permitted on apron
crossing points

In the event that the ATCO cannot maintain good visual contact with aircraft, or the ATCO considers it necessary, then the following procedures are also to be enacted;

• Aircraft and vehicle movements on the manoeuvring area are restricted to avoid confliction
• Suspend WIP (unless specifically approved by the airport authority)
• Use Draken crossing lights when aircraft taxi on taxiway November
• Weather standby for aircraft arrivals
• Consider the use of ‘follow me’ vehicle if appropriate for the conditions or the pilot requests
  it.

Further notes;

1. Controllers are responsible for ensuring that all of the procedures are carried out but may delegate suitable tasks to the ATCA.
2. No aircraft may use the runway before the blocker boards are all in place if the touchdown IRVR or met’ vis’ <600m or the cloud ceiling <200 feet
3. Good visual contact is defined as: The ability to see the whole object / area unimpeded (as
   far as permanent obstructions allow) with such clarity that details such as features and
   markings are clearly visible to the naked eye of the observer
4. For the controller to decide not to carry out one or all of these discretionary procedures
   there must be reasonable assurance that he / she will be able to maintain good visual
   contact with the aircraft or vehicles and / or the relevant parts of the manoeuvring area for as long as necessary. If in any doubt as to whether this can be achieved it is imperative that the controller forgoes his / her discretion and implements these procedures.

Question 75

What are the met conditions for initiating LVP Safeguarding procedures and what do you need to do during that state?

Answer 75

Once the touchdown IRVR or met’ vis’ is ≤ 600m or the cloud ceiling is <200 feet then the following procedures are to be adopted:

• The standby generator(1) is to be switched on when the Touchdown IRVR <800M (select
  ≤800m on the lighting panel).
• Broadcast “LVP procedures in force” on the ATIS
• If not already done so inform CP2 Security (Ext 186) that pedestrians are not permitted on apron crossing points
• Ensure all 3 IRVR sensors are serviceable for CAT 111 arrivals(2)
• Runway must be inspected before an aircraft is permitted to use it if the previous aircraft
  movement was more than 15 minutes earlier
• Use lead on / lead off / turning circle lights
• Select the Apron traffic lights before de-selecting the G4 stop bar. De –select the Apron
  traffic lights only after G4 stop bar is re-selected
• The runway block is to be sterilized (inside holds B1, T, R, G4):
  o Before inbound aircraft reaches 8nm from touchdown
  o Before departing aircraft is cleared to proceed beyond the CAT 111 hold
  o Stop bars linked to lead-on lights must be returned to red once an aircraft has
  lined up and before take-off clearance issued
• Unless the controller can maintain visual contact with the relevant vehicles / aircraft, vehicles not directly connected with LVP procedures may only move if:
  o No aircraft is in the runway block or about to enter it for departure / landing
  o No aircraft and vehicle will be in the same block at the same time (with the exception of follow-me vehicles and emergency vehicles attending an aircraft emergency)
  o Point to point clearances only and ‘arrived at destination’ calls to be made, including access to taxiway Romeo
• Adopt the Jets (Hangar 600) movement procedures for such aircraft Additional action to be taken if the Controller cannot maintain good visual contact(3) with the aircraft or vehicles and/ or the relevant parts of the manoeuvring area (or otherwise considers it necessary)(4):
• Adopt the follow-me procedures if controller cannot maintain visual contact with aircraft to/from the CAT 111 holding points or if so requested by the pilot.
• Only one aircraft movement per block (always mandatory in the runway block)
• No unnecessary vehicles permitted on the manoeuvring area (e.g. at fire training facility)
• Suspend WIP (unless specifically approved by the Airport Authority)
• Use Draken crossing lights when aircraft taxi on taxiway November
• Weather standby for all aircraft arrivals

