Master Question Bank Flashcards by Steve Stephenson

Indicator brightness can be manually set to DIM or BRT or the system automatically won’t override the DIM position and illuminates the indicator lights for full bright for the following conditions?

A. When the load should feature for the fuel dump occurs

B. Loss of equipment cooling air flow (circulation fan in operative on the B757), has detected in the flight deck or in the Ford E/E compartment

C. As the ambient light in the flight deck reduces to three-quarter the light required for the photocell in the forward panel to daytime settings

B. Loss of equipment cooling air flow (circulation fan in operative on the B757), as detected in the flight deck or in the forward E/E compartment

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The B757/767 aircraft has what to types of pushbutton switches?

A. Alternate action and momentary action

B. Single action an alternate action

C. Title action and alternate action

A. Alternate action and momentary action

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The main cargo door maximum wind gust with the door open (structural consideration) is?

A . 4 0 k t s
B . 6 0 k t s
C . 6 5 k t s

B. 6 0 k t s

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Because the force required to move the crank increases with airspeed, it may not be possible to open or close the window at speeds above?

A . 2 3 0 k t s
B . 2 5 0 k t s
C . 2 7 0 k t s

B . 2 5 0 k t s

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The main cargo door maximum wind gust with the door open is?

60 kts

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The main cargo door maximum wind gust with the door open is?

60 kts

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The main cargo door maximum wind gust with the door open is?

60 kts

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The main cargo door maximum wind gust with the door open is?

60 kts

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During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output of the air conditioning packs?

A. The zone requiring the coolest air
B. The zone requiring the warmest air
C. The zone with the warmest selection

A. The zone requiring the coolest air

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What does a PACK OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?

Respective pack valve is closed.

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Because the force required to move the crank increases with airspeed, it may not be possible to open or close the windows at speeds above?

250 kts

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Because the force required to move the crank increases with airspeed, it may not be possible to open or close the windows at speeds above?

250 kts

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Because the force required to move the crank increases with airspeed, it may not be possible to open or close the windows at speeds above?

250 kts

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Because the force required to move the crank increases with airspeed, it may not be possible to open or close the windows at speeds above?

250 kts

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Which is true concerning an open cockpit window?

A. If the captains or first officers number two window open during flight, (including takeoff roll above 80 knots), the aircraft will continue to fly safely.

B. The captain must reject to take off if a cockpit window opens above 80 knots.

C. We do not have a window open no normal checklist in the QRH.

A. If the captains or first officers number two window open during flight, (including takeoff roll above 80 knots), the aircraft will continue to fly safely.

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Because the force required to move the crank increases with airspeed, it may not be possible to open or close the windows at speeds above?

250 kts

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During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output temperature of the air conditioning packs?

The zone requiring the coolest air

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The suction cup securing (SCSS) must be attached in the designated securing location and must comply with the following requirements:

Both statements are true.

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The suction cup securing (SCSS) must be attached in the designated securing location and must comply with the following requirements:

Both statements are true.

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The suction cup securing (SCSS) must be attached in the designated securing location and must comply with the following requirements:

Both statements are true.

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The suction cup securing (SCSS) must be attached in the designated securing location and must comply with the following requirements:

Both statements are true.

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The suction cup securing (SCSS) must be attached in the designated securing location and must comply with the following requirements:

Both statements are true.

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What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude indicator during cockpit preparation?

Landing altitude in feet.

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What does a PACK OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?

Respective pack valve is closed.

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What does a PACK OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?

Respective pack valve is closed.

What does a PACK OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?

Respective pack valve is closed.

What does a PACK OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?

Respective pack valve is closed.

What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude indicator during cockpit preparation?

Landing altitude in feet.

During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output temperature of the air conditioning packs?

The zone requiring the coolest air

During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output temperature of the air conditioning packs?

The zone requiring the coolest air

During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output temperature of the air conditioning packs?

The zone requiring the coolest air

During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output temperature of the air conditioning packs?

The zone requiring the coolest air

During automatic temperature control, which temperature zone controls the output temperature of the air conditioning packs?

The zone requiring the coolest air

What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude indicator during cockpit preparation?

Landing altitude in feet.

What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude indicator during cockpit preparation?

Landing altitude in feet.

What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude indicator during cockpit preparation?

Landing altitude in feet.

What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude indicator during cockpit preparation?

Landing altitude in feet.

9. What altitude setting is selected on the Landing Altitude Indicator during cockpit preparation? A. 200 feet below takeoff airport elevation B. Landing altitude in feet C. Cabin altitude as determined from placard

B. Landing altitude in feet

What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set to Auto 1 and it fails?

Control is automatically switches to Auto 2 controller.

What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set to Auto 1 and it fails?

Control is automatically switches to Auto 2 controller.

What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set to Auto 1 and it fails?

Control is automatically switches to Auto 2 controller.

What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set to Auto 1 and it fails?

Control is automatically switches to Auto 2 controller.

What does a PACK OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate?

Respective pack valve is closed.

What could cause Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate?

Trim Air switch OFF

What could cause Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate?

Trim Air switch OFF

What could cause Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate?

Trim Air switch OFF

What could cause Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate?

Trim Air switch OFF

What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set to Auto 1 and it fails?

Control is automatically switches to Auto 2 controller.

What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set to Auto 1 and it fails?

Control is automatically switches to Auto 2 controller.

10. What occurs if the Cabin Altitude Mode selector is set to AUTO 1 and it fails? A . N o t h i n g B . Control is automatically switched to Auto 2 controller C . Control must be manually switched to Auto 2 controller

B . Control is automatically switched to Auto 2 controller

What could cause Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate?

Trim Air switch OFF

What could cause Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate?

Trim Air switch OFF

11. What could cause Compartment Temperature INOP lights to illuminate? A. One pac k Of f B. Trim air switch is OFF C. Left pack in high flow

B. Trim air switch is OFF

12. What happens when an automatic control system fault or a pack outlet overheat is detected? A. The left pack is shut down B. The pack continues to operate in an uncontrolled, degraded condition, requiring crew action C. Right pack produces high flow

B. The pack continues to operate in an uncontrolled, degraded condition, requiring crew action

13. What does the Pack Reset switch do when pushed? A. Resets temperature to 75°F B. Resets flight deck equipment smoke detection C. Resets an overheated pack if the pack has cooled to a temperature below the overheat level

C. Resets an overheated pack if the pack has cooled to a temperature below the overheat level

14. When a Pack Control selector is positioned to STBY N, what is the outlet temperature of the pack in flight? A. A constant, moderate temperature (40°F inflight) B. Variable, dependent upon zone requirements C. Full warm setting

A. A constant, moderate temperature (40°F inflight)

15. What can cause a PACK OFF light to illuminate? A. Pack valve is closed B. Excessive airflow C. Trim Air switch OFF

A. Pack valve is closed

16. What cabin temperature do the packs attempt to maintain if the Trim Air switch is selected OFF? A. 50°F (10°C) B. Maintain all compartments at an average temperature of 75°F (24°C) C. Variable, depending upon zone requirement

B. Maintain all compartments at an average temperature of 75°F (24°C)

17. What is the purpose of Trim Air? A. Controls pack temperature B. Hot trim air from the bleed air system is added to meet the zone temperature requirements C. Cools conditioned air to meet the zone temperature requirements

B. Hot trim air from the bleed air system is added to meet the zone temperature requirements

18. What does the Trim Air OFF light indicate? A. A pack has failed B. An overheat of the pack C. TRIM AIR switch is OFF

C. TRIM AIR switch is OFF

19. What can cause a Compartment Temperature INOP light to illuminate? A. Excessive pack outlet temperature B. Excessive internal pack temperature or loss of air pressure C. Zone air overheat or fault in zone temperature controller

C. Zone air overheat or fault in zone temperature controller

20. What crew action illuminates the AUTO INOP light on the Cabin Altitude Control Panel? A. Selecting MAN position on the Cabin Altitude Control Panel B. Selecting AUTO C. Selecting AUTO 1

A. Selecting MAN position on the Cabin Altitude Control Panel

21. What cabin altitude extinguishes the CABIN ALTITUDE light and EICAS message? A. Cabin altitude below 8500 ft B. Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft C. Cabin altitude at 11,000 ft

A. Cabin altitude below 8500 ft

22. What is the expected pressurization limits for climbs and descents with Auto Rate knob set at the index mark? A. Climb - 500 fpm; descent - 300 fpm B. Climb - 50 fpm; descent - 30 fpm C. Climb - 1200 fpm; descent - 1200 fpm

A. Climb - 500 fpm; descent - 300 fpm

23. What does the Cabin Altitude AUTO INOP light indicate? A. Auto 1 inoperative B. Auto 2 inoperative C. Both Auto 1 and 2 are inoperative or manual mode selected

C. Both Auto 1 and 2 are inoperative or manual mode selected

24. What condition(s) activate the ground call horn? A. Outflow valve is open B. Insufficient equipment cooling airflow detected on the ground C. Pushing the Pack Reset switch for 10 seconds (757) Air Conditioning And Pressurization

