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EGHH > MATS 1 sect 2 > Flashcards

MATS 1 sect 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What services does an Aerodrome control unit provide?

A
  1. Aerodrome Control Service
  2. Basic Service
  3. Alerting Service
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2
Q

What are the objectives of aerodrome control?

A

To provide information and instructions to aircraft under its control to achieve a safe, orderly and efficient flow of air traffic with the objective of;

  1. Preventing collisions between:
    a) Aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ
    b) Aircraft taking off or landing
    c) Aircraft and vehicles, obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area
  2. Assist in the prevention of collisions between aircraft on the aprons
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3
Q

What are the additional specific responsibilities of aerodrome control?

A
  1. Notifying Emergency services as per local instructions
  2. Informing Aircraft under its control of any depletion of the aerodrome emergency services
  3. Providing an approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control
  4. Supplying the following information to approach control and, according to unit instructions, approach radar control;
    a) Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR, and VFR traffic including departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft
    b) Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information
  5. Informing aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there is a deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible
  6. Initiating overdue action at aerodromes where no approach control unit is established.
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4
Q

What do Aerodrome control co-ordinate with Approach?

A
  1. Departing IFR flights
  2. Arriving aircraft making their first call on tower frequency (unless they are transferred to Approach control)
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5
Q

What shall approach control coordinate with Aerodrome?

A
  1. aircraft approaching to land; if necessary requesting landing clearance
  2. arriving aircraft which are to be cleared to visual holding points
  3. aircraft routing through the traffic circuit
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6
Q

What do aerodrome control need to co-ordinate with adjacent aerodromes?

A

The direction of circuits to ensure that they do not conflict.

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7
Q

When shall Aerodrome control transfer control of aircraft to approach?

A
  1. In VMC, prior to the aircraft leaving the vicinity of the aerodrome, or prior to the aircraft entering IMC
  2. In IMC, immediately after the aircraft is airborne.
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8
Q

What do we ask of pilots when ground visibility reduces below 5km and/or the cloud ceiling falls below 1500ft in Class D airspace?

A

We advise the pilots of this and request them to specify what type of clearance they require

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9
Q

What do we advise pilots of regarding LVPs?

A

The implementation and cancellation of them

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10
Q

When do we pass traffic information to aircraft?

A

Traffic information and instructions shall be passed to aircraft on any occasion that a controller considers it necessary in the interests of safety, or when requested by a pilot.

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11
Q

What is Essential Aerodrome Information?

A

Information concerning the state of the manoeuvring area and its associated facilities that may constitute a hazard to a particular aircraft. It shall be issued to pilots in sufficient time to ensure the safe operation of aircraft. This may include the provision of urgent information to pilots during take-off or landing runs.

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12
Q

What would constitute Essential Aerodrome Information?

A
  1. Construction work or maintenance on the manoeuvring area
  2. Rough portions of the manoeuvring area and whether marked or not
  3. failure of irregular functioning of Aerodrome lighting system. Pilot is responsible for deciding whether this affects his flight
  4. Failure or irregular operation of approach aids
  5. Aircraft parked close to the runways or taxiways and aircraft engaged in ground running of engines
  6. depth of snow layers on runways and taxiways, snow piled or drifted on the manoeuvring area, melting now and slush, rutted ice and snow.
  7. In snow or ice conditions, information concerning sweeping and/or sanding of runways and taxiways
  8. Reports on the estimated braking action
  9. Bird formations or individual large birds on the manoeuvring area or in the vicinity of the aerodrome. Also bird dispersal action taking place
  10. Warnings on presence of water on runways
  11. Information on the location and operational status of any arrester gear.
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13
Q

What is the order of priority on the manoeuvring area?

A

Aircraft taking off/ landing

Aircraft taxiing

Aircraft under tow

Vehicles (Except emergency vehicles in an emergency situation)

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14
Q

What do you need to consider regarding jet blast and propeller slipstream?

A

The hazard it may cause to aircraft behind

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15
Q

When and for what can an SMR be used for at an Aerodrome?

A

During periods of darkness or low visibility,

May be used to;

  1. Monitor the movements of aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring area
  2. To provide advice and assistance for the safe and efficient movement of aircraft and vehicles on the manouevring area, including the following;
    a) To ensure aircraft are lined up on the correct runway
    b) Determining that a runway is clear of aircraft and vehicles
    c) To ascertain that aircraft have commenced a take-off run
    d) To monitor the positions of traffic in order to facilitate switching of taxiway lighting
    e) To monitor and assists emergency vehicles when required.
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16
Q

What are the methods of identification using an SMR?

