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Study > Master Question File EVEN Year Revision 5 Updated 8.8.24 > Flashcards

Master Question File EVEN Year Revision 5 Updated 8.8.24 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the ADIRS?

A

Air Data and Inertial Reference System

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2
Q

What type of information does the Air Data Reference System provide?

A

Altitude, airspeed, over speed warnings, temperature, angle of
attack, mach.

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3
Q

What type of information does the IR provide?

A

Attitude, Flight Path Vector (FPV), track, heading, acceleration, angular
rates, groundspeed and aircraft position.

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4
Q

If there was an IR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

ATT/HDG to Capt 3

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5
Q

If there was an ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data appropriately?

A

AIR DATA to Capt 3

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6
Q

Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.

A

Switch from OFF to NAV
ON BAT
White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on A319;
502-534)
In A319; 535,536, A320s, and A321s, the E/WD memo section displays
“IRS IN ALIGN” during alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the
overhead panel.

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7
Q

What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?

A

An external horn sounds
The ON BAT light comes on
An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in amber on the external power panel.

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8
Q

What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?

A

IR has failed and cannot be recovered

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9
Q

What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?

A

Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.

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10
Q

Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF

A

The pilot would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, mach, angle of attack,
temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT
3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal.

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11
Q

What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?

A

Older model: Lose IR part. Newer panel: Can turn off only the IR and ADR info stays

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12
Q

When would a pilot perform a complete alignment?

A
  • Before the first flight of the day
  • When there is a crew change
  • When the departure airport is located between latitudes 2o north and 2o south
  • If GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route
  • If GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 hours
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13
Q

When would a pilot perform a fast alignment?

A

More than 5nm difference

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14
Q

What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?

A
  • PPOS not entered within 10m of alignment or 3m of fast alignment
  • Large difference LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position.
  • Aircraft movement during alignment.
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15
Q

What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?

A

Automatic APU shutdown has occurred

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16
Q

What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?

A

APU is running above 99.5 % or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95%. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.

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17
Q

What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound on the ground?

A

APU fire

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18
Q

With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is powering the aircraft?

A

2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft

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19
Q

If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cool-down cycle?

A

Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton

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20
Q

When running the securing checklist why is it important to wait 2 minutes after the APU avail light goes out before switching off the batteries?

A

Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.

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21
Q

If one generator fails, what is the maximum altitude that you can start the APU?

A

FL 410

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22
Q

If your aircraft is in an emergency electrical configuration, what is the maximum altitude to start the APU?

A

FL 250

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23
Q

How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-automatic and manual modes?

A
  • Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
    • Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
    • Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch
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24
Q

What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?

A

Closes all openings below the waterline
Note: If you lose both cabin pressure systems 1 + 2, you have to manually close the outflow valve.

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25
Q

When would a pilot push the ditching pushbutton?

A
  • When ditching
    • When directed by the deicing checklist
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26
Q

How many controllers are in the pressurization system?

A

Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing

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27
Q

How can a pilot manually switch controllers?

A

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO

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28
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate? [Pressure]

A

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty

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29
Q

What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?

A

Two pressure relief valves

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30
Q

If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?

A

HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.

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31
Q

If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?

A

All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the selected value. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.

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32
Q

How are the PACKS controlled and operated?

A

Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.

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33
Q

What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?

A
  • Valve position disagrees with selected
    • Compressor outlet overheat
    • Pack outlet overheat
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34
Q

What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?

A
  • Bleed overpressure
    • Bleed overheat
    • Wing or engine leak on the related side
    • Bleed valve NOT closed during engine start
    • Bleed valve NOT closed with the APU BLEED ON
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35
Q

What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?

A
  • SHUT = the valve is closed.
    • AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is
    closed or there is a wing, pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).
    • OPEN = the valve is open.
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36
Q

What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?

A

APU bleed leak.

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37
Q

What does selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?

A

• Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.

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38
Q

What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?

A
  • Smoke/fumes removal in cabin
    • Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
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39
Q

How is the Bleed leak detection different on CEO and NEO aircraft?

A

If a Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on CEO.

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40
Q

When should you select LO pack flow?

A
  • On the 319, when the number of passengers is below 138.
    • On the 320, when the number of passengers is below 141.
    • On the 321, select ON ECON FLOW when the number of passengers is below 168.
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41
Q

Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?

A

42,000 lbs (41,285)

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42
Q

Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000 lbs indicated on the ECAM FOB?

A

The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard

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43
Q

How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft and where are they located?