Notes on LVP Safeguarding procedures:
1.
i. Before switching the generator on please advise anyone in the ATC offices that it is going to be switched on
ii. When using the standby generator note the approximate extent of use of use in the log
and, once it is switched on, leave it to run for at least 30 minutes with power loading on
it (i.e. leave runway or taxiway lights switched on).
iii. If the generator fails promulgate the absence of back – up power by R/T, ATIS and NOTAM.
iv. To be fully compliant with Safeguarding, both Generator A and B need to be operational
and indicated as such on the Lighting Panel.
v. The generators have enough fuel for 8 hours of operation and MT must be advised in
good time if they are likely to be running for longer than this.
vi. In the event of a failure of either generator, power will immediately be restored from the mains and the Controller alerted to the failure via the AGL Control Panel. The electricians
(Tels) must be informed immediately and no operations are permitted until provision of
back-up power has been restored.
vii. When necessary to implement LVP safeguarding procedures on opening the watch: -
a.
The generators should be selected as part of the opening checks; and left running
until the engineers are on site, but not less than 30 minutes.
b.
When the engineers are not on duty, the generators should be run for at least 30
mins on power loading.

When it is necessary to implement LVPs outside of normal operating hours, or during any period when engineering support is only available on-call, the generators should be selected prior to any
movement up to around 60 mins, when notification permits; or immediately on notification
when less warning is available.
When no traffic is pending, the generators can be deselected but should be reselected in
sufficient time, as above, to cater for any notified movement; and thereby, giving time for engineering response, if necessary, thus reducing the risk that any failure will subsequently affect
operations.

2. IF only 2 IRVR sensors are working then CATII approaches are allowed (Safeguarding must be in place before CAT II approaches are allowed. If only one sensor is working CATI is allowed if it’s not the stop end. Ref to MATS 1 IRVR usage and 1.15.11 below.
3. Good visual contact is defined as: The ability to see the whole object / area unimpeded (as
   far as permanent obstructions allow) with such clarity that details such as features and
   markings are clearly visible to the naked eye of the observer
4. For the controller to decide not to carry out one or all of these discretionary procedures
   there must be reasonable assurance that he / she will be able to maintain good visual
   contact with the aircraft or vehicles and / or the relevant parts of the manoeuvring area for as long as necessary. If in any doubt as to whether this can be achieved it is imperative that the controller forgoes his / her discretion and implements these procedures.

Question 76

Describe procedures for Cat IIIA Ground Manoeuvres

Answer 76

Aircraft manoeuvring on the ground will be separated by the use of a “block” system, with each defined block being bounded by switchable, illuminated stop bars at the CAT III Holding Points and/or
barriers at all other runway access points.

If the controller cannot maintain ‘good visual contact’ only one aircraft is permitted to be taxiing per block at any one time, the runway block only ever having a maximum of one aircraft in it or cleared
to enter it.

If the use of a follow-me vehicle is necessary or requested by the pilot then at the appropriate time, the RFFS/AST vehicle will proceed to and report at the relevant holding point for the aircraft pick-up, to undertake the Follow-me escort, as detailed in the following chapters.

Handling has advised that on occasions, during LVPs, it is useful for them to be able to reposition aircraft from the East to West Apron, so as to facilitate more efficient departure procedures, with the aircraft being able to taxi off the stand on the West Apron.

A request to push an aircraft back from the East to West Apron should be facilitated whenever possible, provided the movement of other aircraft and in particular, the Runway Block remain protected.

The push-back process can be approved provided there is no other aircraft within the Apron Block, or if there is ‘good visual contact’ for the apron area. If the apron is not visible any inbound aircraft to the Apron must be held at B2 until it is confirmed that the push-back manoeuvre is complete, and all
vehicles are clear of the Apron area.

Question 77

Where are the blocks used for ground movements during CAT IIIA ops?

Answer 77

Question 78

Describe Procedures for CATIIIA ops for Rwy 26 arrivals Parking on the southside for A/C up to and including Code D

Answer 78

After touchdown and roll-out the aircraft may either: -
* Vacate Runway 26 directly at Taxiway Bravo, or
* Execute a 180-degree turn, using the turning circle and backtrack to vacate at Taxiway Bravo, or if that is not available, Taxiway Romeo.

