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Study > Master Question File ODD YEAR - Revision 5 Updated 9.20.23 > Flashcards

Master Question File ODD YEAR - Revision 5 Updated 9.20.23 Flashcards

1
Q

What happens when a pilot presses and holds the MECH pb on the CALLS panel?

A

It illuminates a blue light on the EXT PWR PANEL and sounds an external horn

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2
Q

How should a pilot call the forward flight attendant?

A

Press the FWD button on the Calls Panel

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3
Q

Why is the GND CTL pushbutton selected to ON during preflight?

A

To record preflight activities in the cockpit

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3
Q

When would a pilot push the EMER pushbutton on the CALLS panel?

A

When there is an emergency, and the Pilot would like to speak with Flight Attendant A

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4
Q

What allows the cabin PAs to be recorded?

A

ACP 3 PA volume knob out and set at or above the medium range

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4
Q

What is the difference between the automatic RAT deployment and manual RAT deployment by pressing the RAT MAN ON on the HYD panel?

A

RAT MAN ON supplies Blue Hydraulic pressure only, no electrical generation

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4
Q

If the pushbutton was not selected ON, how would the system work in automatic mode? (Ground recording)

A
  • On the ground during the first 5 minutes after the aircraft electrical network is energized
  • On the ground after the first engine start
  • In flight (whether the engines are running or not)
  • On the ground, it is stopped automatically 5 minutes after the last engine shutdown provided the CVR jack is not used.
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5
Q

How can the RAT be deployed?

A
  • Manually by pushing MAN ON (EMER ELEC PWR Panel) or RAT MAN ON (HYDRAULIC Panel).
  • Automatically by the loss of both AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2
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5
Q

What is the significance of the red FAULT illuminating on the RAT & EMER GEN light?

A

AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost, and the emergency generator is not supplying electrical power

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5
Q

After deploying the RAT by pressing the RAT MAN ON pushbutton on the HYD panel it becomes necessary to also extract electrical power. How can this be accomplished?

A

By pressing the MAN ON pushbutton on the EMER ELEC PWR

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5
Q

When would the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN light normally illuminate?

A

The fault light will illuminate once the RAT is deployed and electrical power is not being supplied (approximately eight seconds)

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6
Q

Aside from the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light, what would be other indications of avionics smoke?

A
  • ECAM warning
  • Amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pushbuttons on the VENTILATION panel.
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6
Q

What would cause the GEN 1 LINE SMOKE light to illuminate?

A

Smoke detectors (particle detectors) in the avionics ventilation ducting

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6
Q

What does the RAT supply?

A

Blue Hydraulic System pressure and the emergency electrical generator

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7
Q

If the ECAM directs a pilot to select GEN 1 LINE pb sw to OFF, what will be accomplished?

A
  • Gen 1 line contactor opens (white OFF light illuminates)
  • AC BUS 1 powered by GEN 2 through the Bus Tie Contactors
  • Gen 1 powers one fuel pump directly in each wing tank
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7
Q

Why do we select the CAPT position using the CAPT and CAPT/PURS sw?

A
  • The alert may only be activated from the cockpit
  • If one of the cabin CMD pushbuttons is pressed, only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 seconds
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8
Q

While conducting the Emergency Evacuation Checklist, the pilots determine that evacuation is required. How should the pilots command an evacuation?

A
  • Make a PA announcement
  • Press the EVAC COMMAND pushbutton
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9
Q

What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?

A

Fly-By-Wire system

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9
Q

Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated.

A

Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated

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10
Q

How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?

A
  • Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits
  • Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape
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10
Q

How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

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11
Q

How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?

A
  • Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
  • Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
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11
Q

Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each

A
  • ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
  • SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
  • FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)
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12
Q

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?

A
  • Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
  • Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
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12
Q

When operating in NORMAL LAW in flight mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?

A
  • Pitch – G load
  • Bank – Roll rate
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13
Q

What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?

A

The other pilot has gained side stick authority

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14
Q

What should happen to the THS after landing?

A

Reset to zero

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14
Q

What does SEC 3 control?

A

Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing

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14
Q

Describe some of protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW?

A
  • High Speed
  • High Angle of Attack (AOA) Protection
  • Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G With Flaps/Slats)
  • Pitch Attitude Protections (30° UP / 15° DN)
  • Bank Angle Protections (67°)
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15
Q

Describe High Speed Protection

A

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.

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16
Q

What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?

A

It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW. In this case, the aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).

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17
Q

How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?

A

When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, nose up pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection.

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17
Q

What is ALPHA MAX?

A

The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.

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18
Q

If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?

A

If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.

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18
Q

What protections and stabilities, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW?

A
  • Load Factor
  • High speed stability
  • Low speed stability
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18
Q

What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?

A

None

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18
Q

When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process.

A

There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.

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19
Q

When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?