A
  • There are seven total fuel pumps: two center tank pumps, four wing tank pumps, (two in each wing) and one APU fuel pump. On some aircraft, the center tank pumps are jet pumps, which transfer fuel from the center tank into the wing tanks.
    • The APU pump is used when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply)
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44
Q

Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to climb (assume full tanks).

A
  • At engine start the fuel is fed from the wing tanks
    • After an engine is started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue to run for 2 minutes.
    • If slats are selected within those 2 minutes, the center tank pumps will continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop.
    • If the slats are extended at any other time, the center pumps will shut off.
    • At takeoff, the engines feed fuel from their respective wing tanks.
    • When slats are retracted to zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank.
    • When the center tank runs low, the pumps continue to run for 5 min.
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45
Q

What is the difference between CTR TK Pump on a A319 and some older A320’s (601 – 628) versus CTR TK XFR (transfer) on the A321 and newer A320’s (629 – 656, 690 – 696, 901 – 915)?

A

CTR TK Pumps are identical to the main tank fuel pumps. The CTR TK XFR are jet pumps that transfer center tank fuel to the main L (R) pumps.

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46
Q

What does a fault light in one of the L(R) TK PUMPS pushbuttons indicate?

A

Low delivery pressure

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47
Q

What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate? [Fuel]

A
  • Failure of the AUTO mode
    • Center tank has more than 550 lbs and either wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs
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48
Q

How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?

A

REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is entering the tanks, merely that the refueling door is open.

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49
Q

Describe IDG cooling and how it relates to the FADEC.

A

Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to either the wing tank or outer tank, depending on the aircraft.
• This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power.
• The FADEC controls the fuel return depending on the temperature of the IDG – the higher the temperature, the higher the flow.

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50
Q

What happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center tanks are feeding?

A

The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100 lbs in the inner tanks

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51
Q

What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank, when installed?

A

Approximately 1,500 lbs

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52
Q

When do the wing outer tanks drain into the inner tanks?

A

When the inner tank quantity reaches approximately 1,650 lbs

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53
Q

If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lbs, what happens to the other transfer valve?

A

All four transfer valves open

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54
Q

Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?

A

Automatically at the next refueling operation as long as there is AC power on the aircraft

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55
Q

Describe the layout of the fuel tanks.

A
  • The fuel tank layout depends on the specific aircraft.
    • Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:
    • On 319s and 320s, the wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks, and vent tanks. - On 321s, the wing tanks are not divided into inner and outer tanks, but still have vent tanks.
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56
Q

What are the three HYD systems called?

A

GREEN, BLUE and YELLOW Systems

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57
Q

How is each hydraulic system normally powered?

A
  • GREEN – engine driven
    • BLUE – electrically driven
    • YELLOW – engine or electrically driven
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58
Q

When does the BLUE pump normally operate?

A

After the first engine is started

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59
Q

If the BLUE system lost pressure, how would pressure be restored?

A

The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so if needed, it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON pushbutton.

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60
Q

What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?

A

On the ground, coordinate with ground personnel and turn on the YELLOW ELEC pump

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61
Q

With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened?

A

By using a hand pump

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62
Q

What causes the PTU to operate in if in AUTO?

A

Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems

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63
Q

When is the PTU inhibited?

A
  • On the ground with ENG MASTER levers split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake ON
    • For 40 seconds after cargo door is operated
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64
Q

What are some users of the GREEN system?

A
  • Landing gear
    • Normal brakes
    • Slats and flaps
    • ENG 1 thrust reverser
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65
Q

What are some users of the BLUE system?

A
  • Emergency generator
    • Slats
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66
Q

What are some users of the YELLOW system?

A
  • Flaps
    • Nose wheel steering
    • Alternate brakes
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67
Q

What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?

A

Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls.

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68
Q

What would cause a FAULT light in the ENG 1 pump?

A
  • Pump low pressure
    • Over temp in reservoir
    • Low air pressure in reservoir
    • Low quantity
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69
Q

If the FAULT light illuminates in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the specific reason for the FAULT?

A

ECAM will display the reason

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70
Q

What must the flight crew be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the Air?

A

The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong

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71
Q

What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?

A
  • The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
    • Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available
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72
Q

With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when the ENG MAN START pushbutton is pressed?

A
  • The start valve opens
    • Both pack flow control valves close
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73
Q

What is the primary difference between the IAE V2500 and PW1100G engine?

A

The NEO PW1100G engine includes a Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) which allows the low pressure turbine to operate at higher rotational speeds for peak efficiency while the engine’s fan can operate at lower speeds for optimum propulsion efficiency and lower noise levels.

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74
Q

When would a First Officer manually abort an AUTOMATIC start on the ground and what COM procedure would you apply after selecting the master switch to off?