The centreline lead-off lighting is to be illuminated for the chosen exit for use. The aircraft is to be instructed to vacate on the greens and hold at the relevant Holding Point for the Follow-Me. Once the aircraft has reported holding, the Follow-Me vehicle will escort the aircraft, under ATC instruction, to the Apron. If the aircraft is required to hold at any intermediate point, the relevant stop bar must be selected “on” and then deselected when issuing onward clearance. The aircraft will be instructed to report holding at / passing abeam B2 and will then be cleared to its stand.

Question 79

Describe Procedures for CATIIIA ops for Rwy 26 arrivals Parking on the southside for Code E A/C

Answer 79

After touchdown and roll-out the aircraft will continue to the end of Runway 26 and execute a 180degree turn using the turning circle and then backtrack to vacate the runway at Taxiway Romeo.

Taxiway Romeo is to be the sole exit for use with centreline lead-off lighting illuminated. The aircraft is to be instructed to vacate on the greens and hold at R for the Follow-Me.

Once the aircraft has reported holding at R, the Follow-Me vehicle will escort the aircraft, under ATC instruction, to its parking area on Romeo.
Vehicles engaged in the loading/unloading of the aircraft, whilst it is parked on Romeo, are subject to
the same safeguarding procedures as any other.

Question 80

Describe Procedures for CATIIIA ops for Rwy 26 arrivals when Taxiways B and R are Closed

Answer 80

This may be due to several reasons but the most likely is A340 operations from the apron or taxiway Romeo.
When taxiway Bravo or Romeo are not available to use in LVP’s any aircraft parking on the south side of the runway (Main Apron or Jets) shall vacate the runway at holding point G1. For aircraft landing on runway 26 this will necessitate a backtrack. Lead- off lights at G1 shall be used.

If the aircraft requires a follow me vehicle to the apron or Jets it shall be instructed to hold at the end of the lead off lights and Safety 1 will then provide the follow me to Jets or the Apron.

The procedure for 26 departures is not affected.

Should any vehicular movements be taking place in connection with aircraft parked on Bravo or Romeo these must cease until any departing aircraft is airborne or any landing aircraft is parked.

Additionally, a barrier shall be placed at holding point Romeo or, if no barrier available, Safety 1 will be instructed to park at holding point Romeo whilst a departure or arrival is taking place, to safeguard the holding point.

Vehicular movements connected with A340 operations on the main apron may continue around the aircraft.

No other aircraft can start/push/taxy etc on the south side of the airfield until any inbound using these procedures is parked and shut down.

Question 81

During CAT IIIA arrivals for Rwy 26 who has priority the inbound or outbound?

Answer 81

Generally, inbound aircraft will have priority and departing aircraft must be held on stand until any arriving aircraft has parked, unless the controller is able to expedite movements using the ‘ good visual contact’ principle. If a departing aircraft has a slot time to make, consideration must be given
to putting the approaching aircraft in the Hold, unless it can be assured that the departing aircraft will be airborne before the inbound aircraft reaches 8nm final. However, consideration must also be
given to the potential for a significant delay to the inbound flight should the visibility deteriorate further during the holding period and thus preclude any approach being made.

Question 82

Describe Procedures for CATIIIA ops for Rwy 26 deps Parked on the southside for A/C up to and including Code C

Answer 82

After start-up and push-back, facing north, the aircraft will be met by a Follow-Me vehicle and
cleared initially to G4. When appropriate, the stop bar at G4 will be deselected and the aircraft cleared to proceed, with the Follow-Me, to Runway 26, via G1. The apron traffic lights must be selected on while the G4 stop bar is de-selected.

As the aircraft approaches G1, the Follow-Me vehicle will break off to the left into the former 26 ROP site and allow the aircraft to continue onto the runway under the guidance of the associated taxiway centreline lighting. The Follow-Me vehicle will then return to the Apron, via Taxiway Golf. Once the vehicle has reported clear behind G4 and the runway block is safeguarded the aircraft can be cleared for take-off.