A
  1. By correlating the position of a visually observed aircraft/vehicles to that displayed on the SMR
  2. By correlating an identified SMR position from another ATS surveillance system
  3. By correlating an SMR position complying with an ATC instruction for a specified manoeuvre
  4. By correlating a displayed SMR position to an aircraft/vehicle as reported by radio
  5. By correlating a displayed SMR position to an aircraft/vehicle position, eg. Entering a runway or taxiway, holding position or any position marked on the situation display.
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17
Q

What information is passed to an aircraft requesting taxi/start-up clearance?

A
  1. Runway in use
  2. Surface wind direction and speed, including significant variations
  3. Aerodrome QNH
  4. Outside Air temperature
  5. Significant met conditions eg RVR or temp inversions
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18
Q

What are the conditions for allowing multiple aircraft to line up on the same runway?

A
  1. It is during daylight hours
  2. All aircraft are continuously visible to the controller
  3. All aircraft are on the same RTF frequency
  4. Pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart
  5. The physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway.
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19
Q

What do you need before an IFR flight can be cleared to depart?

A
  1. His departure clearance
  2. Authorisation from approach for the departure (ie release)
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20
Q

What would you expect an aircraft cleared for an immediate take-off to do?

A

Taxi onto the runway and begin his take-off roll in one smooth motion

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21
Q

What is the UK phraseology for cancelling an aircraft’s take-off when it hasn’t yet commenced its take-off run?

A

GABCD, Hold position, cancel take-off I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge

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22
Q

What is the phraseology for stopping an aircraft take-off when it has already begun its take-off run?

A

VIR798 stop immediately, i say again VIR798 stop immediately, acknowledge

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23
Q

What are the mandatory position reports in the circuit?

A

Downwind (abeam the upwind end of the circuit)

Final

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24
Q

What level does a standard overhead join begin at?

A

2000ft above aerodrome elevation

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25
Q

Describe a standard overhead join

A
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26
Q

When can an aircraft be cleared to depart?

A

When preceding departing aircraft are airborne or landing aircraft have vacated the runway

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27
Q

When can an aircraft be permitted to land?

A

When a preceding departing aircraft is airborne or a landing aircraft has vacated (if not using a land-after)

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28
Q

What are the conditions for a land after?

A
  1. The runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft and there is no evidence to indicate that braking action may be adversely affected
  2. It is daytime
  3. The preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate the runway
  4. The controller is satisfied that the second aircraft will be able to maintain continuous visual with the first aircraft until that one has vacated.
  5. The pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.
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29
Q

What can an ATM be used for?

A
  1. Determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft
  2. Assist in providing longitudinal separation for departing aircraft
  3. Enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued
  4. provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach
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30
Q

What are the additional uses of the ATM when approved by the CAA?

A
  1. Following identification, validate SSR codes of departing aircraft and verify associated Mode C read-outs;
  2. Monitor the progress of overflying aircraft identified by approach radar control to ensure that they do not conflict with the tracks of arriving or departing aircraft
  3. establish separation between departing aircraft
  4. pass traffic information
  5. establish separation in the event of a missed approach
  6. assist in taking initial corrective action when the separation between arriving aircraft becomes less than the prescribed minima

this is all providing the ATCO is;

  • trained to do so
  • providing only an Air service
  • and this is approved in MATS 2
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31
Q

What is the level restriction for an aircraft conducting a low approach when the runway is occupied?

A

Not below 400ft QFE

Not below 400ft+ threshold elevation rounded up to the nearest 50ft QNH

Aircraft shall also be informed about one another.

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32
Q

Who do we inform regarding runway changes?

A

Should a change of runway be necessary Aerodrome Control, after consultation with Approach Control, shall inform the following:

(1) Aircraft under his control;
(2) Aerodrome Fire Service;
(3) Contractors working on the aerodrome who will be affected by the change;
(4) Other agencies according to local instructions.

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33
Q

How long after ATD are you supposed to leave the aerodrome open?

A

15 minutes after ATD to allow for aircraft having to return

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34
Q

When must the runway lighting be on?

A

By day= High intensity lighting must be used when Vis is less than 5000m and or cloud base is less than 700ft

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35
Q

What happens in the event of a laser attack on a pilot?