A
  • The ground crew reports a tail pipe fire, accomplish the COM Abnormal/Emergency Procedures “Engine Tailpipe Fire” procedure.
    • In the case of electrical power supply interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by loss of the ECAM DUs), COM supplemental procedure Engine Ventilation (Dry Cranking)
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75
Q

What is the approximate time the engine will dry crank during an Automatic engine start?

A
  • IAE V2500 = Approximately 30 Seconds
    • PW1100G = Approximately 2 Minutes
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76
Q

When would a pilot select the EXTRACT to OVRD?

A
  • Heavy Rain on the ground
    • When directed to by the ECAM
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77
Q

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULTpb light?

A
  • Low blower pressure
    • Duct overheat
    • Computer power supply failure
    • Smoke warning activated
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78
Q

What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?

A
  • Low extract pressure
    • Computer power supply failure
    • Smoke warning activated
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79
Q

What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?

A

BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT on the ground with both engines stopped.

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80
Q

Describe the avionics ventilation system.

A

It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and airflow.

81
Q

When would the pilots use the maintenance panel?

A
  • If an MEL item requires its use.
    • If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON.
82
Q

Do the pilots use the maintenance panel?

A
  • Only if an MEL required pressurization of the BLUE system on the ground with the engines OFF.
    • If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON.
83
Q

Which pushbutton on the maintenance panel would be used to pressurize the BLUE system on the ground?

A

The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton

84
Q

If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pushbutton what would occur?

A

The APU would shut down

85
Q

What are the two modes of flight guidance?

A
  • Managed guidance
    • Selected guidance
86
Q

What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?

A

Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS

87
Q

What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?

A

Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU

88
Q

Does selected or managed guidance have priority?

A

Selected

89
Q

What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR phase do for the pilot if in managed speed?

A
  • Allows autothrust and speed target to follow a predetermined schedule, based on flap selection:
    • F0 = green dot
    • F1 = S speed
    • F2 = F speed
    • F3 = F speed or VAPP (depending on landing flap selection)
    • Full = VAPP
      • If using managed speed, GSMINI is available. If using selected speed, GSMINI
      is not available.
90
Q

What happens if the pilots forget to ACTIVATE/ CONFIRM the APPR phase while in the descent phase?

A

Once you manage speed, the autothrust system will target 250 kts below 10,000 ft.

91
Q

What time of day would a pilot have to switch to a new Navigation Database?

A

0901z

92
Q

Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?

A

The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.

93
Q

How would a flight crew determine the validity of the navigation database?

A

On the A/C STATUS page.

94
Q

What input does each FMGC normally use for position determination?

A

A hybrid IRS/GPS position

95
Q

What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?

A

Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave

96
Q

How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

A
  • If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
    • If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
    • If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master
97
Q

If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew take?

A

An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. The full procedure can be found in the COM.

98
Q

In cruise flight with AP1 engaged, what would happen if AP2 was selected?

A

The AP2 would takeover, and AP1 would disengage. It is only possible to engage both autopilots in the approach phase after selection of the APPR pushbutton while conducting a ILS approach.

99
Q

What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?

A
  • Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
    • Small – Default or computed, non-modifiable data
100
Q

If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and thethrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur and what should be done?

A
  • A ECAM CAUTION will be generated
    • Thrust levers should be moved into the TOGA detent and continue the takeoff.
101
Q

What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?

A
  • Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
    • Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet
    • Both autopilots fail
102
Q

Explain the side stick operation and the associated glare shield SIDE STICK PRIORITY light

A
  • Normally only one side stick should be operated at any given time.
    • Should there be dual inputs, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash. Side stick inputs are algebraically summed.
    • Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated (“I HAVE CONTROL”). An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT)” will be annunciated over the speaker and the SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority
    • If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control (or if there is a malfunction present) the light in front of the pilot with priority lights up it will go out when the other pilot returns the stick to the neutral position, the side stick can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds.
    • The pilot having lost side stick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover pushbutton
    • Red Arrow light is illuminated on the pilot losing authority
    • The Green CAPT / FO lights flash when both pilots move the side stick simultaneously.
103
Q

If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?

A

The THS is jammed.

104
Q

What happens to the THS after landing?

A

The trim automatically resets to zero

105
Q

What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

A

FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)

106
Q

What is the power source for the FADEC?

A
  • The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above10%
    • If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
107
Q

The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is required?

A

There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the start, dry crank to clear the fuel from the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically.

108
Q

How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence

A
  • One igniter with the other serving as a backup
    • The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A or B) at each start
109
Q

How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?