Question 83

Describe Procedures for CATIIIA ops for Rwy 26 deps Parked on the southside for A/C that are Code D

Answer 83

After start-up and push-back, facing south, the aircraft will be met by a Follow-Me vehicle and
cleared initially to B2. When appropriate, the stop bar at B2 will be deselected and the aircraft then cleared to proceed, with the Follow-Me, to taxi to R.
Once established on the taxiway, the following procedure will be applied: -

• The driver will report “ready to vacate”
• ATC will instruct the aircraft to “hold position” and advise the pilot that the vehicle will be
  vacating to the right
• The Follow-Me driver will select the “Stop” sign on the vehicle
• The Follow-Me driver will be instructed to vacate onto the Fire Station slip road, which is lit
  by red lights at the entrance, and to report “vacated” when on the Apron
• Once confirmed that the vehicle has vacated, the aircraft will be instructed to continue to
  Holding Point R and can be cleared to enter Runway 26 under the guidance of the stop bar and associated centreline and lead-on lighting Take-off clearance will only be given when the runway block is fully safeguarded.

Question 84

Describe Procedures for CATIIIA ops for Rwy 08 deps Parked on the southside for A/C that are up to and including Code D

Answer 84

If a follow me vehicle is required then after start-up and push-back, facing south, the aircraft will be met by the vehicle and cleared initially to B2. When appropriate, the stop bar at B2 will be deselected and the aircraft then cleared to proceed, with the Follow-Me, to taxi to B1.

As the aircraft approaches B1, the Follow-Me vehicle will break off to the left onto the slip road to hold and will report holding position. The aircraft may then be cleared to enter Runway 08 and will continue under the guidance of the stop bar and associated centreline and lead-on lighting. The holding vehicle may be permitted to return to the Apron once the aircraft has reported airborne, or if the controller has ‘good visual contact’

Question 85

Describe Procedures for CATIIIA ops for Rwy 08 deps Parked on the southside when Taxiways B and R are closed

Answer 85

This may be due to several reasons but the most likely is A340 operations from the apron or taxiway Romeo.

For runway 08 departures the aircraft will taxy to holding point G1 (with a follow me if necessary) and backtrack runway 08 from G1.

Should any vehicular movements be taking place in connection with aircraft parked on Bravo or Romeo these must cease until any departing aircraft is airborne or any landing aircraft is parked.

Additionally, a barrier shall be placed at holding point Romeo or, if no barrier available, Safety 1 will be instructed to park at holding point Romeo whilst a departure or arrival is taking place, to safeguard the holding point.

Vehicular movements connected with A340 operations on the main apron may continue around the aircraft.

No other aircraft can start/push/taxy etc on the south side of the airfield until any inbound using
these procedures is parked and shut down.

Question 86

What are the procedures for CAT IIIA departures parked on the Southside that are Cat E?

Answer 86

The aircraft will be parked on Romeo.

If facing north, it will be directed by the Follow-Me vehicle along taxiway Romeo, the vehicle will
break off to the right onto the Fire Station Slip Road and return to the Apron, reporting vacated when on the Apron. The aircraft may then be cleared to enter the runway and will continue under the guidance of the stop bar and associated centreline and lead-on lighting.

If facing south, the aircraft will be pushed back across the runway to Holding Point T. The tug and all vehicles involved will be required to report vacated from the Manoeuvring Area before permitting the aircraft to taxi onto the runway and continuing under the guidance of the stop bar and associated
centreline and lead-on lighting.
For all departures, take-off clearance will only be given when confirmation has been received that the runway block is sterile.

Question 87

Describe CAT IIIA ops for arriving a/c parking on the Northside Aprons

Answer 87

After touchdown and roll-out the aircraft may either: -
* Vacate Runway 26 directly at Taxiway Tango, or
* Execute a 180-degree turn, using the turning circle if necessary and backtrack to vacate at Taxiway Tango.

Taxiway Tango is to be the sole exit for use with centreline lead-off lighting illuminated. The aircraft is to be instructed to vacate on the greens and hold at T for the Follow-Me, unless ‘good visual contact’ allows it to proceed without a follow-me.

Once the aircraft has reported holding at T, the Follow-Me vehicle will escort the aircraft, under ATC instruction, to its designated parking location, via Taxiway Tango and other taxiways as necessary. The aircraft and Follow-Me vehicle will report when parked and will confirm location.