A
  • When in DIRECT LAW
  • On the ground (Ground Mode)
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19
Q

It’s common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.

A

A skilled pilot knows anything can happen. Preventative systems like ALPHA PROT may misread data, making it hard to predict Airbus stalls in NORMAL LAW. Always recognize stall signs and recover, regardless of control law.

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20
Q

If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the side stick, how high can they pitch up?

A

30° up

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20
Q

How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

A

By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?

A

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.

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20
Q

If the pilot selects 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly if the autopilot and auto thrust are engaged?

A

VLS

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21
Q

Describe, in detail, what would happen if the pilot slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle in Normal Law.

A
  • THS adjusts pitch to keep altitude as airspeed drops.
  • At ALPHA PROT, stick controls angle of attack, not G load.
  • Since pitch trim ceases, to fly slower than ALPHA PROT speed, continuous back pressure is needed.
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21
Q

(pilot slowly pulled the thrust
levers to idle in Normal Law.)

Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull back on the side stick. How slow would the aircraft go?

A
  • The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
  • With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a maximum safe angle of attack (ALPHA MAX). This maximum angle of attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle of attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW.
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21
Q

(pilot slowly pulled the thrust
levers to idle in Normal Law.)

At some point during this demonstration the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power. What is this protection, and how does it work?

A
  • ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on angle of attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
  • ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW.
  • Angle of attack protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
  • On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M 0.6
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22
Q

Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in NORMAL LAW.

A
  • Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from over stressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs.
  • If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
  • When the side stick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
  • When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.
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23
Q

When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?

A
  • In NORMAL LAW “flight” mode, side stick controls roll rate via ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and rudder, with various protections.
  • Roll rate is proportional to stick deflection; neutral stick holds 0°/sec roll rate for constant bank.
  • Full stick deflection commands 15°/sec roll rate.
  • Stick position doesn’t indicate actual control surface positions.
  • Automatic pitch trim helps maintain altitude in turns up to 33°.
  • Releasing stick beyond 33° bank returns to 33° due to positive spiral stability.
  • Above 33° bank, spiral stability is active, auto pitch trim off; constant stick pressure needed for bank and altitude.
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23
Q

The pilots find themselves in MECHANICAL BACKUP. What functions are available?

A
  • MECHANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure.
  • Although the aircraft can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended
    to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
  • Note the E/WD warning message and red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” indication on the FMA. There isn’t a specific mechanical backup ECAM message.
  • The side sticks are inoperative. Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system.
  • Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
  • In reality, the failure of only four flight control computers may result in mechanical backup: Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical.
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24
Q

What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available to the pilots?

A
  • Over speed triggers nose-up input to reduce damage, overriding full forward stick.
  • Activation speed shown as a green “=” on airspeed indicator.
  • Over speed warning at VMO+4, silenced only by EMER CANCEL.
  • Releasing stick returns speed to VMO/MMO; brief increase to VMO+16/MMO+0.04 allowed.
  • Spiral stability set to 0° bank angle, down from 33°; max bank limit reduced to 40°.
  • If high-speed protection is active, spiral stability occurs at all angles, requiring control pressure for any bank >0°.
  • Overspeeding is possible; computers cap max speed.
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25
Q

The pilots find themselves in ALTERNATE LAW. Describe the indications and available protections, and flight control logic.

A
  • Single component failure usually doesn’t degrade flight control, except for issues like a jammed stabilizer.
  • Amber Xs and E/WD message indicate degradation; “PROT LOST” on ECAM but some protections remain.
  • Autopilot in ALTERNATE LAW depends on type of failure; generally available if primary control surfaces unaffected.
  • Pitch remains as in NORMAL LAW, roll is direct, yaw loses turn coordination.
  • High/low speed and AoA protections lost; replaced by high/low-speed stability.
  • High-speed stability inhibits nose-down trim; low-speed stability inhibits nose-up trim.
  • Pilot can override stabilities to over speed or stall.
  • Roll sensitivity varies with speed and stick deflection; no bank angle protection.
  • Maximum roll rate may double based on failure combination.
  • No attitude limits; green “=” signs on PFD replaced by amber Xs; positive spiral stability lost.
  • Turn coordination always lost in ALTERNATE LAW; yaw damping and rudder functions available if FAC operational.
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25
Q

The pilots find themselves in DIRECT LAW. Describe the indications, protections, and flight control logic.

A
  • When in ALTERNATE LAW, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to DIRECT LAW when the landing gear is extended and autopilot is off.
  • DIRECT LAW is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in ALTERNATE LAW.
  • An ECAM message is generated and says “PROT LOST”. Unlike in ALTERNATE LAW, this is now true. There are no protections or stabilities available in DIRECT LAW.
  • The message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost.
  • Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as ALTERNATE LAW (direct relationship with no protections).
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26
Q

If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position, which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?

A

The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish when the landing gear is retracted

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26
Q

What is the difference between position 1 and 2 on the NAV & LOGO Toggle Switch?