A

Two, both A and B

110
Q

On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?

A
  • By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU)
    • At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff
111
Q

What is the active range of the A/THR?

A
  • Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
    • Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
112
Q

What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?

A

The thrust lever angle

113
Q

What are three ways to disconnect the A/THR?

A
  • A/THR pushbutton
    • Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
    • Thrust levers to IDLE
114
Q

What is the proper method of disconnecting A/THR?

A

Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons

115
Q

How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?

A

Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done.

116
Q

What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA FLOOR

A
  • Thrust – TOGA
    • FMA – “A.FLOOR”
117
Q

When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?

A

Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”

118
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?

A
  • Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and move the THRUST LEVERS to the CL detent, if not already in the climb detent
    • Afterwards re-engage the autothrust
119
Q

When will ALPHA FLOOR activate?

A

When the aircraft reaches a high AOA

120
Q

When would Thrust Lock occur?

A
  • Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
    • A/THR disconnects due to a failure
121
Q

How is A/THR normally armed

A

By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX

122
Q

What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll using FLEX thrust on a RWY with a localizer?

A

MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)

123
Q

What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll using TOGA thrust on a runway without a localizer?

A

MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)

124
Q

What would the FMA indications be during takeoff roll if the A/THR didn’t arm on a runway with a localizer? Should the takeoff be aborted?

A
  • SRS, RWY
    • Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually engage A/THR.
125
Q

How should A/THR be turned off?

A

Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting on the EWD and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE.

126
Q

What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?

A

Move it out of the climb detent

127
Q

What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

A
  • Engine MASTER switch
    • ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
128
Q

What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?

A
  • The position of the HP fuel shut off valve is abnormal, or
    • Automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or
    • There is a malfunction of the thrust control.
129
Q

When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

A
  • PW1100G
    • Engine flame out detected
    • Surge detected
    • Thrust control malfunction detected
    • Ignition delay during start
  • IAE V2500
    • Engine anti-ice PB switch at ON
    • Max TO thrust selected (EPR or Rated N1 mode)
    • Flex to thrust selected (EPR mode)
    • EIU data failed (ignition and/or bleed config data)
    • Approach idle selected
    • Inflight unscheduled sub idle or surge
    • Master lever cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position
130
Q

What is the required engine warm up time?

A
  • IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown < 2hrs= 3 Mins
    • IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown > 2hrs = 5 Mins
131
Q

What is the required engine cool down time after landing?

A

3 Mins for all aircraft

132
Q

What does the green cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO Aircraft?

A

It’s displayed when an auto dry crank is required to cool the engines before engine start.

133
Q

If icing conditions exist on the ground, how is the Engine Run-up procedure different for NEO and non-NEO aircraft?

A
  • IAE V2500 = Accelerate to Minimum of 50% N1 at intervals not more than 15 minutes apart
    • PW1100G = Accelerate to Minimum of 60% N1 at intervals not more than 30 minutes apart
134
Q

If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine, what should be done by the flight crew?

A

PW1100G = Abort the engine start sequence, Maintenance action is Required

135
Q

How is Approach Idle different on NEO vs non-Neo aircraft?

A
  • Non-NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
    • Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are extended (flap lever not at 0 position)
  • NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
    • Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are at CONF 3 or FULL or when the landing gear is down.
136
Q

How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available?

A

The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed

137
Q

What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?

A

Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)

138
Q

If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?

A

The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.

139
Q

What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?

A
  • CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
    • CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
140
Q

When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?

A

During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.

141
Q

What is ALPHA LOCK?

A

This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.

142
Q

What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?

A

The ailerons droop

143
Q

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff

A

If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle.
• If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
• Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment.

144
Q

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on landing [Full Extension]

A

Full extension:
The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:
- Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
- Both main landing gears on ground,
- Both thrust levers at or below idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
- Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not
armed and:
- Both main landing gears on ground,
- Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servocontrol is available on each side, when:
- The ground spoilers are fully extended
- Flaps are not in clean CONF
- Pitch attitude is lower than 2.5 °
- Flying manually
- In normal law only

145
Q

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on landing [Partial Extension]

A

In order to accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping (PLD) function allows the ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection when the following conditions are met:
- Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
- One main landing gear on ground,
- Both thrust levers at or below idle position.
- Speed brake lever in the retracted position, but ground spoilers not armed and:
- One main landing gear on ground,
- Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the following conditions are met:
- Ground spoilers armed,
- Both main landing gears on ground,
- Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position.

146
Q

Discuss the ground spoiler logic on landing [Retraction]

A

The ground spoilers retract:
- After landing,
- After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed.
- During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20°.