B. Insufficient equipment cooling airflow detected on the ground

25. (757) One forward equipment cooling system supply fan operates at a time. What starts the alternate fan? A. High temperature in the forward E/E compartment B. Selecting the Alternate Equipment Cooling switch to ALTN C. Low cooling air pressure

B. Selecting the Alternate Equipment Cooling switch to ALTN

26. (757) Which condition automatically opens the overboard exhaust valve? A. One supply fan fails B. The recirculation fan fails C. A pressure differential greater than 3.25 psi

B. The recirculation fan fails

27. (757) What occurs if ALTN is selected on the Alternate Equipment Cooling switch? A. Activates the alternate supply fan and opens the overboard exhaust valve if required B. Shuts down aft E/E fans C. Inhibits Fuel CON FIG light for one minute (RR) Air Conditioning And Pressurization

A. Activates the alternate supply fan and opens the overboard exhaust valve if required

28. (RR) With the High Altitude Landing switch OFF, what cabin altitude annunciates the CABIN ALTITUDE light and EICAS message? A . 8 5 0 0 f t B . 1 0 , 0 0 0 f t C . 1 4 , 6 5 0 f t

B . 1 0 , 0 0 0 f t

29. (RR) With the High Altitude Landing switch ON, what cabin altitude annunciates the CABIN ALTITUDE light and EICAS message? A. Below 8500 f t B. 1 0 , 0 0 0 f t C. 1 4 , 6 5 0 f t

C. 1 4 , 6 5 0 f t

30. (767) What condition annunciates the Equipment Cooling VALVE light? A. No airflow in the E/E racks B. Equipment cooling valve(s) are not in the commanded position(s) C. An equipment cooling system test passed

B. Equipment cooling valve(s) are not in the commanded position(s)

31. (767) What does the NO COOLING light indicate with OVRD selected on the Equipment Cooling Panel? A. No reverse airflow through the E/E compartment B. A supply fan is inoperative C. The exhaust fan is inoperative

A. No reverse airflow through the E/E compartment

32. (767) What does the Equipment Cooling OVHT light indicate? A. Main Cargo Alert switch selected B. Smoke detected in the lavatory C. High temperature or low airflow in the equipment cooling system

C. High temperature or low airflow in the equipment cooling system

33. (767) What does the Equipment Cooling SMOKE light indicate? A. Smoke in the equipment cooling system B. Smoke in the bulk cargo area C. Smoke in the main cargo area

A. Smoke in the equipment cooling system

34. (767) Selecting the Equipment Cooling selector to OVRD results in what equipment cooling actions? A. Opens smoke override valve and positions equipment cooling system for reverse airflow B. The supply fan is signaled to operate and the manifold interconnect valve switches to recirculated fan air C. The overboard exhaust valve opens and the recirculation fan shuts down

A. Opens smoke override valve and positions equipment cooling system for reverse airflow

35. What systems rely on pneumatics? A. Air conditioning/pressurization and B757 thrust reversers B. Air conditioning/pressurization and engine start C. Tailskid, inboard ailerons and L3 window heat

B. Air conditioning/pressurization and engine start

36. What pneumatic sources are available on the ground? A. Ground air source only B. APU, ground air source, or engines C. A PU o n l y

B. APU, ground air source, or engines

37. What pneumatic sources are available in flight? A. Either operating engine and/or APU B. Left operating engine only C. Either operating engine

A. Either operating engine and/or APU

38. What does the Engine Bleed Air OFF light indicate? A. Engine bleed air valve open B. Engine bleed air valve closed C. High stage valve open

B. Engine bleed air valve closed

39. How is the APU protected from reverse air flow? A. System logic and a check valve B. Shuts down automatically C. Closes engine bleed valves

A. System logic and a check valve

40. What does the APU Bleed Air VALVE light indicate? A. (757) Right Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT B. Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft C. APU bleed air valve position disagrees with signaled position or valve in transit

C. APU bleed air valve position disagrees with signaled position or valve in transit

41. What does the Isolation VALVE light indicate? A. Isolation valve position disagrees with commanded position B. Isolation valve position agrees with commanded position C. (757) Left Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT

A. Isolation valve position disagrees with commanded position

42. After the aircraft is secured for flight but prior to takeoff someone notices that there is no bleed air pressure with the APU running. Is there a procedure for this non-normal condition? A. Yes, the procedure can be found in AOM chapter 4, supplemental B. No procedure exist for this condition C. This is a normal condition

A. Yes, the procedure can be found in AOM chapter 4, supplemental

43. (757) What does the HI STAGE light indicate? A. Engine bleed system pressure is excessive B. Engine bleed air temperature is excessive C. Duct leak in the pneumatic system

A. Engine bleed system pressure is excessive

44. (757) What does the BLEED light indicate? A. Overpressure indication B. Indicates bleed air temperature is excessive C. Duct leak in the pneumatic manifold

B. Indicates bleed air temperature is excessive

45. (757) What does a DUCT LEAK light indicate? A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected B. Overpressure C. Engine bleed air temperature is excessive

A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected

46. (757) What is indicated with an Engine Bleed Air OFF light and L or R ENG BLEED OFF EICAS message illuminated? A. Engine bleed air valve is open B. Engine bleed air valve is closed for a system fault C. A left or right duck leak has been detected (767) Bleed Air

B. Engine bleed air valve is closed for a system fault

47. (767) What does the OVHT light indicate? A. Pneumatic leak in the crossover manifold B. Overpressure condition C. Engine bleed air temperature is excessive

C. Engine bleed air temperature is excessive

48. (767) What does the BLEED light indicate? A. Over-temperature condition B. Engine high pressure bleed air valve and/or pressure regulating valves are open when they should be closed C. Duct leak in right manifold

B. Engine high pressure bleed air valve and/or pressure regulating valves are open when they should be closed

49. (767) What does a DUCT LEAK light and EICAS message indicate? A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected B. Overpressure condition C. Hydraulic fluid leak

A. High temperature bleed air leak is detected

50. (767) What occurs automatically following a strut duct leak? A. The respective engine bleed valves are closed automatically B. The respective engine bleed valves are opened automatically C. APU senses a fault and shuts down automatically

A. The respective engine bleed valves are closed automatically

51. When does probe heat operate? A. Anytime an engine is running, with the exception of the TAT probe, which is heated in flight only B. When engine anti-ice selected below 10°C in visible moisture C. When the APU is providing electrical power on the ground

A. Anytime an engine is running, with the exception of the TAT probe, which is heated in flight only

52. How are the forward windows heated? A. Only the side windows are heated B. All flight deck windows are electrically heated C. Only the two forward windows are electrically heated

B. All flight deck windows are electrically heated

53. Corrections to reduce Max EPR or N1 (767) limits when using wing anti-ice are based on switch or valve position? A. Switch position B. (PW) Switch position, (RR & 767) Valve position C. (PW) Valve position, (RR & 767) Switch position

C. (PW) Valve position, (RR & 767) Switch position

54. Which aircraft displays a TAI bug on the N1 RPM display when engine anti-ice is on and only a single bleed source is available? A. RR B. PW C. 767

B. PW

55. If the Left Engine Anti-ice switch is selected OFF and its VALVE light is on, what is the condition of the left engine anti-ice valve? A. Signaled open, and not open B. Signaled closed, and not closed C. Signaled open, and in transit

B. Signaled closed, and not closed

56. What light illuminates and EICAS message(s) display(s) to indicate one window is not being heated? A. One INOP light illuminates and the WINDOW HEAT EICAS advisory message displays B. One INOP light illuminates and the L or R FWDWINDOW or the L or R SIDE WINDOW EICAS advisory message displays C. One INOP light illuminates, the WINDOW HEAT and the L or R FWD/SIDE WINDOW EICAS advisory message displays

B. One INOP light illuminates and the L or R FWDWINDOW or the L or R SIDE WINDOW EICAS advisory message displays

57. What is indicated with an Engine Anti-ice VALVE light and L or R ENG ANTI-ICE EICAS message illuminated? A. Engine anti-ice valve disagrees with the switch position B. Ice has been detected on engine cowling C. Engine anti-ice system is no longer required

A. Engine anti-ice valve disagrees with the switch position

58. What is the position of the Engine Anti-ice valves when the Engine Anti-ice switches are ON? A . C l o s e d B . O p e n C . I n t r a n s i t

B . O p e n

59. (PW) What condition displays the TAI bug on the N1 RPM display (not to be confused with the thermal anti-ice TAI indication above the display)? A. Engine anti-ice is selected on with two engine bleed sources available B. When the APU bleed valve fails closed and engine anti-ice selected off C. When engine anti-ice is on and only a single engine bleed source is available

C. When engine anti-ice is on and only a single engine bleed source is available

60. (767) What does the ICE DET ON EICAS message indicate? A. Left air conditioning pack selected OFF B. Engine and wing anti-ice selected ON C. Ice detection sensor detects ice

C. Ice detection sensor detects ice

61. What does the Engine Generator OFF light and EICAS message indicate? A. Valve is open B. Generator control breaker is open C. Ground handling bus not powered

