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UPS 757/767 > General Subjects > Flashcards

General Subjects Flashcards

1
Q

Takeoff Briefing Includes . . . .

A 
Takeoff Thrust Setting
Takeoff Flap Setting
Takeoff Runway
Initial Heading/ Course and Altitude
Specical Departure procedures/ Engine Out 
Transition Altitude
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2
Q

When does the Rudder become effective?

A

Between 40 and 60 knots

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3
Q

Assumed Temp takeoff is not authorized when . . .

A 
Contaminated Runway
Inop Antiskid
Deactivated Brake
Inop ERR/N1 gaugeInop TMSP or TMC
Possible Windshear
Landing Gear Extended dispatch
MEL/CDL Requires Max Thrust Takeoff
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4
Q

Priority of POS INIT entry

A 
GPS
Gate
ALL
REF Airport
Manual
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5
Q

TACTL

A 
Thrust
Airspeed Bugs
Climb page
Trim
Level Off
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6
Q

How long is the airplane?

A

757 - 155’ 3”

767 - 180’ 3”

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7
Q

How wide is the airplane?

A

757 - 124’ 10” (125)

767 - 166’ 11” (167)

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8
Q

How tall is the airplane?

A

757 - 44’ 6” (45’)

767 - 52’

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9
Q

What is the max climb rate?

A

CMS + 50kts to .78M

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10
Q

What is the best angle climb rate?

A

Approx. CMS

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11
Q

What is the tail strike pitch angle?

A

757 - 12.3 degrees

767 - 9.6 degrees

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12
Q

If thunderstorm activity in the terminal area is such that safe cell clearance cannot be maintained, the captain will consider which of the following?

  • flight crews are authorized to depart with thunderstorm activity anywhere in the terminal area as ATC can assure the flight of safe cell clearance
  • do not depart until all thunderstorms cells in associated turbulence can be avoided by not less than 20 NM
  • consider holding at the gateway or delaying take off until the activity lessons and the captain can determine that a safe departure can be conducted
A

• consider holding at the gateway or delaying take off until the activity lessons and the captain can determine that a safe departure can be conducted

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13
Q

Windshear will usually occur at the time of the cold front passage and continue for how long?

  • 10 minutes
  • 20 minutes
  • 30 minutes
A

• 30 minutes

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14
Q

No UPS Crew member may serve as a required flight crew member unless he has made at least three takeoffs and landings in the type aircraft in which he is to serve within what period?

  • within the preceding 120 days
  • within the preceding 60 days
  • within the preceding 90 days
A

• within the preceding 90 days

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15
Q

While performing monitoring duties, the PM must recognize in an ounce which of the following?

  • any deviation from prescribed procedures, expected aircraft state, or acceptable flight parameters
  • any changes in flight guidance non-automated systems
  • any changes in radio communications or aircraft systems
A

• any deviation from prescribed procedures, expected aircraft state, or acceptable flight parameters

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16
Q

Thunderstorm avoidance begins with careful preflight weather analysis. Flight crews should review applicable weather reports, PIREPs, convective outlook reports and appropriate SIGMETs to become familiar with potential severe weather. Radar summary information is:

  • highly precise and can be relied on and road for current and accurate information
  • of little to no use as it will not be current in route
  • A rough planning tool
A

• A rough planning tool

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17
Q

While monitoring your aircraft flight path, consider the trajectory and energy state of the aircraft, power settings, and which of the following?

  • Pay particular attention to the information in the airport briefing guide and have it readily available for reference during the takeoff
  • The automated systems directly affecting flight Path (auto pilot, auto throttle, and FMS)
  • Pay particular attention to the information in the Jefferson Airport briefing page and have it readily available for reference during the takeoff
A

• The automated systems directly affecting flight Path (auto pilot, auto throttle, and FMS)

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18
Q

What is the correct description of “deliberate checking? “

  • it is the act of checking each item twice and if a quick glance can satisfy the check that is sufficient
  • it is the act of deliberately managing a checklist and comparing separate independent sources of information to confirm understanding
  • The active, disciplined and effort for action a pilot must take to look FOR something rather than just look AT something
A

• The active, disciplined and effort for action a pilot must take to look FOR something rather than just look AT something

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19
Q

What is the PF’s primary monitoring responsibility?