A

Separate bulbs

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27
Q

Why do we place the NO SMOKING SIGN to AUTO instead of ON?

A

It allows the EMER EXT LT to charge their batteries

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27
Q

When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

A

When the main landing gear is not compressed

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27
Q

What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?

A
  • All lights OFF
  • Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates
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27
Q

What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

A
  • Captain’s instrument panel
  • Right dome light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT)
  • Standby compass
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27
Q

What is accomplished if the WING anti ice pushbutton is selected ON while the aircraft is on the ground?

A

The system will self-test for 30 seconds, and then the valves will close until the aircraft is airborne.

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27
Q

What does the WING FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A
  • Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)
  • Low pressure
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28
Q

What does the ENG 1(2) FAULT light illumination on the ANTI ICE panel indicate?

A

Valve disagreement (comes on momentarily when valve in transit)

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29
Q

What part of the wing is heated?

A

Outboard 3 slats

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30
Q

After selecting the probe/window heat pb on the ground to remove ice or fog on the window. Would the pilot need to select it off before T/O?

A

Yes, so it can operate in the automatic mode.

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31
Q

In what position do the WING and ENGINE anti ice valves fail if electrical power is lost?

A
  • Wing – valves CLOSE
  • Engine – valves OPEN
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31
Q

What is the significance of high swept wings versus less swept wings in ice accumulation?

A

The more swept the wing, the less time for the moisture to attach.

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32
Q

The temperature outside is 2°C with visible moisture. What should the flight crew turn on?

A

ENG anti ice after engine start

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33
Q

After takeoff, when should the flight crew turn on the WING anti ice?

A

WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing and when conditions warrant its use.

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33
Q

A flight crew is arriving to the aircraft in DTW early in the morning and notice that cockpit windows are frosted over. What should the flight crew do?

A

Select the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT on. This must be selected off prior to takeoff in order to regain normal system logic.

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34
Q

Climbing through FL240 in visible moisture, the crew notices the TAT is -22°C and the SAT is -45°C. What would be appropriate use of the ENG anti-ice?

A

Engine anti ice may be turned OFF in this scenario. Engine anti ice is required when icing conditions exist or are expected except during climb or cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.

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35
Q

Starting a descent out of FL350 with visible moisture, the TAT is -32°C and SAT is -53°C, what would be the appropriate use of the ENG anti-ice?

A

Engine anti-ice must be ON during the descent in icing conditions even if SAT is below -40°C.

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36
Q

Descending through 10,000ft, the pilots notice ice accumulation on the cockpit windshield blades. What should they do?

A

Turn on the WING anti ice. WING anti ice may either be used to prevent or remove ice accumulation from the wing leading edges. After takeoff, WING anti ice can be used after the aircraft is in a clean wing configuration. Ice accumulation can be detected by observing the ice indicator located between the two cockpit windshields or by observing the windshield wipers blades.

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37
Q

What is TAT?

A

Total Air Temperature is also called Indicated Air Temperature (IAT) or Ram
Air Temperature (RAT)

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37
Q

Can the WING anti ice be used on the approach and landing?

A

Yes, but it should only be considered in severe icing because second
segment climb performance could be affected if a go-around is performed.

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38
Q

What is SAT?

A

Static Air Temperature is also called: Outside Air Temperature (OAT) or
True Air Temperature

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39
Q

Should a flight crew use TAT or SAT when determining whether to turn anti ice systems on?

A

Remember TAT indicates when to turn anti ice ON. SAT indicates when it
may be able to be turned OFF.

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40
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage?

A

25.6V

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41
Q

What would a pilot do if BAT voltage is 25.5 or below on originating preflight?

A

Charge the batteries with external power by selecting BAT pushbuttons to
AUTO

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42
Q

How long should the batteries be charged?

A

20 minutes, then recheck the voltage

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43
Q

Explain how to conduct the BAT check. What if it fails the test?

A
  • Select ELEC on ECAM
  • Turn BAT 1 & 2 OFF then ON
  • Check BAT charge current is < 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds
  • If it fails the test, wait until the end of the charging cycle, and repeat the test
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44
Q

Describe the electrical power system.

A
  • three-phase 115/200-volt 400-hertz constant frequency AC
  • 28-volt DC
  • Produces AC and some transformed into DC
  • 3 generators, each can supply whole network
  • If all normal AC gens lost, emergency gen can supply AC power.
  • If all AC generation is lost, DC can transform to AC via batteries
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45
Q

If all AC power is lost, what happens?

A

DC power from the batteries is converted into AC.

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46
Q

What would be an expected indication in the GEN pushbuttons prior to engine start?

A

FAULT indication

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47
Q

Define and describe an IDG.

A
  • Integrated Drive Generator
  • Takes variable engine output and gives a constant output
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48
Q

How would a pilot disconnect an IDG?