A
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36
Q

What should you do if subjected to a malicious laser attack?

A
  1. Look away from beam
  2. Shield eyes and consider using sun blinds
  3. Advise aircraft that your are subject to laser attack
  4. Avoid rubbing eyes
  5. Consider increasing ambient light levels to minimise effects
  6. Consider handing over to a colleague
  7. Inform a supervisor who can then inform aerodrome operator and police
  8. Record event in the ATC watch log.
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37
Q

What is wind shear?

A

A sustained change in wind velocity along the aircraft flight path, which occurs significantly faster than the aircraft can accelerate or decelerate

Can occur at any level

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38
Q

Why is wind shear on approach especially dangerous?

A

Because the aircraft is in a critical phase of flight close to the ground where there is not much room for error

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39
Q

What conditions would you expect to bring wind shear?

A
  1. The presence of frontal/squall/thunderstorm activity in the vicinity of the aerodrome
  2. The presence of low level inversions where the surface wind will be significantly different from that at only a few hundred feet above the ground
  3. Local terrain or buildings considered in relation to wind speed and direction; such large obstructions can cause wind shear as well as the more usual turbulence and gusts
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40
Q

What do we do on receipt of a report of windshear?

A

Relay the information to subsequent outbound and inbound flights until confirmation is received that the windshear no longer exists

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41
Q

What should a windshear report from a pilot include?

A
  1. A warning of the presence of windshear
  2. The height or height band where it was encountered
  3. The time at which it was encountered
  4. Details of the effect on the aircraft, eg speed loss/gain, vertical speed tendencies, change in drift
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42
Q

When is the minimum visibility reported?

A

When there is a reported vis in any direction that is below 1500m or less than 50% of the prevailing visibility.

If there is more than one minimum vis than only report the most operationally significant.

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43
Q

When do we have to perform runway inspections?

A
  1. At least one a day
  2. Before any night flying takes place
  3. At cessation of work on the manoeuvring area
  4. When a runway not previously in use is brought into use
  5. Following an aircraft accident
  6. Following an abandoned take-off by a turbine engined aircraft due to engine malfunction, or by an aircraft due to burst tyres
  7. During snow and ice conditions as frequently as conditions warrant
  8. When considered necessary by ATC
  9. The aerodrome operator details in local instructions
44
Q

What do green flashes from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?

A

Permission to cross the landing area or to move onto the taxiway

45
Q

What does a steady red from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?

A

Stop

46
Q

What do red flashes from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?

A

Move off the landing area or taxiway and watch out for aircraft

47
Q

What do white flashes from an Aldis lamp from the tower mean?

A

Vacate the manoeuvring area in accordance with local instructions/ return to starting point.

48
Q

When do we pass the instant wind?

A

When the pilot requests it.

49
Q

In what increments is RVR reported?

A

25m up to 400m

50m between 400-800m

100m above 800m

50
Q

What is the minimum RVR reportable?

A

50m

51
Q

What is the maximum RVR reportable?

A

2000m

52
Q

When are IRVR values passed?

A

At the beginning of each approach to land, changes must be passed until a/c lands

And must be passed before take-off

53
Q

How would you transmit the RVR?

A

“RVR runway 26, 650-500-550 metres”

If there are only 2 they have to be identified individually;

“RVR runway 26, touchdown 650, stop end 550 metres”

54
Q

Can you provide RVR is two transmissometeres are U/S?

A

Yes provided the remaining one is not the stop-end otherwise it would be U/S (in this case you would just change runways making the stop-end the touchdown)

55
Q

Can a controller pass information that suggests that the RVR is better than that reported?

A

No

56
Q

Can a controller pass information suggesting that the RVR is worse than that being reported?

A

yes

57
Q

Name some runway contaminants

A
  • Water
  • Ice
  • Snow
  • Slush
58
Q

What does dry mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

The runway surface is considered dry if it is free of visible moisture and not contaminated within the area intended to be used

59
Q

What does wet mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

The runway is covered by an visible dampness or water up to and including 3mm depth witthin the intended area of use.

60
Q

What does slippery wet mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

A wet runway where the surface friction characteristics of a significant portion of the runway have been determined to be degraded

61
Q

What does standing water mean in terms of runway contamination?

A

water of depth greater than 3mm

62
Q

When can you pass unofficial information regarding changes in the runway state?

A

only when conditions get worse,

never do report them as better than they are.

