ADI Question Bank Flashcards
What is the NPR for aircraft departing rwy 23?
Climb S/A to 0.6NM then right turn heading 270 degrees, turn O/T on reaching 3.1NM (also applies to CCTs)
What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the NW?
For A/C departing tracking 260-360 degrees
Climb S/A to 2DME, then left turn no lower than 1500ft (also applies to LH CCTS)
What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the NE?
For A/C departing heading 001-079 degrees
Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 5.6DME before commencing turn
What is the NPR for A/C departing rwy 08 to the South?
For A/C heading between 080-259 degrees
Climb S/A to 1DME then track 075 degrees to 4.1 DME before commencing any turn (also applies to RH CCTS)
What are the NPRs for A/C arriving rwy 26?
From the North- establish on final no closer than 3.0DME
From the South- establish on final no closer than 4.1DME
What are the NPRs for A/C arriving rwy 08?
Establish on final no closer than 4DME
What is the runway lighting available at EGHH?
HI- bi-directional with omni-directional component
HI white edge lighting (CAT I 08 so last 600m is yellow)
HI white centreline lighting, last 300m is red 600m before that alternates red/white
HI green wing bars and threshold lighting
900m HI white flush touchdown zone lighting
LI turning circle lights on both thresholds
LI stopway lighting
What are the approach lights for rwy 26?
914m HI white centreline lighting 5 bar crossbars
300m LI red inner supplementary lighting
What are the approach lights for rwy 08?
510m HI white centreline 3 crossbars (2 crossbars and Centreline lights are flush fitted into the runway extension)
What are the taxiway lights?
HI green centreline lights on A, B, R and T
LI blue edge lights on C, G, N, E, D and M
Green centreline and blue edge reflectors on W and V
What are the holding point lights?
LI red flush stop bars at A, B1, B2, R, C, D, G1, G4, N, E, T and M- with exception of B2, C, D and E all of these HPs have green lead on / lead off lights. These illuminate whenever the associated stop-bar is deselected
RGLs at all runway entry points including G3
What holding points have stop bars?
A, B1, B2, R, C, D, G1, G4, N, E, T and M
What VRP lies to the NW?
Tarrant Rushton TAR
What VRP lies to the NE?
Stones Cross
STX
What VRP lies to the SE?
Hengistbury Head
HGS
What VRP lies to the SW?
Sandbanks
SBX
How many LVP blocks are there and what are they?
4
North side
B2 to R
MA to G4
Runway
What vehicles are permitted NSOLO?
European (within the are at the top of T between H103 and T, including V)
Fuel
Sierra Mob
Tels
Sparks
Bliss Mobile
Which A/C will require release from Radar?
VFR jets
VFR given a level above 2A
All IFR
All SVFR
When Radar have asked for one
What points would require co-ordination with Western Radar?
GIBSO
DAWLY
DIKAS
BRIBO
BCN
What is the MAP rwy 26?
Continue climb 3A initially on track 251 degrees, on passing 4DME left turn to BIA Hold
What is the MAP rwy 08?
Continuous climb 3A, initially heading 080 degrees to 4 DME then right turn to BIA hold
What is the standard airways clearance to the north?
SAM-Q41-NORRY
What is the standard airways clearance to the south?
THRED
What is the standard airways clearance to the east?
GWC
What is the standard airways clearance to the north-west?
SAM-PEPIS-NUBRI
What RFFS cat is Bournemouth?
A7
A8 under remission
A9 with 24hrs notice
What are the taxiway widths?
A-16m
B-23m
C-16m
D-16m
E-16m
G-16
M-16m
N-16m
R-23m
T-23m
V-16m
W-16m
What type of approaches are available?
NDB
ILS (CAT I 08, CAT III 26)
RNAV5
What is the height of the Bournemouth CTR?
SFC to 2000ft AMSL
What is Bournemouth’s Transition Alt?
6,000ft
What is TWR’s Frequency?
125.605MHz
DOC 25nm, SFC to 4000ft
What is Ground’s Frequency?
121.705MHz
What is Bournemouth RADAR Frequency?
119.480
What is Bournemouth Director Frequency?
118.655
What is the ATIS frequency?
133.730
What are the CCT heights?