Question 88

Describe CAT IIIA ops for departing a/c parked on the Northside Aprons

Answer 88

Unless ‘good visual contact’ prevails, all aircraft will be escorted from their parking location, by a Follow-Me vehicle, to the hold at T. Once established on taxiway Tango, the Follow-Me vehicle will
hold at the dedicated area to the east of holding point ‘T’ or may cross the runway to return to the south side. The aircraft may then be cleared to enter the departure runway and will continue under the guidance of the stop bar and appropriate associated centreline and lead-on lighting.

The follow me vehicle may either hold at the dedicated position east of hold Tango or report clear of the manoeuvring area whilst the aircraft departs.

Question 89

Describe the LVP operations for Departing XLR a/c

Answer 89

The aircraft will report ready at Juliet and at the appropriate time Safety 1, or another relevant vehicle will be instructed to remove the barrier. The aircraft will be instructed to line-up Runway 26
via Juliet or enter and backtrack from the 26 Threshold for Runway 08. Controllers must note that once the barrier is removed, the Runway Block becomes active and all other movements must be
restricted accordingly.

Once the aircraft is clear, Safety 1 will replace the barrier and either hold behind it at Juliet or
position north of the barrier at November. Once confirmation is obtained that the barrier is back in place and that Safety 1 is holding outside the Runway Block, the aircraft can be issued with take-off
clearance.

Question 90

Describe the LVP operations for arriving XLR a/c

Answer 90

Aircraft landing Runway 26 should be instructed to backtrack and expect to vacate at November for Juliet. Once the safe landing of the aircraft has been confirmed, Safety 1 will be instructed to remove the barrier at Juliet and then the aircraft can be given taxy instructions from the Runway into the XLR
Apron via Juliet.

Once the aircraft is on the parking area, Safety 1 will replace the barrier and return to the Apron via Taxiway Golf, crossing 26 Threshold.

Question 91

Describe Hangar 600 ops during LVPs for departing A/C

Answer 91

The aircraft will report ready at the apron area and then, at the appropriate time, Safety 1 or other relevant vehicle will be instructed to remove the barriers. The aircraft will be instructed to line-up Runway 26 via G1 or enter and backtrack for Runway 08. Controllers must note that once the barriers
are removed, the Runway Block becomes active and all other movements must be restricted
accordingly. Once the aircraft is clear, Safety 1 will replace the barriers and return back to the Apron via Taxiway Golf. Once confirmation is obtained that the barriers are back in place and that Safety 1 is back behind G4, the aircraft can be issued with take-off clearance.

Question 92

Describe Hangar 600 ops during LVPs for arriving A/C

Answer 92

Aircraft landing Runway 26 should be instructed to backtrack and vacate at G1. Once the safe landing of the aircraft has been confirmed, Safety 1 will be instructed to remove the barriers at Hangar 600. Once the aircraft is on the parking area, Safety 1 will replace the barriers and return back to the Apron via Taxiway Golf. The Runway Block can be considered deactivated once confirmation has been received that the barriers are back in place and that Safety 1 is back behind G4. If a follow-me vehicle is needed, procedures are to be implemented as for aircraft parking on the East
or West Apron, using G4 as an intermediate holding point if necessary.

Question 93

What are the met conditions where the ATCO can consider terminating LVPs?

Answer 93

Once the C.C is 300ft and expected to rise further and the Touchdown IRVR and Met Vis are greater than 1000m

Question 94

Describe the actions to be taken by the ATCO when LVPs are terminated

Answer 94

• Request that all barriers be removed. The driver will advise ATC as each barrier is removed.
  On completion of this process, the driver will pass their initials to ATC to annotate on the
  form, confirming notification that all barriers have been removed and normal operations can be resumed. A copy of the completed form is to be retained by ATC in the RVR File.
• Close taxiway B
• Adjust taxi pattern
• Inform duty ATE if generator refuelling is required.
• Remove ‘LVP’s in force’ from ATIS
• Reinstate WIP if necessary
• Inform the following that LVP’s are no longer in force:
  o AFS (Ext 141)
  o Safety 1 (Radio)
  o Handling (Ext 252)
  o TDOM (Ext 170)
  o Jets (01202 596340)
  o XLR (01202 364401)
• Inform CP2 security (Ext 186) that:
  o LVP’s are no longer in force
  o Blockers may be removed from apron crossing points 2 and 3
  o Pedestrians (if restricted) are now permitted on apron crossing points

An entry is to be made on the right-hand page of the ADC Log, noting that “LVPs ceased”.