63
Q

What is the phraseology for the passing of unofficial reports of runway state?

A

Unofficial observation from the control tower/pilots report. The runway surface condition appears to be damp. We now use one single term for the entire runway

64
Q

What effects can water have on aircraft operations?

A
  • Additional drag
  • Possibility of power loss or system malfunction due to spray impingement
  • Reduced wheel-braking performance
  • Directional Control problems
  • Possibility of structural damage.
65
Q

What changes to runway contaminents are condsidered significant?

A
  • Any change in surface deposit eg snow to slush, or water to ice
  • Changes in depth greater than;
    20mm for dry snow
    10mm for wet snow
    3mm for slush
  • Any change in available length or width of runways of 10% or more
  • Any change which requires reclassification in item F of a Snowtam
  • Any change in the distances apart of snow banks.
66
Q

When must measurements of runway contaminent be commenced?

A

As soon as the presence of snow, slush, ice and associated standing water is detected or observed and is expected to be operationally significant.

67
Q

How frequent are runway measurements of contaminents?

A

Whenever it appears that there is a significant change in conditions.

68
Q

How is braking action assessed?

A

With a MU meter

69
Q

How is braking action reported?

A
  • Snowtam- values for each third of the runway
  • METAR- one mean value for the whole length.
70
Q

What braking action does 95 represent?

A

Good

71
Q

What braking action does 94 represent?

A

Medium/good

72
Q

What braking action does 93 represent?

A

Medium

73
Q

What braking action does 92 represent?

A

medium/poor

74
Q

What braking action does 91 represent?

A

Poor

75
Q

What braking action does 99 represent?

A

Reading is unreliable

76
Q

How would braking action be transmitted over the radio?

A

Runway 26 braking action good, medium, poor

77
Q

How is the depth of contaminent measured?

A

With a depth guage eitherside of the runway centreline where the a/c’s wheels will actually contact the runway

78
Q

How are runway surface conditions disseminated?

A

By SNOWTAM over the AFTN which will contain an 8 figure code group

79
Q

What is included in a SNOWTAM?

A
  • Runway cleared length/width
  • Runway contamination including depth
  • Runway braking action (thirds)
  • Snow banks
  • Runway lighting situation
  • Taxiway and apron situation
  • Further planned clearance of the runway
  • Next obs
80
Q

What is the maxiumum validity period for a SNOWTAM?

A

24hrs

81
Q

When do we issue a new SNOWTAM?

A

Whenever a significant change occurs

82
Q

How is contamination disseminated in a METAR?

A

As an 8 figure opmet code

  1. & 2. is Runway designator, 3= Runway deposits, 4 runway contamination as a %, 5 and 6 depth of deposit, 7 & 8 braking action
83
Q

How will snowbanks be notified?

A

In a SNOWTAM

84
Q

Who is responsible for creating and implementing a snow plan?

A

The aerodrome operator.

85
Q

Define dry snow

A

Snow which can be blown losoe or, if compacted by hand, will fall apart again

86
Q

Define wet snow

A

Snow which if compacted by hand will stick together in a snowball

87
Q

Define compacted snow

A

Snow compresses into solid mass resists further compression, either holds together or breaks up if picked up

88
Q

Define slush

A

Snow that is so water saturated that water will drain from it when picked up or will splatter if stepped on forcefully

89
Q

When can you use a conditional clearance?

A

When both aircraft are visual to you and the pilot of the aircraft to which you will be providing the clearance. The clearance must be subject to the first aircraft in the landing sequence.

90
Q

What is a visual approach?

A

An approach conducting by an aircraft with visual reference to the surface in VMC. IFR conducting a visual approach remain IFR even though they are conducting a visual manoeuvre.

91
Q

What should you do if there is an obstacle in the clear and graded area?

A

With-hold clearances for aircraft to use that runway until the obstacle has been removed, and if Aerodrome operator not already aware let them know.

92
Q

Who is responsible for decisions regarding the operational status of the aerodrome including the apron and manoeuvring area?

A

Aerodrome Operator

This includes

  1. Routine operational limits, eg runway maintenance
  2. Unforeseen hazards to aircraft ops eg obstructions and deteriorating surface conditions
  3. The closure and re-opening of the aerodrome
  4. The withdrawal of runways, taxiways and associated lighting
  5. the revision of declared distances
  6. any markings in connection with the above
  7. Initiating NOTAM action to promulgate changes in serviceability.
93
Q

What is the aerodrome operator responsible for in regards to restricted operations?