B. Generator control breaker is open

62. Cycling the Generator Control switch (OFF then ON) has what effect? A. Audio Select Panel degrades B. Ground handling bus powered in flight C. OFF - resets trip circuitry and ON arms generator to close generator to close automatically when generator power is available

C. OFF - resets trip circuitry and ON arms generator to close generator to close automatically when generator power is available

63. What occurs if the Generator Drive Disconnect switch is pushed? A. Approach mode is disabled B. Disconnects generator and drive from engine and cannot be reset by the flight crew C. Allows the bus tie system to power left AC and DC, and the battery bus DC

B. Disconnects generator and drive from engine and cannot be reset by the flight crew

64. What does the BUS OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate? A. Indicated AC bus is unpowered B. ADP and HDG are inoperative C. Ground handling bus is unpowered

A. Indicated AC bus is unpowered

65. What are the priorities for powering the left and right main AC busses? A. Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG), ground handling bus and ground service bus B. Respective IDG, APU generator and opposite IDG C. Respective engine-driven generator, ground handling bus and opposite engine-driven generator

B. Respective IDG, APU generator and opposite IDG

66. What three conditions shed the utility busses on a B757? A. main cargo alert switch selected, power transfer and loss of the left engine-driven generator B. Engine start, generator loss and standby AC loss C. Engine start, generator loss and overload

C. Engine start, generator loss and overload

67. When does the generator load shed protection arm regarding a generator loss? A. Aircraft in flight or both thrust levers moved into the takeoff range B. Following a generator failure C. Power transfer

A. Aircraft in flight or both thrust levers moved into the takeoff range

68. What occurs above or below 200′ RA following a failure of one engine-driven generator during a multi-autopilot approach, APU operating? A. Electrical system remains isolated and APU powers ground handling bus B. AC bus being powered by the APU when the associated bus tie breaker closes C. APU automatically powers the bus associated with the generator failure and ground handling bus remains powered

B. AC bus being powered by the APU when the associated bus tie breaker closes

69. What does the External Power AVAIL light indicate? A. External power is plugged in and power is acceptable B. External power is plugged in and power is not acceptable C. External power is not plugged in and power is not acceptable

A. External power is plugged in and power is acceptable

70. What are the power sources for the ground handling bus? A. Engine-driven generators, external power, and ground service bus B. External power or APU C. External power or right engine-driven generator

B. External power or APU

71. What is the normal power source for the ground service bus? A. Right main AC B. Left main AC C. Ground handling bus in flight

A. Right main AC

72. What does the Battery DISCH light and MAIN BAT DISCH EICAS message indicate? A. Battery is discharging B. Battery is being charged C. Left AC bus failure

A. Battery is discharging

73. What does the Standby Power Bus OFF light and STANDBY BUS OFF EICAS message indicate? A. HDG failed to operate B. Standby AC and/or DC bus powered with Standby Power selector in AUTO C. Standby AC and/or DC bus not powered and/or Standby Power selector in OFF

C. Standby AC and/or DC bus not powered and/or Standby Power selector in OFF

74. Which of the following will cause the Generator DRIVE light to illuminate? A. Generator drive oil filter is clogged B. Generator drive has overloaded C. Generator drive oil temperature is high

C. Generator drive oil temperature is high

75. What can power a utility bus? A. Respective main AC bus only B. Respective main AC or opposite utility bus only C. Respective main AC, opposite utility or AC bus

A. Respective main AC bus only

76. What busses power the autopilots during a coupled ILS approach (autoland) after selecting APP (approach switch)? A. Utility bus powers left and right autopilot and ground service bus powers the center autopilot B. Left main AC powers left autopilot, right main AC powers right autopilot and standby/battery powers center autopilot C. Left main AC powers left and center autopilot and standby/battery powers right autopilot

B. Left main AC powers left autopilot, right main AC powers right autopilot and standby/battery powers center autopilot

77. How are both standby busses powered when the Standby Power selector is positioned to BAT? A. Standby busses are powered by the ground service bus B. Standby busses are powered from the main battery C. Standby busses are unpowered

B. Standby busses are powered from the main battery

78. What does the AC Bus ISLN light indicate? A. Ground handling bus is unpowered B. Indicates fault or Bus Tie switch is OFF C. Commands bus tie system to power HDG

B. Indicates fault or Bus Tie switch is OFF

79. What does the Utility Bus OFF light and associated EICAS message indicate? A. Utility bus unpowered B. Galley powered C. Standby Power selector in BAT position

A. Utility bus unpowered

80. What is the purpose of the bus tie system? A. Allows a bus to be shorted B. Allows ground handling bus to power ground service bus via P6 Panel C. Allows the right and left main AC busses to be isolated or connected

C. Allows the right and left main AC busses to be isolated or connected

81. What does the Generator DRIVE light and L or R GEN DRIVE EICAS message indicate? A. No maintenance required B. The IDG has already been disconnected from the drive C. Generator Drive Low oil pressure or Generator Drive high oil temperature

C. Generator Drive Low oil pressure or Generator Drive high oil temperature

82. What components are powered from the ground handling bus? A. Captain's flight instrument transfer bus, left AC/DC and right DC through the inverter B. Lower cargo lights, refueling features and cargo handling C. Left FMC and both clocks on the ground with OVRD selected

B. Lower cargo lights, refueling features and cargo handling

83. When is the ground handling bus powered? A. I n f l i g h t B. Only on the ground C. Either on the ground or in flight

B. Only on the ground

84. What does the APU Generator OFF light and APU GEN OFF EICAS message indicate? A. APU drive disconnected manually B. Ground handling bus powered C. APU is running and the generator breaker is open because of a fault or the APU Generator switch is selected OFF

C. APU is running and the generator breaker is open because of a fault or the APU Generator switch is selected OFF

85. What items are powered from the ground service bus? A. Main battery charger, APU battery charger, AFT NO.1 E/E cooling fan, Left forward fuel pump and Main deck cargo lighting B. Two main battery chargers, aft #1 E/E cooling fan, right aft fuel pump and main deck cargo lighting C. Two main battery chargers, aft #2 E/E cooling fan, left forward fuel pump and lower forward and aft cargo lighting

A. Main battery charger, APU battery charger, AFT NO.1 E/E cooling fan, Left forward fuel pump and Main deck cargo lighting

86. (757) What busses are powered if both main AC busses fail? A. Hot battery bus, Battery bus, Standby DC bus, Standby AC bus B. Left and right transfer busses, standby AC/DC busses and the hot battery bus C. Standby AC/DC busses, battery bus DC, hot battery bus and the essential bus

A. Hot battery bus, Battery bus, Standby DC bus, Standby AC bus

87. (757) With the APU supplying both electrical and pneumatics, what occurs as the second engine is started as it relates to utility bus load shed? A. Both utility busses shed B. No utility bus sheds C. Only the respective utility bus sheds

C. Only the respective utility bus sheds

88. (757) With the APU supplying both electrical and pneumatics, what occurs as the first engine is started as it relates to utility bus load shed? A. No load shedding occurs B. Both utility busses shed C. Only the respective utility bus sheds

B. Both utility busses shed

89. (757) What is the normal source of power to the Captain's flight instruments? A. Right main AC bus B. Ground service bus C. Left main AC bus

C. Left main AC bus

90. (767) If both left and right AC busses are unpowered, what is the backup power source? A. Air Demand Pump (ADP) only B. Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG) C. Ground handling bus

B. Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG)

91. (767) Which busses are powered from the Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG)? A. Standby AC/DC busses, hot battery bus, battery bus DC, left and right transfer busses, and Captain and First Officer's flight instrument transfer busses B. Standby AC bus, ground handling bus, hot battery bus, left and right transfer busses and Captain's flight instrument transfer bus C. Standby AC/DC busses, hot battery bus, battery bus DC, left and right transfer busses and Captain's flight instrument transfer bus

C. Standby AC/DC busses, hot battery bus, battery bus DC, left and right transfer busses and Captain's flight instrument transfer bus

92. (767) What is the power source for the Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG)? A. Hot battery bus B. The HMG is powered by the center hydraulic system C. Ground service bus

B. The HMG is powered by the center hydraulic system

93. (767) APU supplying both electrical and pneumatics, what occurs as the second engine is started as it relates to utility bus load shed? A. Respective utility bus sheds B. Both utility busses shed C. There is no load shedding of utility busses during engine start

C. There is no load shedding of utility busses during engine start

94. (767) The loss of which bus or busses will cause the Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG) to operate? A. The left main AC bus B. Both AC and DC standby busses C. The left and right main AC busses

C. The left and right main AC busses

95. What occurs if EGT exceeds the red line limit? A. Pointer will change to amber B. Pointer remains white for takeoff C. Maximum exceedence value attained will be displayed

C. Maximum exceedence value attained will be displayed

96. What value is represented by the command sector on the N1 (B767) indicator? A. Actual thrust value B. The momentary difference between the command thrust level and actual N1 C. Maximum rated thrust for takeoff

B. The momentary difference between the command thrust level and actual N1

97. What system is controlled by the thrust management computer? A. Autothrottles B. Actual N1 indication C. Actual N3 indication