  • The PF’s primary responsibility is to monitor non-flightpath actions (e.g., Radio communications, Aircraft systems, other crewmembers and other operational activities)
  • Control and monitor the aircraft flight path ( including monitoring the flight guidance automated systems, if engaged), and to come up with a plan on how to manage the intended flight path of the aircraft
  • as there is a PM, the PF is responsible only for control of the aircraft flight path-monitoring is the responsibility of the p.m.
A

• Control and monitor the aircraft flight path ( including monitoring the flight guidance automated systems, if engaged), and to come up with a plan on how to manage the intended flight path of the aircraft

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20
Q

When must you provide a copy of your new medical certificate to flight trainings records or flight administration?

  • you are not required to provide a copy of your new medical certificate to flight training records or flight administration as they can obtain it directly from your medical examiner
  • at least 10 calendar days before your previous medical certificate is due to expire
  • at least one month before your previous medical certificate is due to expire
A

• at least 10 calendar days before your previous medical certificate is due to expire

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21
Q

Who may authorize a crewmember to fly without a passport on US domestic flights only (not Canada or Mexico)?

  • your crew scheduler
  • your aircraft dispatcher
  • The chief pilot‘s office
A

• The chief pilot‘s office

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22
Q

For domestic operations, a flight may not depart more than 15 minutes before it’s released time nor more than how much time after it’s released time without an ARTR?

  • six hours
  • One hour
  • 90 minutes
A

• One hour

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23
Q

In the case of minor injuries, all required crewmembers must be able bodied at departure from any station. Which of the following is correct?

  • if the captain suspects that a crewmember may have a minor injury, but there is no visible injury, the affected crewmember may operate
  • an injured person is often unaware of the seriousness of their own condition, especially in cases of mild shock. If in doubt, the captain shall request the individual to demonstrate his ability to man their position
  • as long as the crew member with minor injury appears to fit to fly, that is sufficient
A

• an injured person is often unaware of the seriousness of their own condition, especially in cases of mild shock. If in doubt, the captain shall request the individual to demonstrate his ability to man their position

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24
Q

ADS-C position reports are automatically transmitted when the FMC waypoints sequence. If, however, the aircraft is more than 21NM from the active FMC route (more than 7NM off course on MD-11) The FMC will not sequence to the next way point. The flight crew must do which of the following?

  • manually sequence the FMC flight plan to the next waypointto trigger an ADS position report to ATC
  • make a voice position report to ATC
  • send a CPDLC message to ATC with position information
A

• manually sequence the FMC flight plan to the next waypointto trigger an ADS position report to ATC

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25
Q

During the preflight a security inspection, what areas must be given special attention?

  • The bunks in the MD-11 crew rest module requires special attention as part of the preflight security inspection
  • no area of the aircraft requires special attention
  • special attention must be given to areas under seat cushions and two lifevest pouches
A

• special attention must be given to areas under seat cushions and two lifevest pouches

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26
Q

Regarding fuel reserve planning for flag flights, in certain areas as an alternate to the 10% reserve fuel requirements, UPS is authorized by UPS Opspecs B043 which of the following?

  • to plan to fly for a period of time equal to 10% of the planned flight time between the departure and Destiination airports and therefore to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 feet above the alternate airport
  • to plan to arrive at the released Destiination with 45 minutes of reserve fuel, computed at normal cruising fuel consumption
  • to plan, following arrival at the released destination, to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500 feet above the alternate airport
A

• to plan to arrive at the released Destiination with 45 minutes of reserve fuel, computed at normal cruising fuel consumption

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27
Q

EMERGENCY FUEL or “MAYDAY FUEL” declaration means:

  • is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is both required and expected, and that the aircraft will be landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining
  • Indicates a fuel emergency and is a term recognized in all countries as a category of emergency
  • is an explicit statement that the aircraft will be landing with less than 45 minutes of your remaining
A

• is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is both required and expected, and that the aircraft will be landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining

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28
Q

According to the UPS all attitude upset recovery procedure, the pilot flying should execute which of the following sequential steps when an upset occurs:

  • push (unload), roll (wings level), power (and just as needed), Stabilize (return to desired flight Path)
  • power (adjust as needed), Push (unload), roll (wings level), stabilize (return to desired flight Path)
  • roll (Wings level), power (adjust as needed), push (unload), stabilize (return to desire to flight Path)
A

• push (unload), roll (wings level), power (and just as needed), Stabilize (return to desired flight Path)

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29
Q

Which of the following statements is correct guidance regarding a high-speed rejected takeoff?