A

Lift the red guard and push the IDG pushbutton, being careful not to hold the
pushbutton for longer than three seconds.

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49
Q

How would an IDG be reconnected?

A

This cannot be done by the flight crew – it is a maintenance function

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50
Q

Describe the function of the BUS TIE in AUTO.

A
  • Allows a single source to power AC BUS 1 and 2
  • Allows connection of the APU GEN or EXT power to system
  • Inhibits multiple sources connected simultaneously
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50
Q

How is the AC ESS bus normally powered?

A

From AC bus 1

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51
Q

If GEN 1 fails to supply AC Bus 1, what happens?

A

Gen 2 (or APU GEN if available) powers the system through the bus tie

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52
Q

If AC BUS 1 fails, how is the AC ESS bus powered?

A

AC bus 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS bus

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53
Q

What indication will be present on the ELEC panel that AC BUS 2 is feeding the AC ESS bus?

A

AC ESS FEED ALTN light illuminated only if the switch is manually selected.

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54
Q

What does a GALLEY fault light indicate?

A

At least one generator load is above 100% rated output

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55
Q

Explain the AUTO function of the GALLEY pushbutton.

A

Sheds main galley if only 1 GEN is available

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56
Q

What buses are powered by the EMER GEN?

A
  • AC ESS BUS
  • AC ESS SHED
  • DC ESS BUS by the ESS TR
  • DC ESS SHED
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56
Q

How is the BATTERY BUS normally powered?

A

DC BUS 1 through the DC tie contactor

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57
Q

What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?

A
  • Battery charging current outside limits
  • BAT contactor opens.
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58
Q

When are the batteries connected to the battery bus?

A
  • APU start
  • Battery charging
  • AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots
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59
Q

Where are the engine fire loops (heat) sensors located?

A
  • Pylon nacelle
  • Engine core
  • Fan section
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60
Q

How many fire loops are installed per engine?

A

Two (Loop A and B)

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61
Q

In the event an engine fire, what action arms the fire extinguishing squibs?

A

Pushing to release the ENG FIRE pushbutton

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62
Q

What happens if both engine fire loops fail simultaneously?

A

FIRE warning will be issued (if the failure occurs within 5 seconds)

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63
Q

What does an amber DISCH light on fire panel mean?

A

Bottle has lost its pressure either by a fault or pilot selection

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64
Q

How many fire bottles are provided for each engine?

A

2

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65
Q

How do you conduct a successful engine fire test?

A
  • ENG 1 and 2 FIRE pb-sw checked in and guarded
  • AGENT 1 and 2 light checked off
  • ENG 1 and 2 TEST pb press and maintain to check:
    • ENG FIRE pb lighted read + SQUIB and DISCH lights on
    • CRC + MASTER WARN lights
    • ENG 1(2) FIRE warning on ECAM ENG SD page displayed
    • FIRE light (on ENG panel) on
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66
Q

What would occur if the APU is running and an APU fire is detected on the ground? In flight?

A
  • On the ground, APU EMER shut down and bottle discharge
  • In the air – no automatic functions
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67
Q

Following a cargo smoke indication and subsequent discharge of the cargo smoke bottle, what would be the expected indication on the CARGO SMOKE panel?

A

The SMOKE light and associated ECAM warning may remain illuminated due to the halon concentration present in the cargo compartment.

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67
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there in the cargo extinguishing system?

A

Only one that has ducting to both FWD and AFT compartments, but the discharge can only be directed to one compartment.

67
Q

What is the significance of black and green circuit breakers?

A
  • Green – monitored by ECAM
  • Black – not monitored by ECAM
68
Q

When would the AUDIO SWITCHING be used?

A

Enables Captain or First Officer to utilize the overhead Audio Control Panel in case of individual ACP failure.

68
Q

What is the significance of a red collared circuit breaker?

A

The flight crew should not pull or manipulate these collared circuit breakers

69
Q

What are the two modes of flight guidance?

A
  • Managed guidance
  • Selected guidance
70
Q

What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?

A

Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS

70
Q

Does selected or managed guidance have priority?

A

Selected guidance

70
Q

What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?

A

Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU

71
Q

What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR phase do for the pilot if in managed speed?

A
  • Allows autothrust and speed target to follow a predetermined schedule, based on flap selection:
    • F0 = green dot
    • F1 = S speed
    • F2 = F speed
    • F3 = F speed or VAPP (depending on landing flap selection)
    • Full = VAPP
  • If using managed speed, GSMINI is available. If using selected speed, GSMINI
    is not available.
71
Q

What happens if the pilots forget to ACTIVATE/ CONFIRM the APPR phase while in the descent phase?

A

Once you manage speed, the autothrust system will target 250 kts below 10,000 ft.

72
Q

What time of day would a pilot have to switch to a new Navigation Database?

A

0901z

73
Q

How would a flight crew determine the validity of the navigation database?