1200ft QNH for A/C MTWA of less than 5700kgs
1500ft QNH for all Turbine A/C and those with a MTWA of greater than 5700kgs
700ft Low level cct to south of runway (max of 2 per sortie or following an instrument approach)
Helicopters 700ft
What are the VFR criteria for Class D Airspace?
Below 3000ft-
Flight vis-5km, 1500m from cloud laterally and 1000ft vertically
If less than 140KIAS then Flight Vis- 5km, COCSIS
Helicopters if less than 140KIAS then flight vis 1500m, COCSIS
If night then 140KIAS exceptions no longer apply
Describe Class D airspace
ATC permission required to enter
IFR & VFR Permitted
IFR separated from IFR
IFR and SVFR TX info on VFR
VFR TX info on IFR and other VFRs
What are the conditions for the refusal of a SVFR clearance?
Fixed- Ground Vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C. less than 600ft
Heli- Ground Vis less than 800m and/or C.C. less than 600ft
When the reported ground visibility at the aerodrome is less than 1500 m, ATC may issue a Special VFR clearance for a flight crossing the control zone and not intending to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the flight visibility reported by the pilot is not less than 1500 m, or for helicopters, not less than 800 m (GM1 SERA.5010(c)).
What is the radio fail procedure for IFR a/c?
3.4.2.4.1 A flight experiencing communications failure in IMC during an approach directed by radar shall:
Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C.
Continue either visually, or by means of promulgated Initial Approach Procedures and an appropriate approved final approach aid, to land. If this is not practical, carry out the missed approach procedure and continue to a holding facility appropriate to the airfield of intended landing for which an instrument approach is notified and then carry out that procedure.
3.4.2.4.2 Except where communications failure occurs during an approach directed by radar, a flight experiencing communication failure in IMC shall:
Operate secondary radar transponder on Mode A code 7600 with Mode C.
Maintain for a period of seven minutes, the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude, if this is higher. The period of seven minutes begins when the transponder is set to 7600 and this should be done as soon as the pilot has detected communications failure.
If failure occurs when the aircraft is following a notified departure procedure such as a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) and clearance to climb, or re-routing instructions have not been given, the procedure should be flown in accordance with the published lateral track and vertical profile, including any stepped climbs, until the last position, fix, or waypoint, published for the procedure, has been reached. Then, for that part of the period of seven minutes that may remain, maintain the current speed and last assigned level or minimum safe altitude if this is higher.
Following the period of seven minutes, adjust the speed and level in accordance with the current flight plan and continue the flight to the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome. Attempt to transmit position reports and altitude/flight level on the appropriate frequency when over routine reporting points.
If being radar vectored, or proceeding offset according to RNAV, without a specified limit, continue in accordance with ATC instructions last acknowledged for three minutes only and then proceed in the most direct manner possible to rejoin the current flight planned route. Pilots should ensure that they remain at, or above, the minimum safe altitude.
Comply with the loss of communications procedures notified for the destination aerodrome in the AD 2 section of the UK AIP.
Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome as closely as possible to the ETA last acknowledged by ATC. If no such ETA has been acknowledged, the pilot should use an ETA derived from the last acknowledged position report and the flight-planned times for the subsequent sections of the flight.
Arrange the flight to arrive over the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome at the highest notified Minimum Sector Altitude taking account of en-route terrain clearance requirements.
If following a notified Standard Arrival Route (STAR), after the seven minute period detailed in paragraph (b) (i) has been completed, pilots should arrange descent as close as possible to the published descent planning profile. If no descent profile is published, pilots should arrange descent to be at the minimum published level at the appropriate designated Initial Approach fix.
On reaching the appropriate designated landing aid serving the destination aerodrome, begin further descent at the last acknowledged EAT. If no EAT has been acknowledged, the descent should be started at the ETA calculated in (e) (i), above, or as close as possible to this time. If necessary, remain within the holding pattern until the minimum holding level, published for the facility, has been reached. The rate of descent in holding patterns should not be less than 500 FT per minute. If ‘Delay not determined’ has been given, do not attempt to land at the destination aerodrome, divert to the alternate destination specified in the current flight plan or another suitable airfield.
Carry out the notified instrument approach procedure as specified for the designated navigational aid and, if possible, land within 30 minutes of the EAT or the calculated ETA. When practical, pilots should take account of visual landing aids and keep watch for instructions that may be issued by visual signals from the ground.
What are the R/T failure procedures for fixed wing VFR A/C?