A. Autothrottles

98. What is calculated by the thrust management computer? A. Maximum EPR (757) or N1 (767) reference B. Fuel on command bug C. In flight start envelope

A. Maximum EPR (757) or N1 (767) reference

99. What occurs if one EICAS CRT fails? A. Engine parameters are displayed in Compacted Mode B. Status messages are viewable in flight C. Only EPR/N1 (757) or N1 (767) and EGT indications are available for the duration of the flight

A. Engine parameters are displayed in Compacted Mode

100. What does D-TO indicate on EICAS? A. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust B. Derate 1 C. Max

A. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust

101. What is the maximum Assumed Thrust reduction to takeoff thrust allowed by the thrust management computer? A. 25% reduction from Max, Derate 1, and Derate 2, and cruise thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value B. 25% reduction from maximum takeoff thrust or selected climb thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value C. 12% reduction from maximum takeoff thrust or selected continuous thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value

B. 25% reduction from maximum takeoff thrust or selected climb thrust, whichever is the greater thrust value

102. What does TO 1 indicate on EICAS? A. Max B. Takeoff thrust one, climb one preselected C. Assumed off Derate 1

B. Takeoff thrust one, climb one preselected

103. What does TO 2 indicate on EICAS? A. Max B. Assumed off Derate 2 C. Takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected

C. Takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected

104. What does D-TO 2 indicate on EICAS? A. De r a t e 2 B. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected C. Climb 2

B. Assumed temperature derated takeoff thrust two, climb two preselected

105. What does the L or R ENG STARTER EICAS message indicate? A. Engine starter overheat B. Engine starter valve is not in the commanded position C. Engine starter low oil pressure and high oil temperature

B. Engine starter valve is not in the commanded position

106. What does the L or R STARTER CUTOUT EICAS message indicate? A. Indicates start valve operates normally by automatically moving to AUTO at 50% N2 or N3 (RR) B. No ignition during start C. Engine start valve is open above engine RPM at which cutout should occur

C. Engine start valve is open above engine RPM at which cutout should occur

107. When does the red Maximum Start EGT limit radial remain in view during engine start? A. during and after engine start B. until the EGT reaches 900 degrees kelvin C. until the engine start is completed

C. until the engine start is completed

108. Where can the assumed temperature be entered manually? A. TAKEOFF REF page on the FMC only B. TAKEOFF REF page on the FMC or selected with the Assumed Temperature selector on the TMSP C. ACARS ASSUMED THRUST page

B. TAKEOFF REF page on the FMC or selected with the Assumed Temperature selector on the TMSP

109. What color is the REV annunciation on EICAS when the thrust reverser is unlocked and in transit? A . G r e e n B . A m b e r C . Ma g e n t a

B . A m b e r

110. Prior to engine start, the SPAR VALVE light for the left engine is illuminated. What is the system condition? A. Fuel spar valve is not in commanded position B. Engine fuel valve is not in commanded position C. Fuel spar valve is in the commanded position

A. Fuel spar valve is not in commanded position

111. Max motoring speed occurs when _________ A. N1 acceleration is less than 1% in 5 seconds B. N2 acceleration is less than 1% in 5 seconds C. N2 acceleration is less than 5% in 5 seconds

B. N2 acceleration is less than 1% in 5 seconds

112. (PW) What does the green TAI bug on the N1 parameter indicate? A. Wing anti -ice on B. TAT probe heat inoperative C. Engine anti-ice is on and only one engine bleed source is available

C. Engine anti-ice is on and only one engine bleed source is available

113. (PW) With only one engine bleed source available, what does the amber TAI above the N1 parameter indicate? A. N1 is below the reference level B. N1 is above the reference level C. N2 is below the reference level

A. N1 is below the reference level

114. (PW) What does the ENG LIMIT PROT light and EICAS message indicate? A . Ov e r h e a t B . EGT exceedence C. EEC using N2 as control parameter (RR) Engines

C. EEC using N2 as control parameter | (RR) Engines

115. (RR) What does the Fuel Control switch RICH position accomplish? A. Initially schedules additional fuel for start B. Closes engine and spar fuel valves C. Terminates ignition

A. Initially schedules additional fuel for start

116. (767) When derate climb power (CLB 1 or CLB 2) is used, when does it return to maximum climb power (CLB)? A. Gradually, starting at 10,000 ft and returns to maximum climb power at 12,000 ft B. Gradually, starting at 3000 ft and returns to maximum climb power at 10,000 ft C. Only when maximum climb power is manually selected

A. Gradually, starting at 10,000 ft and returns to maximum climb power at 12,000 ft

117. (767) What does the ENGINE CONTROLS EICAS message indicate? A. Faults are detected in the engine control system B. Thrust lever operation normal C. HPSOV valve not in commanded position

A. Faults are detected in the engine control system

118. (767) When does the auto relight ignition feature operate? A. When RICH position is selected on Fuel Control switches B. When N2 drops below idle speed C. When N2 is above idle speed

B. When N2 drops below idle speed

119. (767) What is the normal starter duty cycle? A. Up to 5 minutes on, followed by 1/2 minute off per minute on B. 2 minutes continuous operation, then run down to zero N2 C. 5 minutes on, followed by 10 minutes off per minute on

A. Up to 5 minutes on, followed by 1/2 minute off per minute on

120. What does the APU RUN light indicate? A. APU generator is running B. APU selector is ON C. The APU may be used to supply electrical power and bleed air

C. The APU may be used to supply electrical power and bleed air

121. What can cause the APU FUEL VAL light to illuminate? A. One of the two APU fire loops failed B. APU fuel valve NOT in commanded position C. Aircraft above 17,000 feet pressure altitude

B. APU fuel valve NOT in commanded position

122. What is the maximum operating altitude for the APU? A . 2 0 , 0 0 0 f t B . 1 7 , 0 0 0 f t C. Aircraft maximum certified altitude

C. Aircraft maximum certified altitude

123. What occurs when the APU selector is momentarily positioned to START? A. Automatically opens isolation valve B. Closes APU fuel valve C. Initiates automatic start sequence

C. Initiates automatic start sequence

124. What does the APU FAULT light indicate? A. APU automatic fault shutdown B. APU shuts down after a 5-minute cool down period C. APU is running in degraded mode

A. APU automatic fault shutdown

125. What affect does the Battery switch selected to OFF have on the APU if running? A. None on the ground. In flight, the APU shuts down with a cool down if required B. In flight, none. On the ground, causes the APU to shut down with a cool down if required C. None, APU continues to operate on the ground or in flight

B. In flight, none. On the ground, causes the APU to shut down with a cool down if required

126. What are the electrical requirements for starting the APU? A. APU b a t t e r y B. Both the APU battery and the aircraft main battery C. Power to the left DC bus

B. Both the APU battery and the aircraft main battery

127. When does the APU shut down immediately? A. When an APU FAULT light illuminates B. DC fuel pump fails C. Left FWD fuel boost pump fails

A. When an APU FAULT light illuminates

128. How can the APU shutdown be discontinued if the APU selector was inadvertently moved to OFF, but the RUN is still illuminated? A. APU selector OFF, then back ON B. APU selector to ON C. Momentarily moving the selector to START cancels the shutdown signal

C. Momentarily moving the selector to START cancels the shutdown signal

129. What causes the EICAS advisory message APU Fuel Val to appear? A. APU Fuel Val fails to reach the commanded position B. One of the two APU fire loops failed C. Aircraft above 17,000' pressure altitude

A. APU Fuel Val fails to reach the commanded position

130. How many APU start attempts are allowed in a 60-minute period? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

C. 3

131. Which of the following describes the START position of the APU selector? A. Momentary, spring-loaded to ON B. Latched, remains in START until moved C. Magnetically held until starter cutout

A. Momentary, spring-loaded to ON

132. What occurs if a fault is detected in one of the engine or APU fire detector loops? A. System does not reconfigure for single loop operation B. If one loop fails, the system will automatically reconfigure to single loop operation C. The fire warning annunciates

B. If one loop fails, the system will automatically reconfigure to single loop operation

133. What occurs if both engine or APU fire detector loops fail? A. Fire warning annunciates only B. Overheat occurs C. (PW and 767) FIRE/OVHT SYS EICAS message annunciates

C. (PW and 767) FIRE/OVHT SYS EICAS message annunciates

134. What occurs when an Engine Fire switch is PULLED OUT (choose the best answer)? A. fuel is shut off to the associated engine and the engine bleed valves are closed B. Disables forward equipment cooling fans C. Inhibits master warning system below 80 knots

A. fuel is shut off to the associated engine and the engine bleed valves are closed

135. When does automatic testing of the APU fire detectors and cargo compartment smoke detectors occur? A. Cargo smoke detector loops are not tested automatically. They are tested manually only by pushing the Wheel Well Fire Test switch B. Cargo smoke detector loops are tested continuously C. When electrical power is initially applied or transferred