A

On the A/C STATUS page

73
Q

Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?

A

The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.

74
Q

If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?

A

An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. The full procedure can be found in the COM.

74
Q

What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?

A

Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave

74
Q

What input does each FMGC normally use for position determination?

A

A hybrid IRS/GPS position

75
Q

How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

A
  • If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
  • If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
  • If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master
75
Q

In cruise flight with AP1 engaged, what would happen if AP2 was selected?

A

The AP2 would takeover, and AP1 would disengage. It is only possible to engage both autopilots in the approach phase after selection of the APPR pushbutton while conducting a ILS approach.

76
Q

What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?

A
  • Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
  • Small – Default or computed, non-modifiable data
76
Q

What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?

A
  • Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
  • Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet
  • Both autopilots fail
76
Q

If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur and what should be done?

A
  • A ECAM CAUTION will be generated
  • Thrust levers should be moved into the TOGA detent and continue the takeoff.
76
Q

Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light.

A
  • Use one side stick at a time.
  • Dual inputs trigger “DUAL INPUT” alert and flashing green CAPT/F.O. lights; inputs summed.
  • Taking control must be verbalized (“I HAVE CONTROL”), triggering “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT)” alert and red arrow light.
  • Holding takeover button for 40s can disable side stick; neutral stick position turns off priority light.
  • Lost authority regained by briefly pressing takeover button.
  • Red arrow light indicates loss of authority.
  • Green CAPT/F.O. lights flash with simultaneous stick movement.
76
Q

What does each column mean on the PFD?

A
  1. A/THR
  2. VERTICAL
  3. LATERAL
  4. APPCH CAPABILITY, DH/MDA
  5. AP, FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS
77
Q

How is the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA?

A

A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication.

77
Q

Modes are displayed in the FMA in blue, magenta, and green. What do they indicate?

A
  • Blue – armed
  • Magenta – armed because of a constraint
  • Green – engaged
77
Q

When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?

A
  • Displayed when the first engine is started
  • Disappears at liftoff
77
Q

When going around in the A320 NEO, if the FMA displays an amber message reading, “FOR GA: SET TOGA”, what action should the pilot take?

A
  • The Pilot should move the thrust levers into the TOGA detent.
  • When AP/FD is in approach vertical mode and aircraft is below 1000 ft RA, this message is displayed if all thrust levers are moved to or above the MCT detent, but below the TOGA detent.
77
Q

After loading an ILS approach into the MCDU and selecting the (I)LS pushbutton, what indications on should be present on the PFD?

A
  • ILS frequency and course
  • ILS identifier (once in range and identified)
  • LOC and GS scales
77
Q

What do the large red arrowheads indicate?

A

Pitch attitude of +30°

78
Q

When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?

A

In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it becomes a blue beta
target.

79
Q

What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?

A

The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration
remains constant.

80
Q

What is Green Dot speed?

A
  • Engine out operating speed in clean configuration
  • Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration
  • Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio
80
Q

What does it mean when the altitude digits on the altimeter change from green to amber?

A

The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.

80
Q

What speed does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?

A
  • It is the lowest of VMO/VMMO, VLE or VFE
  • Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale
80
Q

What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?

A
  • Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC
  • Blue – Selected speed on the FCU
80
Q

What is VLS and how is it displayed?

A
  • Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the
    stall speed
  • Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale
  • In approach mode, it is equivalent to VREF
81
Q

What are the benefits of Ground Speed Mini (GSMINI)?

A
  • Calculated groundspeed at the runway
  • Protects against actual groundspeed dropping below this calculated groundspeed
81
Q

What does it mean if the magenta target airspeed triangle is above VAPP on the approach?

A

GSMINI has increased speed due to a higher headwind component at the
present location.

81
Q

What are the 3 key factors in the GSMINI Calculations?

A
  1. TWR wind = MAG WIND in PERF approach page, excluding gusts.
  2. TWR headwind = MAG WIND component along runway axis per flight plan.
  3. Current Headwind = ADIRS-measured wind on aircraft axis, used for final approach speed target (IAS).
81
Q

What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD?

A

Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS pb is not selected.

81
Q

When is radio height displayed on the PFD?

A

Below 2,500 feet

81
Q

Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?

A
  • Captain’s PFD
  • First Officer’s ND
81
Q

Is a visual warning provided to the pilot if the aircraft is stalling?

A
  • Non NEO Aircraft = No visual indication
  • NEO Aircraft = STALL warning indication on PFD
82
Q

What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?

A
  • Active – continuous green line
  • Secondary – continuous white line
  • Temporary – dashed yellow line
  • Alternate – dashed blue line
  • Missed approach – continuous blue line
  • Flight Plan Capture – continuous green with intercept path computed
  • Data base EOSID – continuous yellow line
83
Q

“Top of Descent” and “Continue Descent” arrows are displayed in blue or white. What is the difference?