VFR aircraft should select squawk 7600 as soon as R/T failure detected.
When outside CAS- the pilot shall route to either the Northern Zone Boundary or Hengistbury Head VRP, dependant on where they had been operating. Once there they may enter the CTR, direct to base leg of the duty runway, not above altitude 2000ft QNH. The pilot should maintain a good lookout for other A/C in the CTR and on the FAT. ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1. Once on base leg pilot is to look out for ALDI lamp signals from the VCR.
Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the A/C enters the CTR from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.
What are the R/T Failure Procedures for VFR Helis?
Helis should select code 7600
If operating outside CAS the heli should position to either the Northern Zone Boundary of Hengistbury Head VRP and the enter the CTR direct to the Northern/Southern airfield boundary not above alititude 2000ft VFR.
Pilots should maintain a good look out for other A/C operating within the CTR .
ATCOs will apply separation and TI as required in MATS pt 1.
If the helicopter is inbound from the North, they shall remain North of Runway 08/26 at all times,
and land on the grass between Taxiway Tango and Whiskey.
If the helicopter is based, they may then reposition to their company, maintaining a good lookout for other aircraft and vehicles moving around the taxiway network.
If they are not based, they should wait on the grass until assistance
arrives.
If the helicopter is inbound from the South, they shall remain South of Runway 08/26 at all times. On passing the airfield boundary, they should position onto the grass, West of Romeo.
Based Helicopters should look out for light signals from the VCR for approval to cross Runway 08/26 and land at their company.
If the helicopter is not based, they should wait for assistance.
It should be noted that helicopters inbound from the North will be given light signals from the VCR
but are unlikely to see them.
Controllers should be aware that if the weather conditions are marginal VMC or the helicopter enters the Control Zone from a different position, they may have another emergency and should initiate the Emergency Orders.
Which lights can be turned off for training?
Any may be individually deselected provided the runway edge lights remain on
For which A/C do the noise preferential routes apply?
Any turbine A/C and any with a MTOW of greater than 5700kgs
What routings shall A/C with a MTOW of less than 5700kgs take?
Climb S/A to 1DME or 700ft QNH (whichever is first)
What are the NPR routings for inbound A/C at night and between which hours does this apply?
2200-0630 local
Establish on final no closer than 8 DME and not below 2,500ft
Whom do we contact about potential diversion A/C?
The TDOM
When can a ready message be sent for an A/C with a CTOT?
From 15 minutes before the EOBT until the CTOT
When must a departure message be sent?
When a VFR a/c is departing from Bournemouth to a destination outside of UK Airspace
Whom do we inform about known, approved or non-approved flights of hot air balloons?
The forestery commission
What are your actions for when a captive balloon breaks free?
- The type of balloon and whether carrying any person
- Position of balloon site
- Direction and speed of drift
- Last observed height
- Length of cable attached to the balloon
- Balloon operators name and tel. No.
For a release of small balloons what is the number that would require CAA permission?
When they exceed 2,000 but are less than 10,000
also for the simulatenous release of 1,000 balloons.
In these situations you need to ensure that this permission has been granted for approving release
Whom do we inform of a diversion request?
The Terminal Duty Operations Manager (TDOM). They will inform us where the A/C will be parked after checking it can be accepted.
We should also inform the Operations Director regarding any commercial A/C which require to divert in
What weather warnings are passed on and to who?
RFFS- All warnings
Airport Refuellers- Thunderstorm
Snow co-ordinator and head of Ops- Snow and frost warnings
Procedure for Dudmoor Farm
Dudmoor Farm is a farm strip located 2.5nm south of the airfield. An Autogyro operates from here and the pilot has agreed to squawk 7377 and has Mode S. If he wishes to depart he must call ATC to bookout and request permission to get airborne, details are passed by the TWR ATSA to RDR ATSA who will then verbally pass any approval granted. The a/c must be airborne within 15 mins.
Operations are not permitted when Met Vis is below 1500m and/or the c.c. is below 600ft.
How many model flying clubs are there and how do we control them?
3
Matchams and North End House- require to call and request permission before lifting and on cessation.
Oldfield- Only need to inform us when they start/finish as theya re outside the FRZ.
What are the procedures for helicopters lifting from Bliss Aviation?