C. When electrical power is initially applied or transferred

136. What occurs after pushing the Cargo Fire switch? A. Gradual aircraft depressurization occurs to approximate flight altitude B. Chemical agent is discharged into all cargo compartments C. Illuminates all cargo compartment lights

A. Gradual aircraft depressurization occurs to approximate flight altitude

137. How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for the APU? A. None. APU uses the engine fire bottles B. 2 C. 1

C. 1

138. How many fire extinguishing bottles are installed for engine fire control? A. 2 B. 4 C. 1

A. 2

139. What action(s) silences the fire bell? A. Selecting B on Audio Select Panel B. Pushing either Master/Warning Reset switch on the glareshield C. EICAS Control Panel CANCEL selected

B. Pushing either Master/Warning Reset switch on the glareshield

140. How many wheel well fire loops are installed for both the left and right main gear? A. Single fire detector loop B. Two wheel well fire detector loops installed for each main gear C. Single fire detector loop installed for the nose gear only

A. Single fire detector loop

141. What does the SYS FAIL P-RESET light and FIRE/OVHT SYS EICAS message indicate? A. Indicates a failure of both wheel well fire detection loops B. Fire or overheat detection is inoperative for loops as shown on the Status page C. Indicates failure of both overheat detectors in the APU

B. Fire or overheat detection is inoperative for loops as shown on the Status page

142. What does the L or R ENG OVHT light and EICAS message indicate? A. APU overheat detected B. Overheat is detected in the engine nacelle C. Bottle pressure low

B. Overheat is detected in the engine nacelle

143. When is the Engine or APU Fire Override switch required to be used? A. When an engine or APU fire is indicated B. If the respective switch fails to electrically unlock C. When an engine or APU overheat is indicated

B. If the respective switch fails to electrically unlock

144. (757) What motive force draws air through the main cargo smoke detectors? A. Center pneumatic duct pressure B. Each smoke detector is equipped with a static electric distribution alternate supply fan C. Aft E/E cooling fans

C. Aft E/E cooling fans

145. (757) Cargo compartment fire protection consists of what systems? A. Cargo compartment smoke detection, cargo compartment fire warning, and automatic cargo compartment fire extinguishing B. Cargo compartment smoke detection only C. Cargo compartment smoke detection, cargo compartment fire warning, and cargo compartment fire suppression

C. Cargo compartment smoke detection, cargo compartment fire warning, and cargo compartment fire suppression

146. (RR) What occurs if both engine fire loops fail? A. Fire indication occurs B. Re-configures for opposite loop detection C. Re-configures for single loop operation

A. Fire indication occurs

147. (767) What creates low pressure which causes sampled air to be pulled through smoke detectors? A. Recirculation fan B. Center pneumatic duct pressure C. Each smoke detector is equipped with a static electric distribution alternate supply fan

B. Center pneumatic duct pressure

148. (767) What occurs when the Cargo Fire switch is pushed (choose the best answer)? A. Equipment cooling goes into override mode B. Trips APU generator field C. Shuts down recirculation fan

A. Equipment cooling goes into override mode

149. What is the purpose of the rudder ratio system? A. System is designed to lockout the outboard ailerons at high speeds B. It's only associated with the rollout system during an autoland C. As airspeed increases, the ratio changer desensitizes inputs from the pilot to reduce the rudder deflection

C. As airspeed increases, the ratio changer desensitizes inputs from the pilot to reduce the rudder deflection

150. Which hydraulic system powers the rudder ratio system? A . R i g h t B . C e n t e r C . L e f t

C . L e f t

151. What are the limitations if a RUDDER RATIO light is illuminated and a RUDDER RATIO EICAS message is displayed with normal left hydraulic system pressure? A . N o n e B . Crosswind and autoland limitation must be observed C . Alternate gear extension must be used

B . Crosswind and autoland limitation must be observed

152. What is the purpose of the yaw damper system? A. Improves turn coordination and dutch roll damping B. Limits rudder deflection during taxi C. Modifies pilot aileron inputs above 240 knots

A. Improves turn coordination and dutch roll damping

153. When is Mach speed trim inhibited from trimming? A. When a fault exists in the rudder ratio system B. When a yaw damper fault occurs C. When electric, alternate, or autopilot trim is operating

C. When electric, alternate, or autopilot trim is operating

154. What does the STAB TRIM light and EICAS message indicate? A. Fault in backup mechanical trim system B. Stabilizer trimming is at half the rate C. Fault in the Mach speed trim system

B. Stabilizer trimming is at half the rate

155. What does an UNSCHED STAB TRIM light and EICAS message indicate? A. Uncommanded stabilizer movement B. Stabilizer trimming at half the rate C. Fault in the Mach speed trim system

A. Uncommanded stabilizer movement

156. An armed speedbrake lever moves to the UP position and the spoiler panels raise after landing when which of the following occurs? A. ROLLOUT mode engaged at 5 feet RA B. Both thrust levers are at idle C. Calibrated airspeed (CAS) below 80 knots

B. Both thrust levers are at idle

157. Alternate flap/slat system is operated by? A. Hydraulics B. Bl e e d a i r C. Electric motors

C. Electric motors

158. When are the leading edge slats extended to the landing position during normal flap extension? A . F l a p s 1 B . F l a p s 1 5 C . F l a p s 2 5

C . F l a p s 2 5

159. Why should the speed brake lever be moved from ARMED to the DOWN detent if the AUTO SPDBRK light illuminate? A. To prevent inadvertent speedbrake extension in flight B. To prevent asymmetric speedbrake deployment C. To restore operation of roll spoilers

A. To prevent inadvertent speedbrake extension in flight

160. Which of the following is true when the AUTO SPDBRK light is illuminated? A. Auto brakes are inoperative B. Speedbrakes can still be operated manually C. Manual speedbrake deployment is inoperative

B. Speedbrakes can still be operated manually

161. What is indicated by an illuminated SPOILERS light and SPOILERS EICAS message? A. One or more spoiler pairs are inoperative B. Spoilers operating normally C. Automatic speedbrakes inoperative

A. One or more spoiler pairs are inoperative

162. (757) What does MACH SPD TRIM light indicate? A. Mach speed trim system is inoperative B. Mach speed trim system is trimming the stabilizer C. Fault in backup mechanical trim system

A. Mach speed trim system is inoperative

163. (757) What occurs when either Alternate Flaps switch is pushed ON? A. Hydraulic power is removed from both leading and trailing edge drive systems B. Hydraulic power is removed from the respective drive systems C. Hydraulic drive systems operate at half the rate

A. Hydraulic power is removed from both leading and trailing edge drive systems

164. (757) What type of stall protection is installed? A. EEC commands maximum thrust regardless of TMSP selected thrust reference B. Control column nudger/pusher C. Autoslats; the leading edge slats automatically move from the takeoff position to the landing position when the stall warning system activates

C. Autoslats; the leading edge slats automatically move from the takeoff position to the landing position when the stall warning system activates

165. (757) If Flaps 30 is selected, what occurs if the flap load relief system is activated above 162 knots? A. Flaps retract to 20 B. Flaps retract to 25 C. Slats retract to the takeoff position

B. Flaps retract to 25

166. (757) Stabilizer trim settings below 3 units requires: A. Control wheel switches can be used. B. The use of manual trim levers or alternate stabilizer trim switches (as installed). C. Either Control wheel switches or manual/alternate (as installed) stabilizer trim switches can be used.

B. The use of manual trim levers or alternate stabilizer trim switches (as installed).

167. (767) When does the Pitch Enhancement System (PES) operate automatically? A. Loss of right and center hydraulics B. Loss of left and center hydraulics C. Loss of left and right hydraulics

B. Loss of left and center hydraulics

168. (767) What is the stab trim rate when the Pitch Enhancement System (PES) is operating? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 2/10

B. 1/4

169. (767) How does the Pitch Enhancement System (PES) operate? A. The PES uses a PTU driven by the right hydraulic system which uses trapped left trim system fluid to power stabilizer trim B. The PES uses the HDG powered from center pneumatic pressure which uses trapped left trim system fluid to power the elevator C. The PES uses a PTU driven by the left hydraulic system which uses trapped right trim system fluid to power the stabilizer

A. The PES uses a PTU driven by the right hydraulic system which uses trapped left trim system fluid to power stabilizer trim

170. (767) What occurs when either Alternate Flaps switch is pushed ON? A. Hydraulic power is removed from both leading and trailing edge Power Drive Units (PDUs) B. Shuts off hydraulic power to selected flap or slat drive unit(s) C. Hydraulic Power Drive Units (PDUs) operate at half the rate

B. Shuts off hydraulic power to selected flap or slat drive unit(s)

171. (767) Stabilizer trim settings below 3 units requires: A. Control wheel switches can be used. B. The use of manual trim levers or alternate stabilizer trim switches (as installed). C.Either Control wheel switches or manual/alternate(as installed) stabilizer trim switches can be used

B. The use of manual trim levers or alternate stabilizer trim switches (as installed).

172. (767) What type of stall protection is installed? A. Control column nudger/pusher B. EEC commands maximum thrust regardless of TMSP selected thrust reference C. Autoslats; the leading edge slats automatically move from the takeoff position to the landing position when the stall warning system activates

A. Control column nudger/pusher

173. (767) If Flaps 30 is selected, what occurs if the flap load relief system is activated above 170 knots? A. Inboard aileron droops B. Flaps retract to 25 C. Flaps retract to 20

C. Flaps retract to 20

174. (767) Shortly after selecting flaps 1, a LE non- normal occurs, what automatic action will take place? A. All three PDU hydraulic shut off valves close. B. Hydraulic power to only the slats is automatically shut off. C. Arms LE PDU alternate electric motor.