A
  • Top of Descent – Always white (never armed)
  • Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed
84
Q

What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?

A
  • White – constraint is not taken into account
  • Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied
  • Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed
84
Q

When is a STATUS page displayed?

A
  • After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been cleared
  • Display will reappear when the slats are extended
84
Q

What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications?

A
  • Level 3: WARNINGS – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, CRC, red E/WD message, and require immediate action
  • Level 2: CAUTIONS – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUTION light, single chime, amber E/WD message, and require crew awareness
  • Level 1: CAUTIONS – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural signal, and requires crew monitoring
85
Q

What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen?

A

Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR pushbutton on the ECAM panel.

85
Q

If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A

A Level 3 WARNING has priority over a Level 2 CAUTION, which has priority over a Level 1 CAUTION.

85
Q

What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?

A

Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary distractions during critical phases of flight.

86
Q

If the flaps handle setting does not match the setting required by the MCDU, will you get a T/O CONFIG Warning?

A

No. As long as the flap handle is in 1, 2, or 3, no warning will be generated.

86
Q

What are some of the warnings NOT inhibited with T.O INHIBIT displayed?

A
  • ENGINE FIRE
  • APU FIRE
  • ENG FAIL
  • ENG OIL LO PR
  • L+R ELEV FAULT
  • A/P OFF
  • CONFIG
  • FWC 1+2 FAULT
86
Q

When does the Takeoff Memo appear and disappear?

A
  • Two minutes after the 2nd engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG TEST pushbutton is pressed with one engine running
  • Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied
87
Q

When does the Landing Memo appear and disappear?

A
  • The memo appears below 2,000 feet RA
  • After a go-around, if the aircraft does not climb above 2,200 feet RA, the landing memo appears only below 800 ft RA during the subsequent approach
  • The memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots)
88
Q

What does the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the E/WD?

A
  • The STATUS page holds messages other than CANCELLED CAUTIONS
  • Flashes after engine shutdown to alert maintenance of any other applicable messages
89
Q

What is the function of the two Landing Gear Control and Interface Units (LGCIUs)?

A
  • Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the landing gear.
  • Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft systems
90
Q

What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?

A

Green

91
Q

What do the red UNLK lights indicate?

A

The landing gear is not locked in the selected position.

91
Q

When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate?

A

Below 750 feet RA, when the aircraft is in the landing configuration and the landing gear is not locked down.

92
Q

What happens if airspeed is 280 knots and the Landing Gear lever is selected DOWN?

A

Nothing. A safety valve shuts off hydraulic power to the landing gear system when airspeed is above 260 knots

92
Q

If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work?

A

Yes, as long as it is still powered.

93
Q

What controls and manages all normal braking functions?

A

The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU)

94
Q

Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes?

A
  • Normal brakes – GREEN
  • Alternate brakes – YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator
94
Q

What happens when the A/SKID & N/W STRG is switched OFF?

A
  • Loss of nose wheel steering
  • Braking is powered by the YELLOW system
  • Anti-skid is deactivated
  • ABCU takes over
95
Q

When do the Auto Brakes activate on landing if armed?

A

When the ground spoilers deploy

96
Q

What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK?

A
  • LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 5.6 ft./s^2
  • MED – progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground spoilers deploy in order to decelerate the aircraft at a rate of 9.8 ft./s^2
96
Q

What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?

A

Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.

96
Q

What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on a rejected takeoff?

A
  • Airspeed above 72 knots, and
  • Thrust levers at IDLE, and
  • Ground spoiler extension
96
Q

What is the impact of the loss of GREEN hydraulic pressure on the Auto Brakes?

A

The Auto Brake function is lost, because the aircraft is now relying on the alternate brake system.

96
Q

What would happen to the spoilers if they were not armed, but at least one engine was selected into reverse thrust?

A

They would still deploy, even if they were not armed

96
Q

How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?

A

Approximately 7 full applications

97
Q

If on the alternate brake system, what is required in order to maintain Antiskid function, if anything?

A

At least 1 channel of the BSCU

97
Q

What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?

A
  • YELLOW hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
  • YELLOW system brake accumulator pressure
97
Q

If there are any automatic functions of the DMCs in the event of a failure, explain the automatic logic.

A

If DMC 1 fails (or DMC3 if “CAPT 3” was selected), DMC 2 automatically drives the ECAM.

98
Q

What happens when the upper DU fails?

A

The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower DU display.

99
Q

What computers feed data to the six display units?

A

Three Display Management Computers (DMC)

100
Q

What are the indications on the DUs if a DMC has failed?

A

“INVALID DATA” will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display unit.

101
Q

If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can the E/WD information be displayed?

A

By selecting the ECAM/ND XFR switch to CAPT or F/O

102
Q

If the upper DU knob is selected to OFF what will occur?

A

The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the “lower” display.