Bliss based helicopters will advise the ADC when they have started and request their departure
clearance. When the helicopter reports ready for departure, before issuing “Lift at your discretion” the ADC Controller or in co-ordination with GMC will: complete the following:
▪ A broadcast will be made to all vehicles that a helicopter is lifting or alighting from Bliss or
any other nearby destination.
▪ Any vehicles on point to point clearances must have reached their destination or cleared the
affected area.
▪ Any other aircraft movement will be co-ordinated or asked to give way as appropriate.
▪ The helicopter will be advised that vehicles are on NSOL, when that is the case.
▪ The helicopter will be asked to report landing complete before any other aircraft or point to
point vehicles are given clearance through the area.
▪ Despite being ready it can take a few minutes for the helicopter to lift when departing. If the controller feels this time is becoming excessive, r/t confirmation shall be sought from the pilot that the departure is still imminent.
▪ If Rivergate is flooded and vehicle free flow is in progress, this shall be stopped and
confirmation received from security to that effect before a helicopter movement is
authorised.
What are the procedures for helicopters landing at XLR?
Helicopters that need to land at the XLR facility are not allowed to route directly to the XLR apron.
Irrespective of the runway in use, they should alight on the runway 26 threshold, and then ground or
air-taxi to the parking area at Juliet, via taxiway November.
The same procedure should be used in reverse for departing helicopters.
This is all due to the proximity of the XLR apron to the 26 glidepath critical area, aircraft at holding
point November and the size of the apron.
What is the circuit height for Helicopters?
700ft QNH
Describe the EGHH FRZ
Standard ATZ and Runway Protection Zones (RPZ- the rectangles extending from the threshold to 5km that are 500m either side of centreline, from sfc to 2000ft AGL)
Describe procedures for FA 20 arrivals when VFR
VFR arrivals must conform to the agreed Noise Abatement Procedures and the Controller can safely facilitate their approach within the arrival sequence. At times when this is not possible, the Controller must consider vectoring the aircraft onto the ILS or for visual positioning onto final.
Controllers should note, where traffic information is being given, that the visibility from the FA20
cockpit is restricted, especially during the turn.
Runway 26 Operations
- VFR Join Left-hand
Aircraft will approach along the coast (feet wet) at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final
no closer than 4.1 DME. This is termed as a “Standard Noise Join”.
In the event that the pilot requests, or ATC require the aircraft to make a short approach
inside 4.1 DME, they will join directly onto Base or route along the coast, not below 1500ft
and turn inbound at HGS. This is termed as a “Standard HGS Join”.
The Standard HGS Join should only be used for safety or optimum sequencing purposes.
Permitting such an approach might have to be subsequently justified by the Controller. This
approach is permitted for singletons and formations, provided it can be applied to all aircraft in the formation.
- VFR Join Right-hand
Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 3 DME.
Runway 08 Operations
- VFR Join Right-hand
Aircraft will execute standard SBX join, not below 1500ft, descending onto Final no closer than 4 DME. In the event that they approach from the SE and elect to transit the coast, they will follow the “Standard Noise Join” as for Runway 26 - ie at 2000ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME. - VFR Join Left-hand
Aircraft will join Downwind or Base, not below 1500ft, descending on Base to join Final no closer than 4 DME.
What are the procedures regarding Draken ops when the NPAS heli is active?
Following a hazard analysis by Draken on the risk of FOD ingestion to their FA20s at holding point Mike due to the proximity of the NPAS HLS, the following procedure is to be used:
▪ Runway 26 Operations
Following the landing of an FA20 aircraft which is vacating at Mike:
If the Police helicopter has just started and has not yet called ready for departure, it is to be asked to hold on the ground and allow the FA20 to continue taxiing back to base. If the helicopter has called ready for immediate departure, the Controller will instruct the FA20 to hold just north of the holding point and wait for the helicopter to depart before continuing to taxi.
▪ Runway 08 Operations
FA20 aircraft taxiing for departure will hold short of the NPAS site if the helicopter has started and
has called ready for an immediate departure. FA20s will continue to the holding point after the helicopter has lifted and departed.
Due to the increased risk of potential FOD ingestion and in order to avoid an additional Runway crossing, FA20s should only be instructed to vacate left at holding point Alpha and taxi south side as a last resort.
What are the procedures for Draken Target Tows?