Question 95

Describe the procedures for use of the taxiway crossing controls during LVPs

Answer 95

During any period of LVP Safeguarding operations, only Apron Crossing Points 1 and 2 will be in use.

Crossing Point 1 is to be used for access between the Tower / Fire Station and CP2.

Crossing Point 2 for access between the East and West Aprons.

Barriers will be placed across the east and west crossings at Point 3 and notices will be in place to advise drivers that the crossing is closed.

In the event that the crossing lights fail, all vehicle movements must be under ATC control. Notices will be displayed at the crossing points advising drivers of the failure and that ATC contact via telephone / radio Ch 2 must be made for permission to cross. Security personnel at Sierra 4 will also be told and advised that vehicles will need to be escorted.

Question 96

Which IRVR sensors are required for CAT III ops?

Answer 96

All three

Question 97

Describe actions in case of failure of transmissometers

Answer 97

If one of the sensors fail, the service provided must be downgraded to either CAT II or CAT I as appropriate. For CAT II operations, both the TDZ and MID are required. CAT I operations are permitted with just one serviceable sensor, provided it is not the Stop-end. If only the Stop-End value is available, the system must be regarded as unserviceable.

If the Touchdown sensor fails, confirmation that the system is still serviceable must be obtained from the Duty ATE. In these circumstances, the Mid-Point value is used to determine ATC procedures and is to be passed to the pilot together with the Stop-End, if available. The pilot must be informed that
the Touchdown transmissometer has failed.

Example: - “TDZ RVR not available – Mid-Point 550 – Stop-End 400”

In the event of a failure of the IRVR system, the Met Visibility is to be used and pilots advised that RVR is not available. Only CAT I operations are then permitted.

Question 98

How are the Standby generators handled?

Answer 98

The standby generators switch on automatically whenever the “< = 800m” option is selected on the AGL Control Panel. The system will indicate any fault that develops with the generators or if the fuel
level is running low. In such situations, the engineers are to be informed immediately.

The engineers are also to be informed whenever the generators have been in operation so that fuel
levels can be checked and replenished. Whenever feasible, this notification should be made within normal operating hours so that personnel are not disturbed unnecessarily during their off-duty time.

Question 99

Where will emergency vehicles hold during LVP safeguarding conditions?

Answer 99

G4

Question 100

Describe the Draken Booking Out Procedures

Answer 100

Draken Flight Ops will book out the A/C as per the flying programme with the relevant details
FA20s will call for start irrespective of their flying rules, ADI/GMC will then contact the onward agency to pre-note (may be delegated to ATSA)
FA20s are to inform ATC if they require to use 26X for departure-Squawk and frequency details to be passed to Radar.

Question 101

What are timed departures?

Answer 101

Draken flights that are providing tactical support for FOST and are time critical on task. Crews will indicate if they are timed departures during book out, ATC will annotate these strips with TD in the domestic box. TD flights should be afforded every reasonable priority to enable a/c to depart as close to TD as possible.

Question 102

Describe the FA20 departure procedures for VFR a/c

Answer 102

FA20s require the entire length of Runway 26 or 08 for departure and are rarely able to accept a
rolling or immediate take-off. Where two or more FA20s depart VFR as a formation, the proceeding aircraft will start his take-off roll once the one ahead is airborne – approximately 20-30 seconds later.

However, due to the potential for FOD damage, the aircraft will not carry out in-line take offs. For 26
Operations whilst the lead aircraft is lined up, the second aircraft will hold short of the runway. For
08 Operations the second aircraft will hold in the turning circle.