B. Hydraulic power to only the slats is automatically shut off.

175. What type of information is provided by the IRSs? A. Heading, acceleration, altitude, cost index, winds, attitude and position B. True and magnetic heading, acceleration, track, altitude data, aircraft position, groundspeed, wind speed and direction and vertical speed. C. Climb gradient, acceleration, track, speed, winds, attitude and FMC generated magenta line

B. True and magnetic heading, acceleration, track, altitude data, aircraft position, groundspeed, wind speed and direction and vertical speed.

176. Why does the ON DC light illuminate when the IRS Mode selector is positioned to NAV? A. IRS performs a short power test B. IRSs always operate on DC and use AC as backup power C. IRSs require DC power during Standby Navigation System (SNS) operation

A. IRS performs a short power test

177. Where can you input present position required for normal IRS alignment? A. FMC HOLD page and IRS HDG mode selected B. PROGRESS page 2 and IRS Mode Control Panel keyboard C. CDU POS INIT page and IRS Mode Control Panel keyboard

C. CDU POS INIT page and IRS Mode Control Panel keyboard

178. What does an L, C or R IRS ON DC EICAS message indicate? A. Indicates IRS needs re-alignment B. Indicated IRS AC normal power has failed and the IRS DC backup power is being used C. Indicates ILS receiver has failed

B. Indicated IRS AC normal power has failed and the IRS DC backup power is being used

179. What does the IRS DC FAIL light indicate? A. IRS DC voltage above normal and does not continue to operate normally if associated AC power is available. B. IRS DC voltage normal C. IRS DC backup power for the related IRS has failed

C. IRS DC backup power for the related IRS has failed

180. What does the IRS FAULT light indicate? A. IRS has detected a fault B. HDG position selected by the IRS System Display selector C. Associated FMC has failed

A. IRS has detected a fault

181. What is the difference between a normal and a fast alignment? A. Some accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 5-second realignment B. All accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 15-second realignment C. Some accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 30-second realignment

C. Some accumulated IRS errors can be removed by a 30-second realignment

182. What does an FMC INSUFFICIENT FUEL message indicate? A. Estimated fuel at destination will be 0 lbs B. Estimated fuel at destination less than entered RESERVES value C. Estimated fuel at destination will be 4000 lbs

B. Estimated fuel at destination less than entered RESERVES value

183. (757) If both AC busses are lost, what is the expected IRS configuration? A. Standby power to left and center IRSs is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power B. Standby power to left and right IRSs is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power C. Standby power to right and center IRSs is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power

A. Standby power to left and center IRSs is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power

184. (767) If both AC busses are lost, what is the expected IRS configuration (HDG operating)? A. Standby power to left IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power B. Standby power to right IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power C. Standby power to center IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power

B. Standby power to right IRS is limited to 5 minutes to save battery power

185. What does a Main Tank Pump PRESS light and associated EICAS message indicate? A. Respective engine not above 50% N2 or N3 (RR), output pressure low, or Main Tank Pump switch OFF B. Fuel output pressure low with the pump selected ON, or Main Tank Pump switch OFF C. APU running

B. Fuel output pressure low with the pump selected ON, or Main Tank Pump switch OFF

186. What does a Center Pump PRESS light and associated EICAS message indicate? A. Center pneumatic pressure low B. No center tank fuel remaining, output pressure high or respective N2 above 50% with Center Pump switch ON C. No center tank fuel remaining, output pressure low with the pump selected ON or respective N2 or N3 (RR) below 50% with Center Pump switch ON

C. No center tank fuel remaining, output pressure low with the pump selected ON or respective N2 or N3 (RR) below 50% with Center Pump switch ON

187. What does an FMC INSUFFICIENT FUEL message indicate? A. Predicted fuel at destination will be 0 lbs B. Predicted fuel at destination will be 4000 lbs C. Predicted fuel at destination is less than the FMC reserves

C. Predicted fuel at destination is less than the FMC reserves

188. What does a Crossfeed VALVE light and associated EICAS message indicate? A. Crossfeed valve operating normally B. Crossfeed valve not in selected position C. Fuel jettison system activated

B. Crossfeed valve not in selected position

189. What condition causes the L FWD Pump PRESS light to extinguish with the switch OFF? A. APU running on the ground B. Left engine running C. Weather radar TEST mode selected

A. APU running on the ground

190. Which pump is signaled to operate with no main AC power available for an APU start? A. Center #2 electric AC fuel pump B. DC pump located in the left main fuel tank C. L AFT pump regardless of switch position with no AC power available

B. DC pump located in the left main fuel tank

191. What does the LOW FUEL EICAS message and FUEL CONFIG light indicate? A. Crossfeed valve position disagrees with commanded position B. Fuel quantity is low in either left or right main tank C. Less than 2200 lbs in the center tank

B. Fuel quantity is low in either left or right main tank

192. The center fuel pumps have _____________ output pressure than the main tank fuel pumps. A. three t imes B. g r e a t e r C. four times

B. g r e a t e r

193. Fuel balancing is accomplished by ______________? A. Closing the crossfeed valve(s) and turning on the fuel pump switches for the center fuel tank. B. Turning off the left or right main fuel tank that has the highest quantity C. Opening the crossfeed valve(s) and turning off the Fuel Pump switches for the left or right main fuel tank that has the lowest quantity

C. Opening the crossfeed valve(s) and turning off the Fuel Pump switches for the left or right main fuel tank that has the lowest quantity

194. Center tank fuel will feed first if all fuel pumps are on, because: A. Main tank fuel feed valves close when the Center Pump switches are ON B. The center tank fuel pump output pressure is greater than the main tank fuel pump output pressure C. Automatic tank sequencing by the fuel quantity monitoring system is designed to keep the aircraft CG within limits

B. The center tank fuel pump output pressure is greater than the main tank fuel pump output pressure

195. What does the L and/or R FUEL SYS PRESS EICAS message indicate? A. All fuel pumps have low output pressure or all fuel pumps on one side have low output pressure and the Crossfeed switch(es) are OFF B. One or both Main Tank Pumps should be turned ON C. The center tank fuel pump is supplying fuel pressure

A. All fuel pumps have low output pressure or all fuel pumps on one side have low output pressure and the Crossfeed switch(es) are OFF

196. What does the INSUFFICIENT FUEL CDU message indicate? A. Predicted fuel at alternate is greater than the FMC reserves B. Predicted fuel at destination is less than FMC reserves C. Fuel quantity is low in the center fuel tank

B. Predicted fuel at destination is less than FMC reserves

197. What causes the FUEL CONFIG light and associated EICAS message to indicate on the B757? A. Less than 1800 lbs in either main tank, or more than 2200 lbs in the center tank with Right Tank Pump switch OFF or fuel differs by 200 lbs between main tanks B. Less than 5000 lbs in either main tank, or more than 1200 lbs in the center tank with Center Pump switches OFF or fuel differs by 2200 lbs between main tanks C. Less than 2200 lbs in either main tank, or more than 1200 lbs in the center tank with Center Fuel Pump switches OFF or fuel differs by 1800 lbs between main tanks

C. Less than 2200 lbs in either main tank, or more than 1200 lbs in the center tank with Center Fuel Pump switches OFF or fuel differs by 1800 lbs between main tanks

198. What are the usable fuel amounts on the B767? A. 49,650 lbs for each main tank and 72,855 lbs for the center tank B. 40,267 lbs for each main tank and 80,132 lbs for the center tank C. 14,650 lbs for each main tank and 36,400 lbs for the center tank

B. 40,267 lbs for each main tank and 80,132 lbs for the center tank

199. How much of an imbalance annunciates the FUEL CONFIG light and associated EICAS message on the B767? A. 2500 lbs (48,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1500 lbs (48,000 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1500 lbs (greater than 79,800 lbs) B. 2200 lbs (48,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1200 lbs (48,000 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1500 lbs (greater than 79,800 lbs) C. 2500 lbs (51,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1500 lbs (36,400 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1500 lbs (greater than 22,000 lbs)

A. 2500 lbs (48,000 lbs or less), linear reduction to 1500 lbs (48,000 lbs to 79,800 lbs), 1500 lbs (greater than 79,800 lbs)

200. What does a FUEL JET NOZ EICAS message and associated VALVE light indicate on the Fuel Jettison Panel on the B767? A. Associated fuel jettison pump is inoperative B. Associated fuel jettison transfer valve is not in commanded position C. Inflight, the nozzle valve position disagrees with the commanded position