Draken aircraft may return to the airfield towing a target on short haul. The target is of fabric
construction and up to 5m long, with little or no towing wire showing. The pilots prefer not to overfly built-up areas on their approach. When requests are made to drop the target, normal circuit procedures will be followed, and no priorities are normally requested. Targets can be dropped accurately into an area 500 m by 100 m and there is minimum disruption to other aircraft.
The RFFS/AST shold be advised for the target collection. Targets will normally be dropped on the grass areas to the north side of Runway 26 and east of Taxiway Tango. Controllers must ensure that Holding Point Delta and Taxiway Delta is clear of aircraft and vehicles.
For what aircraft do Western Radar provide a service from EGHH?
For a/c on an air test and those inbound/outbound cruising at or requesting above FL100
State the objectives of and Air Traffic Controller
Objectives of ATS
- To prevent collisions between aircraft
- To prevent collisions between aircraft on the manoeuvring area and obstructions on that area
- To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of air traffic
- To provide information and advice useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight
- Notify appropriate organisations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue aid and to assist such organisations as required.
Aerodrome Controller
To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control in order to achieve and safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic with the objective of;
- Preventing collisions between;
Aircraft flying in and in the vicinity of the ATZ
Aircraft landing and taking off from the aerodrome
Aircraft, vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area - Assisting in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the apron
An Aerodrome control unit provides which services?
A basic service
An aerodrome control service
Alerting service
What is Essential Aerodrome Information?
Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be issued to pilots in sufficient time to ensure the safe operation of aircraft. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during take-off or landing runs.
What would constitute Essential Aerodrome Information?
Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area
Rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not
failure of irregular functioning of Aerodrome lighting system. Defects must be passed to pilots in the form that they have been reported to the controller. Controllers should not make assumptions that a particular defect renders an associated aid unserviceable or not available. Pilot is responsible for deciding his course of action.
Aircraft Parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines
Failure or irregular operation of Approach aids
Water, snow, ice or frost on a runway, a taxiway or apron
In snow or ice conditions, information concerning Anti-icing, or de-icing liquid chemicals or other containments or sweeping and/or sanding of runways, taxiways and aprons.
Information on the location and operational status of any Arrester gear.
Bird formations or individual large birds on the manoeuvring area or in the vicinity of the aerodrome and the extent of any bird dispersal action being carried out. When flocks of birds or single large ones are seen, the aerodrome operator or bird control unit must be informed.
What are the conditions for a multiple line-up?
1)it is during daylight hours; 2)all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller; 3)all aircraft are on the same RTF frequency; 4)pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence, and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart; 5)the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway.
What are the conditions for a land after?
1) the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected; (2) it is during daylight hours; (3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway; (4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has vacated the runway; and (5) the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.
What are the conditions for land afer the departing?
Subject A/C is not larger than a PA34 and;
-Locally based A/C
-Not a solo student
-The departing A/C must have passed at least 1/3 along the runway at the time the clearance is given, determined by
Rwy 26- Abeam Txy D
Rwy 08- Abeam the VDF installation
What must a flight do if an anti-collision light fails during the day?
Nothing, he may continue provided that the light is repaired at earliest opportunity.
When may standard separtation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?
Also in the vicinity of an aerodrome as per ICAO, when:
- ADC continuously sees all the aircraft, and can provide adequate separation
- Aircraft see each other and agree to maintain separation (– good in circuit at night if IFR.)
- Following aircraft sees the one in front and agrees to maintain separation.
Name the types of flights that are afforded Cat A flight priority status.
Aircraft in emergency
Aircraft which have declared a police emergency
Ambulance/medical aircraft where the safety of life is involved.
Name the types of flights afforded Cat B flight priority status.
Police flights under normal operational priority
Aircraft engaged in search and rescue ops
Other flights approved by the CAA including open skies observation flights
Name the types of flights afforded Cat C flight priority status
Royal flights and flights carrying visiting heads of states which have been notified by NOTAM/temp supplement
Name the types of flights afforded Class D flight priority status.
Flights carrying the;
1) Prime Minister
2) Chancellor of the Exchequer
3) Home secretary
4) Secretary of State for Foreign, Commonwealth and Development Affairs
Flights carrying visiting Heads of Gov. notified by the CAA
Name the types of flights afforded Class E flight priority status.