  • rejecting the takeoff after V one is not recommended unless the captain judges the aircraft incapable of flight
  • The decision to reject the takeoff can be made following toV1 so the RTO maneuver can be initiated at a reasonable point
  • if excess runway remains after V1, you can be assured that the brakes have the capacity to stop the aircraft prior to the end of the runway
A

• rejecting the takeoff after V one is not recommended unless the captain judges the aircraft incapable of flight

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30
Q

Any operating limiting MEL’s which are generated inside 90 minutes (for domestic flights) Or 120 minutes(for international flights) i’ve scheduled departure time will not be listed in the ACFT MEL/CDL section of the OFP - these MEL’s Will be listed in the remarks section of the OFP, or communicated to the flight crew via which of the following?

  • The MEL/CDL Section of the OFP - UPS Flight control is required to print and provide a hard copy of the revised MEL/CDL to the flight crew
  • Aircraft maintenance control will provide a hard copy of the revised MEL/CDL To the flight crew
  • ARTR
A

• ARTR

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31
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding analyzed contingency fuel?

  • with the mutual concurrence of the captain and aircraft dispatcher, the CONT value may be reduced or completely eliminated
  • analyzed contingency fuel is added to account for known or anticipated delays or to account for fuel required due to aircraft limitations
  • analyzed contingency fuel is required by regulations for dispatch planning purposes based on the type of operation (eg, domestic or flag) and filed Destiination
A

• with the mutual concurrence of the captain and aircraft dispatcher, the CONT value may be reduced or completely eliminated

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32
Q

Which of the following is true regarding taxi procedures?

  • for the purposes of reference, “movement area” is defined as any part of the airport utilized for aprons and aircraft parking areas
  • read back all hold short and runway crossing instructions in clearances, including the runway designator
  • State your position when making contact with any tower or ground controller, unless you have previously stated your position to a different controller
A

• read back all hold short and runway crossing instructions in clearances, including the runway designator

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33
Q

If departure clearance is received via radio, what procedure should be used?

  • only an ACARS PDC Is acceptable as departure clearances via radio are no longer utilized
  • both crew members will monitor and confirm the ATC clearance unless prevented by operational constraints (ie, One crewmember leaves the flight deck)
  • both crewmembers will monitor and confirm the ATC clearance in all situations
A

• both crew members will monitor and confirm the ATC clearance unless prevented by operational constraints (ie, One crewmember leaves the flight deck)

34
Q

If you compare the OFP planned takeoff weight against the actual takeoff weight from the load manifest and determined that the actual takeoff weight exceeds the OFP plan to takeoff weight, you must contact your aircraft dispatcher (unless previously notified by flight control) and provide them with which of the following?

  • The current version of the ELM
  • actual takeoff weight
  • actual fuel, actual payload and the number of ACM’s
A

• actual fuel, actual payload and the number of ACM’s

35
Q

Regarding standard blackout procedures, the flight crew is required to remain on ramp control frequency until clear of the rent. After clearing the ramp you will do which of the following?

  • put 123.45 in that VHF Radio in the event that enterpilot air to air frequency as needed
  • Set VHF Radios as desired. Setting guard frequency is a useful option
  • switch appropriate VHF radio to guard frequency and check volume for later emergency use
A

• switch appropriate VHF radio to guard frequency and check volume for later emergency use

36
Q

When should a life calculation be used to obtain take off and/or landing performance data?

  • it must always be used to provide a back up for the ACARS FDP
  • it must be used to provide data for reduced thrust take offs as that is the only means to obtain that information
  • in the event that ACARS Is not available in the TLR is invalid
A

• in the event that ACARS Is not available in the TLR is invalid

37
Q

Who shall make a “go around “call out if an unsafe condition exists or as required by procedure?