147
Q

When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

A

During a touch and go/balk landing and at least one thrust lever is advance above 20%

148
Q

What are some conditions that inhibit speed brake extension?

A
  • Angle of Attack protection is active
    • Thrust levers above the MCT position
    • ALPHA FLOOR is active
149
Q

In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected, or electrical power is lost?

A

The spoilers automatically retract

150
Q

Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?

A
  • A319/A320 – Flaps FULL
    • A321 – Flaps 3 and FULL
151
Q

How would a flight crew analyze windshear with the RADAR system off?

A

If the PWS switch is in AUTO, reactive windshear detection is still available, even though the RADAR system is off

152
Q

When are predictive windshear (WINDSHEAR AHEAD) alerts inhibited?

A
  • On takeoff above 100 knots and up to 50 feet.
    • During landing below 50 feet
153
Q

When hand flying the aircraft how can the rudder be trimmed, if at all possible?

A

Using the RUD TRIM

154
Q

What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?

A

Nothing

155
Q

What is the RESET button used for?

A

To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged.

156
Q

What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?

A

Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals

157
Q

How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?

A

Rotate the handle clockwise three times until reaching the mechanical stop.

158
Q

What is the purpose of CPDLC (Controller/Pilot Datalink Communication)?

A

The CPDLC application enables an exchange of specific ATC messages between the flight crew and air traffic controller.

159
Q

What preventative measure can be taken by the crew to help prevent takeoff data from improperly uplinking?

A

Clearing the ACARS cache (by swapping databases) as directed by AOM Vol. 2 may reduce the occurrence of bad Takeoff data uplinks

160
Q

Which VHF is used for ACARS?

A

VHF 3

161
Q

What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?

A

Fly-By-Wire system

162
Q

Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated

A

Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated

163
Q

How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?

A
  • Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits
    • Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape
164
Q

How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?

A

Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)

165
Q

How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?

A
  • Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
    • Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
166
Q

How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?

A
  • Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
    • Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
167
Q

When operating in NORMAL LAW in flight mode, what does the side stick command for pitch and roll?

A
  • Pitch – G load
    • Bank – Roll rate
168
Q

What is the significance of the Side Stick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?

A

The other pilot has gained side stick authority

169
Q

Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each.

A
  • ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
    • SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
    • FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)
170
Q

What does SEC 3 control?

A

Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing

171
Q

What should happen to the THS after landing?

A

Reset to zero

172
Q

Describe some of protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW?

A
  • High Speed
    • High Angle of Attack (AOA) Protection
    • Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G With Flaps/Slats)
    • Pitch Attitude Protections (30° UP / 15° DN)
    • Bank Angle Protections (67°)
173
Q

Describe High Speed Protection.

A

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.

174
Q

What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?

A

It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW. In this case, the aircraft would need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).

175
Q

What is ALPHA MAX?

A

The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.

176
Q

How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?

A

When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, nose up pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to side stick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft side stick deflection.

177
Q

What protections and stabilities, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW

A
  • Load Factor
    • High speed stability
    • Low speed stability
178
Q

What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?

A

None

179
Q

When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process.

A

There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be available.

180
Q

If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?

A

If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.

181
Q

When is there a direct relationship between side stick and flight control surface deflection?

A
  • When in DIRECT LAW
    • On the ground (Ground Mode)
182
Q

It’s common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.

A

A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen. Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle of attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law

183
Q

How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW

A

By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits.

184
Q

What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW

A

Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.

185
Q

What does pressing the SYS pushbutton do?

A

All basic GPWS alerts (mode 1 to 5) are inhibited

186
Q

What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?

A

Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5

187
Q

What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton have on the TERR mode?

A

No effect at all

188
Q

Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3

A
  • To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3.
    • In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL
189
Q

Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton

A
  • To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
    • FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off
190
Q

What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?

A

No effect whatsoever

191
Q

What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PUSHBUTTON?

A

Valve opens to supply low pressure oxygen to the masks

192
Q

How does the passenger fixed oxygen system work and how long does it last?

A

Chemical oxygen generators last for approximately 15 minutes

193
Q

What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have deployed?

A

The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed manually.

194
Q

What causes automatic deployment of the masks?

A

Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet

195
Q

How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?

A

The RESET control slide will accomplish this – it does not happen automatically.

196
Q

What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?

A

The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing.

197
Q

Could the passenger oxygen mask provide oxygen for anything other than depressurization?

A

No, unless there is a written COM procedure for its use

198
Q

On the ground, if there is an amber half frame around the CKPT OXY PSI box, where would you look to see if you have enough oxygen for the flight?

A

COM Book 1 Performance – Limitations – Oxygen

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