A

They are responsible for decisions regarding the operational status of the aerodrome including;

1) Routine operational limitations, eg runway maintenance

2) unforeseen hazards to aircraft operations, e.g. deteriorating surface conditions, obstructions etc. Specifically, the Aerodrome Operator will make decisions regarding:
(a) the closure or re-opening of the aerodrome;
(b) the withdrawal or return to use of runways, taxiways and associated lighting aids;
(c) the revision of declared distances;
(d) any marking required in connection with the above;
(e) initiating NOTAM action to promulgate changes in serviceability.

94
Q

What is the cut off point for cancelling take-off clearances?

A

80kts or V1

approx 300m down the runway

95
Q

What are the dimensions of the Runway Protection Zones with regards to SUA’s?

A

A circle established on the aerodrome centre point that has a radius of 5000m up to a height of 2000ft, in addition that are rectangles starting at the runway thresholds that extend outwards along the approach path for 5km which are 1km wide and 2000ft AGL.

96
Q

How will details regarding runway surface conditions during snow and ice conditions be promulgated?

A
98
Q

How would you report runway surface conditions during periods of snow or Ice to the pilot?

A

METAR; Runway surface conditions are reported in the runway state group as an eight digit code at the end of the METAR every half hour for as long as conditions warrant. The runway state group contains information on the runway designator; type; extent and depth of deposit and where appropriate, braking action. See GEN 3.5.10.

RTF; RTF reports to pilots provide an assessment in plain language of the available runway length, including a description of the prevailing conditions ie. ice, snow or slush, and where appropriate braking action, together with the time of the measurement.

99
Q

Where can you find information on the UK’s snow plan?

A

UK AIP AD 1.2

RESCUE AND FIRE FIGHTING SERVICES AND SNOW PLAN

100
Q

SI 2021/02 Movement Area Surface reporting

A

GRF SI for MATS 1

  • Adoption of more standardised reporting format to help pilots
  • Runway Condition Report compiled through a Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) which creates the runway condition code like those that go on the ATIS.
  • We pass the The Runway Condition Code, runway surface conditions and runway surface descriptors over the RTF.
  • Reporting Surface Conditions now only has Dry, Wet, Slippery Wet and Contiminated (which leads to a Runway Surface Descriptor instead, you don’t report “contiminated”).
  • Runway Surface Descriptors; Compacted Snow (as before), Dry Snow, Frost, Ice, Slush, Standing Water, Wet Ice (Water on top of ice) and Wet Snow
  • RCAM uses the Matrix and the conditions/descriptors to generate the Runway Condition Codes
  • Hard runways still reported in thirds
  • Grass runways are reported with one code and descriptor for whole length.
  • Unofficial Observations, one condition for entire runway.
101
Q

Over the RT how would you report the runway surface conditions for a grass runway?

A

Using one term to describe the whole runway

102
Q

Lasers, searchlights and fireworks

A

-specific guidelines apply to light displays within 500m either side of an airports centreline within 10nm of the ARP -Within 3NM of the ARP but not on the extended centreline the same guidelines apply but with the addition that any light should not stray towards the aerodrome or the extended centreline. -in both cases information should be passed to affected aircraft -Guidelines have also been laid out for fireworks displays which should be limited to 1500ft all and should not take place within 500m either side of the extended runway centreline within 10nm of an ARP or within 3NM radius of an ARP. There are guidelines for if the displays Requires to be within these distances.

103
Q

Global action plan on the prevention of Runway Excursions

A

2 recommendations were made

1)Avoid a runway change, as far as practical, to a/c on approach or taxiing for departure because of the additional cockpit workload and the associated risks this can generate. As part of this, pilots departing or arriving with a tailwind are to be informed of the tailwind component or provided with a caution as to the existence of a tailwind.

Phraseology:
“Callsign, tailwind (xx) knots, report your intentions?”
“Callsign, caution tailwind, report your intentions?”

2)Notify pilots as early as practical when a runway change is anticipated.

104
Q

What is the maximum period an a/c can operate without serviceable TCAS?

A

10 days

105
Q

Which a/c cannot be given an immediate take-off?

A

Heavy and Super

106
Q

When does ATC need to be informed of the release of carrier pigeons?

A

When it occurs within 13km of the aerodrome.

Releases must be notified by telephone at least 30 mins before release

EGHH (9 decks)

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