Flight check engaged in or en route to time or weather critical tasks
HEMS/SAR flights positioning for the purposes of their duties
Other flights authorised by the CAA
Name the types of flights afforded Normal flight priority status.
Flight planned aircraft following the standard routing procedures Initial instrument flight tests
What flight category are training and non standard flights?
Class Z
What are the different flight categories relevant to police flights?
Cat A- Police emergency, call sign will be suffixed with A
Cat B- Normal operational priority
Cat Z- Authorised for training tests etc
What is a HEMS flight and what flight category can it operate under?
Helicopter Emergency Medical Services flight, these operate to incidents where the safety of life is involved.
They can operate as;
Cat A flights when on emergency operational tasks
Cat E when positioning for its duties
Cat Z when training, testing etc.
What is the call sign for a Helimed flight?
HLE- “Helimed” Suffixed by A or E when operating under either of these categories of priority. If no suffix than aircraft is performing routine tasks.
Describe in detail, low approach restrictions and their uses
- If the runway in use is occupied by aircraft or vehicles, an approaching aircraft that has requested a low approach or a touch and go, may be cleared to carry out a low approach restricted to a height not below 400 feet above the threshold elevation. In such circumstances, the pilot is to be informed of the aircraft or vehicles on the runway. Additionally, the aircraft or vehicle on the runway is to be informed of the aircraft carrying out the low approach.
- For aircraft operating on the aerodrome QNH, the low approach altitude restriction is to be based on 400ft plus threshold elevation, rounded up to the nearest 50ft (450ft at Cambridge)
- The runway in use shall be kept clear of aircraft and vehicles if an approaching aircraft is likely to descend below 400 feet above the threshold elevation.
What is the definition of windshear?
A sustained change in wind velocity along an aircraft’s flight path which occurs significantly faster than an aircraft can accelerate or deccelerate.
Give an example of the phraseology that will be used to pass on reports of windshear
“G-CD, at 0745 a departing B757 reported windshear at 800 feet. Airspeed loss
20 knots, strong right drift”
When wind shear is forecast or is reported by aircraft, ATC will warn other aircraft until such time as aircraft report the phenomenon no longer exists.
What is the definition of a runway incursion?
A runway incursion is any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle or person on the protected area of a surface designated for aircraft take-off and landing. The protected area of a surface for aircraft take-off and landing is determined by the existence and location of the runway strip, clear and graded area, obstacle free zone and ILS sensitive areas.
What is the definition of a full emergency?
When it is known that an aircraft in the air is, or is suspected to be, in such difficulties that there is a danger of an accident.
What is the definition of an Aircraft Accident/ Aircraft Accident Imminent?
Aircraft accidents, which have occurred or are inevitable on, or in the vicinity of, the aerodrome.
Who’s responsibility is it to stand-down emergency services during an aircraft accident?
The SAFO who shall advise ATC as soon a possible
What is the published RFFS crash category? If you had any doubts, how would you find out?
A7
A8 under remission
A9 with 24hrs notice
By calling the fire station
Why do we have the generators turned on when RVR is <600m
Due to the requirement to have a change over to an alternate power source of less than 1 second, as the generator takes longer to switch on than this then the only viable option is to have the generator as the primary source of power with the mains acting as the alternate
What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft not rolling?
“C/S, hold position, cancel take-off, I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge”
What is the phraseology for cancelling the take-off of an aircraft already rolling?
“C/S, stop immediately, I say again, C/S stop immediately acknowledge”
Can an aircraft cross a red stop bar?
If so how can you achieve this?
Yes, in exceptional circumstances where the inoperable stop-bar cannot be taken out of service and cannot be suppressed.
With this phraseology;
“G-AC, Stop bar unserviceable, cross red stop bar….(then the rest of your instructions)”
in addition-
The a/c or vehicle must be visible to the ATCO
The R/T Phraseology leaves no doubt in the pilot or drivers mind that they may cross a red stop-bar
No conditional clearances allowed.
How many hours does an ATCO have to file an MOR?
72 hours
What is the difference between a precision and a non-precision approach?
A precision approach includes vertical profile whereas a non-precision does not
Can an aircraft depart an aerodrome after the failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?
Yes but only during the day, at night it cannot.
What should a controller consider if an aircraft in flight has a failure of a light required to be displayed by the ANO?