103
Q

With the E/WD displayed on the “lower” screen, what steps should be taken to view SD information?

A

Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL panel. The information selected will be available for 30 seconds.

104
Q

What does the ALL pushbutton do?

A
  • Displays ALL the system pages successively in 3-second intervals when held down
  • Release the pushbutton to maintain display of the selected page
105
Q

What does pressing the RCL pushbutton do?

A
  • Allows the flight crew to review any warning or caution messages that the CLR pushbutton or flight phase inhibition may have suppressed
  • If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution messages
    suppressed by the EMER CANC pushbutton
106
Q

If the STS pushbutton is pressed and the system has no STATUS messages, what will be displayed?

A

“NORMAL” for 5 seconds

107
Q

What occurs during the Before Takeoff Flow when the T.O. CONFIG pushbutton is pressed?

A
  • The system simulates the application of takeoff power and checks certain systems for proper configuration
  • A warning is displayed if a system is not configured properly
  • “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the configuration is correct
108
Q

What does the EMER CANC accomplish?

A
  • Cancels the audio for warning messages (without removing any ECAM message)
  • Cancels the present caution for the rest of the flight
  • Calls up the STATUS page, which displays “CANCELLED CAUTION” and the TITLE of the failure
  • Inhibited message can be recalled by holding RCL for more than three seconds
109
Q

What is the purpose of having the EMER CANC pushbutton?

A

Used to cancel spurious MASTER CAUTIONS

110
Q

If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?

A

The THS is jammed.

111
Q

What happens to the THS after landing?

A

The trim automatically resets to zero

112
Q

What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

A

FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)

113
Q

What is the power source for the FADEC?

A
  • The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above10%
  • If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
114
Q

The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is required?

A

There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the start, dry crank to clear the fuel from the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically

115
Q

How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?

A
  • One igniter with the other serving as a backup
  • The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A or B) at each start
115
Q

On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?

A
  • By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU)
  • At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff
115
Q

How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

A

Two, both A and B

116
Q

What is the active range of the A/THR?

A
  • Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
  • Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
116
Q

What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?

A

The thrust lever angle.

117
Q

What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?

A
  • A/THR pushbutton
  • Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
  • Thrust levers to IDLE
118
Q

What is the proper method of disconnecting A/THR?

A

Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons.

119
Q

How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?

A

Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done

119
Q

What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA FLOOR?

A
  • Thrust – TOGA
  • FMA – “A.FLOOR”
120
Q

When would Thrust Lock occur?

A
  • Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
  • A/THR disconnects due to a failure
120
Q

When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?

A

Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”

120
Q

When will ALPHA FLOOR activate?

A

When the aircraft reaches a high AOA

121
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?

A
  • Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and move the THRUST LEVERS to the CL detent, if not already in the climb detent
  • Afterwards re-engage the autothrust
121
Q

How is A/THR normally armed?

A

By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX

121
Q

What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll using FLEX thrust on a RWY with a localizer?

A

MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)

122
Q

What would the FMA indications be during takeoff roll if the A/THR didn’t arm on a runway with a localizer? Should the takeoff be aborted?

A
  • SRS, RWY
  • Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually engage A/THR.
122
Q

What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll using TOGA thrust on a runway without a localizer?

A

MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)

123
Q

How should A/THR be turned off?

A

Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting on the EWD and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE.

124
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

A

Move it out of the climb detent.

125
Q

What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

A
  • Engine MASTER switch
  • ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
125
Q

What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?

A
  • The position of the HP fuel shut off valve is abnormal, or
  • Automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or
  • There is a malfunction of the thrust control.
126
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
(NEO PW1100G)

A
  • Engine flame out detected
  • Surge detected
  • Thrust control malfunction detected
  • Ignition delay during start
127
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
(CEO V2500)

A
  • Engine anti-ice PB switch at ON
  • Max TO thrust selected (EPR or Rated N1 mode)
  • Flex to thrust selected (EPR mode)
  • EIU data failed (ignition and/or bleed config data)
  • Approach idle selected
  • Inflight unscheduled sub idle or surge
  • Master lever cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position
128
Q

What is the required engine cool down time after landing?

A

3 Mins for all aircraft

128
Q

What is the required engine warm up time?

A
  • IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown < 2hrs= 3 Mins
  • IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown > 2hrs = 5 Mins
128
Q

What does the green cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO Aircraft?

A

It’s displayed when an auto dry crank is required to cool the engines before engine start.

129
Q

If icing conditions exist on the ground, how is the Engine Run-up procedure different for NEO and non-NEO aircraft?

A
  • IAE V2500 = Accelerate to Minimum of 50% N1 at intervals not more than 15 minutes apart
  • PW1100G = Accelerate to Minimum of 60% N1 at intervals not more than 30 minutes apart
129
Q

If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine, what should be done by the flight crew?