  • only the captain should make a “go around “call out and determine at the time if a go around is required
  • only the pilot flying should make a “go around “call out and determine at the time if a go around is required
  • any operating crew member (Captain, FO, IRO)
A

• any operating crew member (Captain, FO, IRO

38
Q

When approaching the entrance to an active runway, both crewmembers should ensure compliance with hold short or crossing clearances before continuing with which of the following?

  • Before accomplishing any non-normal check
  • before continuing with non-monitoring tasks
  • before accomplishing the before takeoff checklist
A

• before continuing with non-monitoring tasks

39
Q

Ceiling and visibility values in the main body of the latest weather report are controlling for takeoffs, landings and instrument approach procedures on all runways of an airport except in cases where:

  • The latest weather report contains RVV or RVR For a particular runway. In these casesRVV or RVR Are controlling for the runways in which they are reported
  • The latest weather report contains an ASOS Observation not approved by UPS OPSPECS
  • The ATIS contains the following notation: ECXOT RNWY XX/XX until (time/date)
A

• The latest weather report contains RVV or RVR For a particular runway. In these casesRVV or RVR Are controlling for the runways in which they are reported

40
Q

Which of the following is correct regarding additional fuel?

  • Additional fuel is added to account for known or anticipated delays or to account for fuel required due to aircraft
  • any fuel specified as additional is not part of the takeoff fuel specified on the float release and therefore can be eliminated by the dispatcher for any reason
  • The aircraft dispatcher will specify the reason for the fuel in the remarks section of the flight release and generic statements (eg. Operational needs) are perfectly acceptable
A

• Additional fuel is added to account for known or anticipated delays or to account for fuel required due to aircraft

41
Q

Flight crews must visually inspect the crew stairs to ensure that the top level of the stairs is within 10 inches of the threshold of the aircraft crew entry door. Additionally, check to ensure that the horizontal distance between the top of the stairs and the skin of the aircraft is within 5 inches, and that the stairs are completely covering the width of the door. If vertical or horizontal alignment is excessive what must you do?

  • flight crews will adjust the cruise stairs to their preference
  • ask ground support personnel to adjust the crew stairs
  • maintenance personnel will make a logbook and a Tatian to reflect that the stairs were incorrectly position, then will position the stairs correctly
A

• ask ground support personnel to adjust the cruise stairs

42
Q

After landing from a precision approach and proceeding down the runway to the point of exit, the pilot will see taxiway centerline lights running parallel to the runway centerline lights and will follow them off the active runway. Which of the following is true?

  • Alternating Amber and green tags away set an a line lights indicate that the aircraft is still within the ILS critical area
  • Green taxiway lead off lights will turn red when another aircraft is approaching the critical taxiway encroachment area
  • Green taxiway lights lead off the runway and extinguish when the aircraft is clear of the runway encroachment area
A

• Alternating Amber and green tags away set an a line lights indicate that the aircraft is still within the ILS critical area

43
Q

Planned arrival(PAF) is the normal fuel plan for arrival over the Destiination airport. PAF targets for all flights with no alternate required is how much fuel?

  • minutes of your equal to 10% of the time plan to fly to and land at the Destiination as required by CFR 121.645
  • 45 minutes of total arrival fuel at the Destiination as required by CFR 121.639
  • 75 minutes of planned arrival fuel at the Destiination
A

• 75 minutes of planned arrival fuel at the Destiination

44
Q

During taxi, the PM should follow the aircraft progress on the airport diagram to verify that the pilot taxiing is following the instructions received from ATC and advise the pilot taxiing whenever heads down activity is required or if unable to do which of the following?

  • Monitor aircraft maintenance
  • Monitor ATC
  • Monitor flight control
A

• Monitor ATC

45
Q

The primary method for contacting AMC for a deferral is via voice through flight control. If the flight crew is unable to contact flight control via voice, use which of the following as a back up procedure?

  • ACARS MEL Deferral page
  • send a CPDLC message with the deferral request
  • The only action required is to enter the information in the aircraft logbook
A

• ACARS MEL Deferral page

46
Q

What is the definition of “land immediately”?