C. Inflight, the nozzle valve position disagrees with the commanded position

201. How much fuel is jettisoned at a rate of approximately per minute on the B767? A . 2 6 0 0 l b s B . 2 2 0 0 l b s C . 1 2 0 0 l b s

A . 2 6 0 0 l b s

202. What does an L or R FUEL JET PUMP EICAS message indicate on the B767? A. Associated fuel jettison pump is inoperative B. Fuel jettison is not available C. Main tank pump inoperative HYDRAULICS

A. Associated fuel jettison pump is inoperative

203. What does RF indicate on the Status page adjacent to hydraulic quantity? A. Reservoir requires refilling B. Reservoir over filled and greater than 1.25 C. Reservoir doesn't require refill

A. Reservoir requires refilling

204. What does the SYS PRESS light indicate? A. Electric pump pressure low B. Engine-driven pump pressure low C. Low system pressure

C. Low system pressure

205. What does an Engine or Electric Hydraulic Pump PRESS light indicate? A. Excessive system pressure B. Push to activate PTU C. Low pump pressure

C. Low pump pressure

206. What is powered by the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)? A. Reserve brakes B. Alternate brakes C. Flight controls

C. Flight controls

207. What condition automatically deploys the Ram Air Turbine (RAT)? A. Both engines fail B. Loss of center hydraulics C. Loss of one engine

A. Both engines fail

208. What is the minimum airspeed required to maintain adequate Ram Air Turbine (RAT) hydraulic pressure? A. Airspeed above 140 knots B. 250 knots C. 130 knots

C. 130 knots

209. What cockpit indication assures adequate pressure to the center system when the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) is deployed? A. PRESS light B. Amber PRESS light C. RF on Status page

A. PRESS light

210. Is it possible to deploy the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) on the ground with no power on the aircraft? A. No B. Yes, RAT will display on the ground if RAT switch is pushed regardless of Battery switch position C. Yes, every time both engines are shut down, the RAT deploys on the ground

B. Yes, RAT will display on the ground if RAT switch is pushed regardless of Battery switch position

211. How does pulling the Engine Fire switch affect the hydraulic system? A. Depressurizes the associated hydraulic system B. Disconnects the engine hydraulic pump, requiring maintenance reset C. Shuts off fluid to the engine pump and depressurizes the pump

C. Shuts off fluid to the engine pump and depressurizes the pump

212. (757) What does the RSVR light indicate? A. Reserve brakes and steering active B. Low reservoir hydraulic quantity and/or pressure C. Automatic right system isolation has occurred

B. Low reservoir hydraulic quantity and/or pressure

213. (757) What does the OVHT light indicate? A. Hydraulic system is overheated B. Engine-driven pump pressure low C. Respective pump temperature is high

C. Respective pump temperature is high

214. (757) What are the electrical inhibits associated with the hydraulic system? A. With one engine-driven generator operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the number two electric pump is inhibited B. With two engine-driven generators operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the number one electric pump is inhibited C. With one engine-driven generator operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the left engine-driven pump is inhibited

A. With one engine-driven generator operating and both Center Electric Pump switches ON, the number two electric pump is inhibited

215. (757) Which components are powered by the left hydraulic system? A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, and right thrust reverser B. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering C. Flight controls only

B. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering

216. (757) Which components are powered by the center hydraulic system? A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, and right thrust reverser B. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering C. Flight controls

C. Flight controls

217. (757) Which components are powered by the right hydraulic system? A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, and right thrust reverser B. Flight controls C. Flight controls, alternate brakes, left thrust reverser, main cargo door, flaps and slats, landing gear, and nosewheel steering

A. Flight controls, normal and reserve brakes, and right thrust reverser

218. (757) The left reservoir maintains reserve hydraulic fluid for use by: A. Reserve brakes and steering B. Power Transfer Unit (PTU) C. Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG)

B. Power Transfer Unit (PTU)

219. (757) What condition(s) cause the Power Transfer Unit (PTU) to operate automatically? A. Left engine failure and/or left engine-driven hydraulic pump pressure low B. Left engine failure and/or left electric hydraulic pump pressure low C. Left engine failure only

A. Left engine failure and/or left engine-driven hydraulic pump pressure low

220. (757) Which components are powered by the Power Transfer Unit (PTU)? A. Reserve brakes and steering B. Landing gear, nosewheel steering, flaps and slats, and flight controls C. Landing gear, nosewheel steering, flaps and slats, and main cargo door

C. Landing gear, nosewheel steering, flaps and slats, and main cargo door

221. (757) The center reservoir maintains reserve hydraulic fluid for use by: A. Ram Air Turbine (RAT) B. Reserve brakes C. Power Transfer Unit (PTU)

A. Ram Air Turbine (RAT)

222. (757) The right reservoir maintains reserve hydraulic fluid for use by: A. Ram Air Turbine (RAT) B. Power Transfer Unit (PTU) C. Reserve brakes

C. Reserve brakes

223. (767) What does a QTY light indicate? A. Low pump pressure B. Low reservoir quantity C. Low reservoir quantity and/or pneumatic pressure

B. Low reservoir quantity

224. (767) Which components are powered by the left hydraulic system? A. Landing gear and flight controls B. Normal brakes and flight controls C. Flight controls

C. Flight controls

225. (767) What reservoir maintains reserve hydraulic fluid for use by reserve brakes and steering? A. Center hydraulic system B. Al l t h r e e C. Left hydraulic system

A. Center hydraulic system

226. (767) Which system(s) use reserve hydraulic fluid? A. Nosewheel steering, landing gear, flaps and slats, and main cargo door B. Reserve brakes and steering C. Flight controls

B. Reserve brakes and steering

227. (767) Which components does the center hydraulic system power? A. Flight controls B. Normal brakes and flight controls C. Flight controls, alternate brakes, reserve brakes, tailskid, landing gear, nosewheel steering, Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG), and flaps and slats

C. Flight controls, alternate brakes, reserve brakes, tailskid, landing gear, nosewheel steering, Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG), and flaps and slats

228. (767) Which components are powered by the right hydraulic system? A. Flight controls and normal brakes and Pitch Enhancement System (PES) B. Flight controls, landing gear, alternate and reserve brakes, tailskid, Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) and nosewheel steering C. Flight controls only

A. Flight controls and normal brakes and Pitch Enhancement System (PES)

229. (767) When does the left electric demand pump operate in AUTO? A. Flap lever in 1, 5, 15, or 20 positions B. Left engine pump pressure low C. When the landing gear and/or flaps/slats are operating, or low system pressure or high demand on the left hydraulic system

B. Left engine pump pressure low

230. (767) When does the right electric demand pump operate in AUTO? A. Fuel Control switch in RUN, or right hydraulic system pump pressure low or on the ground with Flaps 25 or 30 selected B. Right hydraulic system pressure low, or in flight with Flaps 1, 5, 15 or 20 selected C. Right engine pump pressure low or flap lever in 1, 5, 15 or 20 to ensure pressure to normal brakes during takeoff

C. Right engine pump pressure low or flap lever in 1, 5, 15 or 20 to ensure pressure to normal brakes during takeoff

231. (767) When does the Air Demand Pump (ADP) operate automatically? A. Loss of the right hydraulic system B. Left engine below 50% N2 C. Low center hydraulic system pressure, heavy load items are selected or when the Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG) is signaled to operate

C. Low center hydraulic system pressure, heavy load items are selected or when the Hydraulic Motor Generator (HMG) is signaled to operate

232. (767) What is the power source for the Air Demand Pump (ADP)? A. Bleed air from the center pneumatic duct B. L e f t AC b u s C. Right AC bus

A. Bleed air from the center pneumatic duct

233. What does the BRAKE SOURCE light and EICAS message indicate? A. Normal and alternate brake system pressure low B. Alternate brakes active C. Reserve brakes active

A. Normal and alternate brake system pressure low

234. What does a GEAR DISAGREE light and EICAS message indicate? A. Gear is down and locked B. Burned out bulbs C. Gear disagrees with lever position

C. Gear disagrees with lever position

235. What type of braking is available if normal/reserve and alternate brake hydraulic power is lost? A. Accumulator braking B. Aerodynamic braking C. Antiskid braking only

A. Accumulator braking

236. Which brake system(s) is/are provided with antiskid protection? A. Normal/reserve and alternate brake hydraulic systems B. Normal brake hydraulic system only C. Normal/reserve brake hydraulic system only

A. Normal/reserve and alternate brake hydraulic systems

237. What is accomplished by positioning the gear lever OFF? A. Stops operation of the brake cooling fans B. Depressurizes landing gear system C. Extinguishes the logo light

B. Depressurizes landing gear system

238. Which one of the following indicates the auto brakes system is operative? A. AUTO BRAKES light illuminated B. AUTO SPEEDBRAKE message illuminated C. AUTO BRAKES light extinguished

C. AUTO BRAKES light extinguished

239. Which of the following provides the maximum braking pressure? A. Auto Brakes selector set to 4 B. Auto Brakes selector set to MAX AUTO C. RTO initiated above 85 knots