A

PW1100G = Abort the engine start sequence, Maintenance action is Required

130
Q

How is Approach Idle different on NEO vs non-Neo aircraft?

A
  • Non-NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
    • Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are extended (flap lever not at 0 position)
  • NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
    • Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are at CONF 3 or FULL or when the landing gear is down.
131
Q

How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available?

A

The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed.

131
Q

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?

A
  • CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
  • CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
131
Q

When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

A

During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.

131
Q

What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

A

Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

131
Q

If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?

A

The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.

132
Q

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

The ailerons droop

132
Q

Ground Spoiler Logic on Landing: FULL EXTENSION CONDITIONS

A
  • Speed brake lever NOT retracted OR ground spoilers armed, AND:
    • Both main landing gears on ground
    • Both thrust levers at/below idle OR at least one engine in Reverse (other below MCT)
  • Speed brake lever retracted, ground spoilers NOT armed, AND:
    • Both main landing gears on ground
    • At least one engine in Reverse (other below MCT)
132
Q

What is ALPHA LOCK?

A

This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.

132
Q

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff.

A
  • IF ARMED & 72+ KNOTS: Spoilers extend automatically when both thrust levers are set to idle.
  • IF NOT ARMED & 72+ KNOTS: Spoilers extend automatically when one engine is set to reverse and the other to idle.
  • EITHER CASE: Selecting at least idle reverse ensures spoiler deployment.
132
Q

Ground Spoiler Logic on Landing: FULL EXTENSION | Aileron Extension Logic

A

Ailerons fully extend when:
- Ground spoilers are fully extended
- Flaps are not in clean CONF
- Pitch attitude < 2.5°
- Flying manually
- In normal law only

133
Q

Ground Spoiler Logic on Landing: PARTIAL EXTENSION CONDITIONS

A
  • Speed brake lever NOT retracted OR ground spoilers armed, AND:
    • One main landing gear on ground
    • Both thrust levers at/below idle
  • Speed brake lever retracted, ground spoilers NOT armed, AND:
    • One main landing gear on ground
    • Reverse selected on at least one engine (other below MCT)
  • Additional conditions to reduce bounce severity:
    • Ground spoilers armed
    • Both main landing gears on ground
    • Both thrust levers at/below Climb position
134
Q

Ground Spoiler Logic on Landing: RETRACTION

A

Ground spoilers retract:
- After landing
- After a rejected takeoff when disarmed
- During a touch and go when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20°

135
Q

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

A

During a touch and go/balk landing and at least one thrust lever is advance above 20%

136
Q

What are some conditions that inhibit speed brake extension?

A
  • Angle of Attack protection is active
  • Thrust levers above the MCT position
  • ALPHA FLOOR is active
137
Q

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected, or electrical power is lost?

A

The spoilers automatically retract

137
Q

Aircraft Differences - Spoilers:
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

A

A319/A320: Flaps FULL

A321: Flaps 3 and FULL

138
Q

How are the communications radios tuned?

A

From any one of the three Radio Management Panels (RMPs)

139
Q

Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

A

RMP 1

140
Q

Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

A
  • VHF COM 1
  • HF 1
141
Q

Why would a pilot select the NAV key on an RMP?

A
  • When both MCDUs fail
  • An immediate landing into an airport not in the database
141
Q

If RMP 1 fails, how can VHF 1 still be used?

A

By using RMP 2 or 3

142
Q

What effect does setting the parking brake have on other braking modes?

A

All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.

143
Q

How can a pilot recharge the brake accumulator pressure with the engine not running?

A

With the YELLOW ELEC PUMP

144
Q

How is the parking brake activated when turning the parking brake switch ON?

A

Electrically

145
Q

How can the crew verify the parking brake is set?

A
  • ECAM PARKING BRK memo
  • Triple indicator brake pressure
146
Q

When hand flying the aircraft how can the rudder be trimmed, if at all possible?

A

Using the RUD TRIM

147
Q

What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?

A

Nothing

148
Q

What is the RESET button used for? (Next to rudder trim)

A

To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged.

148
Q

What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?

A

Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.

148
Q

How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?

A

Rotate the handle clockwise three times until reaching the mechanical stop.

148
Q

What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to OFF?

A
  • Nose wheel steering is lost
  • Anti-skid is deactivated
  • YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes
148
Q

What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?

A

YELLOW

148
Q

What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel do?

A

Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the rudder pedals until released.

148
Q

If the yellow electric pump fails, can the cargo doors be operated?

A

Yes, by using the hand pump, located on the hydraulic maintenance panel.

148
Q

Name three sources for high pressure pneumatic air?

A
  • Engine bleed system
  • APU low compressor
  • HP ground connection
148
Q

Why do we need one engine OFF before turning OFF the seat belt signs?

A

The residual cabin pressure light is inhibited with more than one engine running.

149
Q

What does BMC stand for?

A

Bleed Monitoring Computer

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