The pilots will accept a VFR departure, in the case of jets however they will follow the NPRs unless otherwise instructed, before turning onto the required track. VFR formation departures will be transferred to the next agency as one ‘speaking unit’ i.e.: ‘AMBER Section contact Plymouth Mil on
….’

Question 103

Describe the FA20 departure procedures for IFR a/c

Answer 103

Normal departure separation is to be applied between IFR departures, even if a formation callsign is used. APS must ensure that adequate separation exists before transferring control to the next unit. It should be remembered that the aircraft are likely to be established on common tracks once clear
of the zone.
The following points should be noted:-
* Standard noise abatement procedures are to be observed
* Formation aircraft will not carry out in-line take offs due to the potential for FOD damage
* Standard separation is to be applied to every IFR departure.
* The direction of turn after noise abatement should be included in the take-off clearance.

Question 104

When shall FA20 take-off clearances be issued and why?

Answer 104

When the a/c has completed its backtrack and is lined up ready for departure. This is due to radio issues caused by the siting of the a/c’s aerial.

Question 105

Describe procedures for FA 20 arrivals when VFR

Answer 105

VFR arrivals must conform to the agreed Noise Abatement Procedures and the Controller can safely facilitate their approach within the arrival sequence. At times when this is not possible, the Controller must consider vectoring the aircraft onto the ILS or for visual positioning onto final.
Controllers should note, where traffic information is being given, that the visibility from the FA20
cockpit is restricted, especially during the turn.

Runway 26 Operations

• VFR Join Left-hand
  Aircraft will approach along the coast (feet wet) at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final
  no closer than 4.1 DME. This is termed as a “Standard Noise Join”.
  In the event that the pilot requests, or ATC require the aircraft to make a short approach
  inside 4.1 DME, they will join directly onto Base or route along the coast, not below 1500ft
  and turn inbound at HGS. This is termed as a “Standard HGS Join”.

The Standard HGS Join should only be used for safety or optimum sequencing purposes.
Permitting such an approach might have to be subsequently justified by the Controller. This
approach is permitted for singletons and formations, provided it can be applied to all aircraft in the formation.

• VFR Join Right-hand
  Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 3 DME.

Runway 08 Operations

• VFR Join Right-hand
  Aircraft will execute standard SBX join, not below 1500ft, descending onto Final no closer than 4 DME. In the event that they approach from the SE and elect to transit the coast, they will follow the “Standard Noise Join” as for Runway 26 - ie at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME.
• VFR Join Left-hand
  Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME.

Question 106

Describe procedures for FA 20 arrivals when IFR

Answer 106

The FA20s require to intercept the ILS Glidepath from below. Controllers must descend the aircraft to an appropriate level in order to facilitate this.
Beacon training for arriving FA20s should be booked in advance in accordance with the standard
booking procedures. Ad-hoc requests for procedural approaches on return will only be
accommodated provided there is no disruption to commercial or pre booked training flights.

Question 107

What are the procedures regarding Draken ops when the NPAS heli is active?

Answer 107

Following a hazard analysis by Draken on the risk of FOD ingestion to their FA20s at holding point Mike due to the proximity of the NPAS HLS, the following procedure is to be used:

▪ Runway 26 Operations
Following the landing of an FA20 aircraft which is vacating at Mike:
If the Police helicopter has just started and has not yet called ready for departure, it is to be asked to hold on the ground and allow the FA20 to continue taxiing back to base. If the helicopter has called ready for immediate departure, the Controller will instruct the FA20 to hold just north of the holding point and wait for the helicopter to depart before continuing to taxi.

▪ Runway 08 Operations
FA20 aircraft taxiing for departure will hold short of the NPAS site if the helicopter has started and
has called ready for an immediate departure. FA20s will continue to the holding point after the helicopter has lifted and departed.

Due to the increased risk of potential FOD ingestion and in order to avoid an additional Runway crossing, FA20s should only be instructed to vacate left at holding point Alpha and taxi south side as a last resort.

Question 108

What are the procedures for Draken Target Tows?