C. RTO initiated above 85 knots

240. If the auto brakes system is not disarmed by the pilot, down to what speed will the system provide automatic braking? A. Complete stop B. Thirty knots C. Sixty knots

A. Complete stop

241. (757) What occurs if the Reserve Brakes switch is selected? A. Allows use of reserve right hydraulic fluid, activates right electric hydraulic pump and isolates the right electric hydraulic pump power to the normal brake system B. Fluid is isolated for alternate brakes, supply valve opens, isolation valve closes, and right electric pump is signaled to operate C. Fluid is isolated for normal brakes, supply valve closes, isolation valve closes, and right engine-driven pump is signaled to operate

A. Allows use of reserve right hydraulic fluid, activates right electric hydraulic pump and isolates the right electric hydraulic pump power to the normal brake system

242. (757) Which hydraulic system powers normal brakes? A . L e f t B . C e n t e r C . R i g h t

C . R i g h t

243. (757) What is the active brake system following a SYS PRESS light and a R HYD SYS PRESS EICAS message? A. Normal brakes B. Reserve brakes C. Alternate brakes

C. Alternate brakes

244. (757) What are the auto brake and antiskid differences as it relates to alternate brakes? A. Full auto brake capability and normal antiskid B. No auto brakes and laterally paired wheel antiskid C. Separate antiskid system using its own IRS and center system trapped fluid

B. No auto brakes and laterally paired wheel antiskid

245. (757) How does the alternate gear extension system operate? A. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped center hydraulic system fluid B. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped left hydraulic system fluid C. Mechanically releases the main gear door locks and nose gear uplock using an electric motor

B. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped left hydraulic system fluid

246. (767) What does an L or R DRAG BRACE EICAS message indicate? A. The gear is not down B. Alternate gear extension has occurred C. Main gear drag brace is not locked down

C. Main gear drag brace is not locked down

247. (767) Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes? A . R i g h t B . L e f t C . C e n t e r

A . R i g h t

248. (767) What occurs after selecting the Reserve Brakes and Steering switch? A. Supply valve opens, isolation valve closes, No. 2 center electric pump is signaled to operate regardless of switch position B. Provides reserve hydraulic fluid to the center number one (1) electric hydraulic pump regardless of pump switch position and pump pressure is then supplied exclusively to the alternate brake system and nosewheel steering system C. Supply valve opens, isolation valve closes, and right hydraulic electric pump is signaled to operate regardless of switch position

B. Provides reserve hydraulic fluid to the center number one (1) electric hydraulic pump regardless of pump switch position and pump pressure is then supplied exclusively to the alternate brake system and nosewheel steering system

249. (767) What is the active brake system following a SYS PRESS light and a R HYD SYS PRESS EICAS message? A. Alternate brakes powered from the left hydraulic system B. Alternate brakes powered from the center hydraulic system C. Reserve brakes powered from the right hydraulic system

B. Alternate brakes powered from the center hydraulic system

250. (767) How does the alternate gear extension system operate? A. An electric motor is used to trip the locking mechanism for each gear B. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped left hydraulic system fluid C. Signals a small electric hydraulic pump to release the uplocks using trapped center hydraulic system fluid

A. An electric motor is used to trip the locking mechanism for each gear

251. (767) What number activates the BRAKE TEMP light? A. 2-4 B. 0-2 C . 5 or greater

C. 5 or greater

252. What occurs if the Master Warning/Caution Reset switch is pushed? A. Both Master WARNING and CAUTION lights extinguish B. Only the EICAS CAUTION message extinguishes C. Both Master CAUTION lights extinguish and the EICAS CAUTION message extinguishes

A. Both Master WARNING and CAUTION lights extinguish

253. What switch silences the fire bell? A. EICAS Cancel switch B. Master Warning/Caution Reset switch C. Maximum Indication Reset switch

B. Master Warning/Caution Reset switch

254. When are the fire bell and Master WARNING lights inhibited during part of the takeoff? A. Begins at an airspeed of 80 knots and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time since nose strut extension or first penetration of 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first B. The fire bell and Master WARNING lights are never inhibited during takeoff to provide immediate crew awareness and corrective action C. Nose strut extension and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time or at 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first

C. Nose strut extension and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time or at 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first

255. When are the beeper and Master CAUTION lights inhibited during takeoff? A. At 80 knots and ends at either 20 seconds since nose strut extension or 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first B. Nose strut extension and ends at either 20 seconds elapsed time or at 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first C. The beeper and Master CAUTION lights are never inhibited during takeoff to provide immediate crew awareness

A. At 80 knots and ends at either 20 seconds since nose strut extension or 400 feet radio altitude, whichever occurs first

256. Which system alert message requires immediate crew awareness and corrective action? A . Warnings B . Ca u t i o n s C. S t a t u s

A . Warnings

257. Which system alert message requires immediate crew awareness and may require corrective action? A . Warnings B . Cautions C. Status

B . Cautions

258. What occurs if both EICAS computers fail? A. Standby Engine Indicator (SEI) is automatically activated B. Standby Engine Indicator (SEI) is automatically activated provided OFF is selected C. The EICAS message BOTH EICAS COMPUTERS FAIL is displayed

A. Standby Engine Indicator (SEI) is automatically activated

259. If one EICAS screen is inoperative, what occurs if the Status Display switch is selected in flight? A. The Status messages will display on the remaining screen replacing the engine instruments B. Nothing, the Status page is inhibited until the aircraft is on the ground following a failure of one EICAS screen C. FMC STATUS page 2 of 12 displays Status messages

B. Nothing, the Status page is inhibited until the aircraft is on the ground following a failure of one EICAS screen

260. What occurs if the upper EICAS CRT fails? A. Engine indications appear on the lower EICAS CRT B. Engine indications appear on the Standby Engine Indicator C. A DISPLAY INOP EICAS message appears on the upper EICAS CRT

A. Engine indications appear on the lower EICAS CRT

261. (767 Differences, N335UP and subsequent) When does the Weather Radar provide Predictive Windshear Alerts (PWS)? A. When it detects disturbed air ahead of the aircraft which contains moisture or particulate matter, and which fits a known pattern of windshear activity B. When it detects rain intensity greater than 2 inches per hour C. When GPS acceleration/deceleration rates exceed system parameters Flight Instruments, Displays

A. When it detects disturbed air ahead of the aircraft which contains moisture or particulate matter, and which fits a known pattern of windshear activity

262. "Minimums" EGPWS aural callout. Which statement is true? A. Aircraft is at Decision Height set between 10,000 feet AGL and 200 feet AGL B. This callout will override an altitude callout set for the same height AGL C. "Minimums" aural callout overrides "windshear" and "Pull up" EGPWS warning.

B. This callout will override an altitude callout set for the same height AGL

263. "One thousand" EGPWS aural callout occurs at 1000' MSL. A. True B. False C. There is no "1000 feet" callout

B. False

264. During preflight, the NORMAL/100% Switch on the O2 mask should be set to: A. NORMAL B. 100% C. EMERGENCY

B. 100%

265. What is the maximum drop in O2 pressure during preflight? A. 80 PSI B. 100 PSI C. 200 PSI

B. 100 PSI

266. Quick donning full face Diluter-Demand oxygen masks are installed in which positions? A. Captain and First Officer only B. Captain, First Officer, and First Observer C. All Supernumerary seat positions

B. Captain, First Officer, and First Observer

271. If you observe a ground spill, what are your actions? A. Use the hazardous material clean-up kit from the aircraft to contain the spill B. Notify ground support and evacuate the area if necessary C. Notify ATC and request a medical response team

B. Notify ground support and evacuate the area if necessary

273. What action should be taken by the captain during preflight if the jumpseater’s suitability comes into question? A. Use the 800 number in the FOM, Chapter 12 to contact the TSA’s Cockpit Access Security System (CAS) Coordinator B. Contact the UPS Jumpseat Desk to confirm the status of the jumpseater C. Ask the jumpseater to leave, and if non-compliant, inform the Ground Security Coordinator

C. Ask the jumpseater to leave, and if non-compliant, inform the Ground Security Coordinator

267. What is your most significant threat in a decompression scenario? A. Excessive respiration B. Hypoxia C. Visual impairment

B. Hypoxia

268. Smoke in film illumination procedures are designed primarily to evacuate the cabin of which of the following? A. Foreign pollutants B. Debris C. The cause of the pollutant

A. Foreign pollutants

269. Which of the following is an accurate description of the landing urgency definition for “land immediately”? A. And immediate landing is required when the risks associated with remaining airborne - for example smoke, fire, etc. - exceed the risks associated with the approach, landing and post landing. B. The flight may proceed to an airport that the captain, with input from the aircraft dispatcher, determines to be the safest course of action for the given condition. C. The Capt. shall land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.

A. And immediate landing is required when the risks associated with remaining airborne - for example smoke, fire, etc. - exceed the risks associated with the approach, landing and post landing

270. In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, PIC may do which of the following? A. Take any action considered necessary B. The PIC must contact flight control prior to any action in response to an emergency C. The PIC must contact ATC prior to any action in response to an emergency

A. Take any action considered necessary

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