At night if the aircraft is in flight the aircraft shall land as soon as it can safely do so, unless authorised by ATC to continue its flight. Controllers should take the following into consideration before authorising the flight:
(1) Normally permission should only be granted if flight is to be continued wholly within UK controlled airspace classes A-D. Flight outside the UK under these conditions may not be authorised unless permission to continue has been obtained from the adjacent controlling authority;
(2) If the pilot’s intention is to fly outside controlled airspace or within Class E airspace, he should be instructed to land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Selection of this aerodrome is the responsibility of the pilot although he may request information to assist him in making his decision. Under certain circumstances the pilot may decide that the nearest suitable aerodrome is his original destination.
What are the objectives of aerodrome control?
To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and efficient flow of air traffic with the objective of;
- Preventing collisions between:
a) Aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ
b) Aircraft taking off or landing
c) Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area - Assist in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the aprons
What are the additional specific responsibilities of aerodrome control?
- Notifying Emergency services as per local instructions
- Informing Aircraft under its control of any depletion of the aerodrome Emergency services
- Providing an Approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control
- Supplying the following Information to approach control and, according to unit instructions, approach radar control;
a) Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR, and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft
b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information - Informing aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a Deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible
- Initiating Overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established.
ODE EAI
What reporting action do you take for various incidents?
What reporting action do you take for various incidents?
What do you do after you’ve given the first RVR reading to a pilot on approach the pilot says ‘Roger no further RVR reports’?
Continue to transmit RVR readings if there is a significant change in those readings.
When do we have to perform runway inspections?
- At least one a day
- Before any night flying takes place
- At cessation of work on the manoeuvring area
- When a runway not previously in use is brought into use
- Following an aircraft accident
- Following an abandoned take-off by a turbine engined aircraft due to engine malfunction, or by an aircraft due to burst tyres
- During snow and ice conditions as frequently as conditions warrant
- When considered necessary by ATC
- The aerodrome operator details in local instructions;
-Prior to and following arrival/dep of 4 engined code E A/C
-When a period of 30 mins or more has elapsed since the
last runway movement
What does dry mean in terms of runway contamination?
The runway surface is considered dry if it is free of visible moisture and not contaminated within the area intended to be used
What does wet mean in terms of runway contamination?
The runway is covered by an visible dampness or water up to and including 3mm depth witthin the intended area of use.
What does slippery wet mean in terms of runway contamination?
A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant portion of the runway have been determined to be degraded
What does standing water mean in terms of runway contamination?
water of depth greater than 3mm
Define slush
Snow that is so water saturated that water will drain from it when picked up or will splatter if stepped on forcefully
What are the basic uses of the ATM?
- To determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving A/C
- To assist in the provision of longitudinal Sep
- To provide tx info to A/C on other A/C in the cct or making an instrument approach
- To confirm that the intitial outbound track of a departing A/C conforms with the clearance issued
What are the advanced uses of the ATM?
Subject to the controller having been trained;
- Following identification, validate SSR codes of departing A/C and verify Mode C read-outs
- monitor the progress of overflying A/C identified by APS to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing A/C
- establish separation between departing A/C
- pass Traffic Info
- establish separation in the event of a missed approach
- Assist in taking initial corrective action when the separation between arriving A/C becomes less than the prescribed minima.
What runways are available at Bournemouth and what are their dimensions?
Rwy 08/26 2272m x 46m according to the AIP
Where is the RVP for external emergency vehicles?
Dont know and can’t find it
Following an aircraft accident, describe the procedures to be followed for removing a crashed aircraft from a runway
Removal of crashed aircraft is the responsibility of the Aerodrome Operator and the aircraft owner or operator. In the case of a reportable accident the permission of the AAIB is required before removal action can be commenced.
Emergency Removal
If it is apparent that continued obstruction of a runway, or interference with an approach aid, by a crashed aircraft might further endanger life, e.g. other arriving aircraft having insufficient fuel for diversion, the senior controller should ensure that the emergency situation is fully understood by the Aerodrome Operator. Under normal circumstances the AAIB may be contacted at any time without undue delay. Exceptionally, if there are communication difficulties, the Aerodrome Operator may wish to take action in accordance with the Civil Aviation (Investigation of Accidents) Regulations 1996, which provide that an aircraft may be removed or interfered with so far as may be necessary for the purpose of preventing any danger or obstruction to the public or to air navigation.