Answer 108

Draken aircraft may return to the airfield towing a target on short haul. The target is of fabric
construction and up to 5m long, with little or no towing wire showing. The pilots prefer not to overfly built-up areas on their approach. When requests are made to drop the target, normal circuit procedures will be followed, and no priorities are normally requested. Targets can be dropped accurately into an area 500 m by 100 m and there is minimum disruption to other aircraft.

The RFFS/AST shold be advised for the target collection. Targets will normally be dropped on the grass areas to the north side of Runway 26 and east of Taxiway Tango. Controllers must ensure that Holding Point Delta and Taxiway Delta is clear of aircraft and vehicles.

Question 109

For what aircraft do Western Radar provide a service from EGHH?

Answer 109

For a/c on an air test and those inbound/outbound cruising at or requesting above FL100

Question 110

Who provides services to special tasks outside of Western Radar’s opening hours?

Answer 110

Swanwick Mil

Question 111

Describe the booking out procedures with Swanwick Mil

Answer 111

Flight details of aircraft Booking Out to receive a service from Swanwick (Mil) should be telephoned to Flight Plan Reception Sections at least 15 mins prior to departure with the following details:-
Callsign; Type; ETD; Level (if known); Routing and Destination
Should a taxiing aircraft request a service from Swanwick (Mil), these details can be passed direct to the Swanwick Planner on the direct line.

For those aircraft filing a Flight Plan, requiring a Radar service from Swanwick Mil, Section 18 of the Flight Plan should contain a request for a Deconfliction Service and EGWDZQZX must be added to the list of addressees.

Plans should be filed at least 30mins prior to the ETD.

Bournemouth ATC will advise the Planner when the aircraft taxies and a squawk and frequency will
be allocated. Should the aircraft departure be delayed more than 10 mins from the time of request,
the ATSA will advise the Planner of the delay. If required, airborne times will be passed direct to the
Console allocated, via the EMBARK system. Aircraft will be transferred to Swanwick (Mil) when clear of Bournemouth and Southampton traffic.

Question 112

For which A/C is the MOU with Western Radar subject to?

Answer 112

Jet traffic departing Bournemouth intending to join CAS at Brecon (BCN)

Question 113

What are the procedures for jet aircraft departing via BCN?

Answer 113

Prior to departure, Bournemouth ATC will telephone Western Radar with the flight details and ETD. They will issue an SSR Code, Flight Level and Frequency and will then notify S23 with the details of the pending flight.

Bournemouth will route the aircraft towards Brecon and transfer to Western Radar when clean, clear of the CTA and not below FL70. They will co-ordinate with S23 planner for the joining clearance, which will not be above FL240.

Question 114

What are the procedures for aicraft leaving the ATS route structure at BCN?

Answer 114

Bournemouth arrivals leaving the ATS route structure at BCN will be notified to Western Radar by
S23. They will issue an SSR Code, Flight Level and Frequency. Western Radar will then pre-note Bournemouth ATC with an estimate for the BIA and make the initial request for a clearance.

Bournemouth will issue an SSR Code, contact Frequency and acceptance Level. Whenever possible, the aircraft will route direct to the BIA and transferred to Bournemouth when clean, descending to the agreed Level, within 25nm of the BIA.

Question 115

What are the procedures for A/C joining the ATS routes via Dawly?

Answer 115

Prior to departure, Bournemouth ATC will pre-note Western Radar with the flight details. They will
issue an SSR Code, Flight Level and Frequency.

Bournemouth will pass the airborne time to Western Radar and transfer the aircraft to them when clean, clear of the CTA and not below FL70. Western Radar will then notify S06 with the details of the pending flight and request the joining clearance for DAWLY

Question 116

What are the procedures for A/C leaving the ATS routes via Dawly?

Answer 116

Bournemouth arrivals leaving the ATS route structure at DAWLY will be notified to Western Radar by
S06. They will issue an SSR Code, Flight Level and Frequency.

Bournemouth will issue an SSR Code, contact Frequency and acceptance Level.

Western Radar will transfer the aircraft to Bournemouth when clean, in accordance with the type of Radar service being provided.