What are the approved intermediate departure points?
M and E
What is the minimum horizontal separation to be applied between A/C?
3NM, this must be increased to 5NM if the A/C are not on the same frequency
What horizontal separation is to be applied between A/C operating inside CAS and unknown traffic believed to be infringing the CTR?
5NM
Describe the deemed separations for EGHH Traffic against EGHI traffic
Traffic holding at the BIA up to FL60 are separated from EGHI arriving and holding traffic
SVFR flights within EGHH CTR are separated against SVFR flights within EGHI CTR
When do we issue SVFR clearances?
When the Met Visibility is below 5000m and or the C.C is below 1500ft
What separation standards apply to SVFR A/C?
The standard one that would exist for IFR A/C. Use of Reduced Sep visually is not permissible as contact between the A/C may be lost before the CTR boundary.
Where must SVFR A/C route from/to when leaving/entering the CTR?
The VRPs unless there is no other traffic to affect.
What are the weather minima below which you can no longer issue SVFR clearances?
Met vis less than 1,500m and/or C.C less than 600ft for fixed wing A/C
Met vis less than 800m and/or C.C less than 600ft for Helicopters
What A/C are exempt from SVFR minima?
Police
Helimed
Rescue
Pipeline
Powerline
Rail track inspections
Tail wind for runway is now 10kts, what effect does this have on operations?
Jet A/C and those with a MTOW in excess of 5700kgs can no longer use this runway.
How do you change the runway?
You must follow the runway change checklist and log the time of the change on the left hand page of the logbook
Can we do opposite direction ILS approaches?
no
What are the restrictions for the issuance of conditional clearances?
Conditional clearances shall not be used for movements affecting the active runway except when the aircraft or vehicles concerned can be seen by both controller and
pilot or driver.
Conditional clearances are to relate to one movement only and, in the case of landing traffic, this must be the first aircraft on approach.
Not to be used when inoperable stop bars are being crossed
Not to be issued to student pilots or first solo flights
What are the conditions for crossing a red stop bar that cannot be surpressed and no other option is available?
Minimum conditions:
(1) The affected runway or intermediate holding position and the aircraft are visible to the controller.
(2) The phraseology used is to leave the pilot or driver in no doubt that the crossing instruction only applies to the particular inoperable stop bar.
(3)Conditional clearances shall not be used under these circumstances.
What are the dimensions of the ILS critical areas for Rwy 26?
Loc- 120m wide area symmetrically dispersed about runway centreline and extending from 30m behind the array to the near end of the runway
GP- Rectangle extending in width from near edge of the runway to a parallel line 53m beyond the GP aerial and extending a distance of 304m in front of the aerial.
What are the dimensions of the ILS critical areas for Rwy 08?
Loc- 120m wide area symmetrically dispersed about runway centreline and extending from 30m behind the array to the near end of the runway
GP- Rectangle extending in width from near edge of the runway to a parallel line 53.34m beyond the GP aerial and extending a distance of 326.7m in front of the aerial.
What are the restrictions for crossing A/C vehicles through the ILS critical areas?
Rwy 26-
No A/C or vehicle (regardless of size) to cross the area once APS have passed the established check or the A/C is observed to have establised on a 10NM final
This means no crossing from N to G, G to N, E to G, G to E, No exit or entry from J, no A/C to enter/vacate from N, J or E
Rwy 08-
No A/C or vehicle (regardless of size) to cross the area once APS have passed the established check or the A/C is observed to have establised on a 10NM final. So no entering/vacating or crossing to or from HP A
What conditions apply to use of runways by Code E A/C?
Whenever a 4 engined Code E aircraft is to use the runway a comprehensive runway inspection must be carried out prior to and after their arrival/departure with emphasis on the edges.
The post flight inspection must be completed before any further A/C movements are permitted on the runway.
What code is a A320?
C
What code is a B738?
C
What are the wake turbulence separations for arriving aircraft when using a displaced threshold?
Arr L/S/M behind a H dep= 2mins
Arr L behind M/S dep= 2mins
Arr H behind J dep= 2mins
Arr L/S/M behind J dep= 3 mins
or
Dep L/S/M behind a H arr= 2mins
Dep L behind a S/M arr= 2mins
Dep H behind a J arr= 2mins
Dep L/S/M behind J arr= 3mins
If projected flight paths are expected to cross.