  • refers to landing at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made
  • used when a landing is required for risks associated with remaining airborne (eg. smoke, fire, etc) exceeding the risks associated with the approach, landing and post landing
  • refers to the situation where the flight may proceed to an airport at the captain, with input from the aircraft dispatcher, determines to be the safest course of action for the given condition
A

• used when a landing is required for risks associated with remaining airborne (eg. smoke, fire, etc) exceeding the risks associated with the approach, landing and post landing

47
Q

A report to the US public health service is required when an illness a board the aircraft Adams is observed on an international flight. Which of the following situations require report?

  • temperature of greater than 98°F (37°C)
  • operating crewmember experiencing minor pain in the climb as A result of trapped air from recent dental work
  • temperature of 100° F(38° C) or greater accompanied or followed by rash, jaundice or glandular swelling, or which persisted for two days or more
A

• temperature of 100° F(38° C) or greater accompanied or followed by rash, jaundice or glandular swelling, or which persisted for two days or more

48
Q

Crewmembers use the ACARS FDP As the primary means to determine takeoff and landing performance. If it is not available, what do you use?

  • The only option is to provide the aircraft dispatcher the necessary information to calculate take off and/or landing performance for the flight crew. The dispatcher will relay that to the flight crew
  • Aircraft maintenance control can calculate take off and/or landing performance for the flight crew
  • The TLR should be used if the ACARS FDP Is not available
A

• The TLR should be used if the ACARS FDP Is not available

49
Q

For international flights, who must confirm that each crew member has the required passport and visas as necessary?

  • only gateway representatives at ANC, ONT, PHL, and MIA Are required to check passports of all operating crewmembers flying to destinations outside the 50 states
  • The captain
  • The gateway manager is required to check that each operating crew member has their required passports and visas
A

• The captain

50
Q

ASAP reports must be submitted in a timely manner. What is the timeframe for submission?

  • must be submitted within 72 hours
  • must be submitted within 24 hours from the end of the flight sequence(duty.) for date of event occurrence
  • must be submitted prior to the end of the duty. In which the incident occurred
A

• must be submitted within 24 hours from the end of the flight sequence(duty.) for date of event occurrence

51
Q

For international operations, a flight may not depart more than 15 minutes before it’s released time nor more than how much after it’s released time without an ARTR?

  • One hour
  • 90 minutes
  • six hours
A

• six hours

52
Q

“ Minimum fuel” declaration means:

  • The aircraft has sufficient fuel to follow the cleared routing, execute and arrival and approach, and land with fuel reserves equivalent to 45 minutes of fuel remaining. It does not grant any type of priority handling
  • informs ATC that all plant options have been reduced to landing at the filed alternate airport
  • Grant your priority handling. ATC will advise the flight crew of any expected delays, as well as coordinate with other ATC units
A

• The aircraft has sufficient fuel to follow the cleared routing, execute and arrival and approach, and land with fuel reserves equivalent to 45 minutes of fuel remaining. It does not grant any type of priority handling

53
Q

As part of pre-flight preparations what should the flight crew do to ensure adequate fuel is planned for each flight?

  • The flight crew will compare the fuel required on the operational flight plan with the actual fuel load and resolve any discrepancy prior to block out.
  • The flight crew is only required to review the fuel provided on the operational flight plan
  • The flight crew is only required to review the fuel as shown in the release
A

• The flight crew will compare the fuel required on the operational flight plan with the actual fuel load and resolve any discrepancy prior to block out.

54
Q

Normally, the release time in the schedule departure time in the FBP match. However, if a delay is posted in Lido prior to the FPB being granted, the release time may be revised but the schedule departure time will not. Flight crews should always refer to which time on the flight release to determine if in a RTR is needed for an early departure?

  • flight crews should always refer to the release time on the flight released to determine if an ARTR is needed for an early departure
  • flight crews should always refer to the schedule departure time in the operational flight plan to determine if an ARTR is needed for an early departure
  • flight crews will be required to contact flight control to determine if an ARTR is needed for an early departure
A

• flight crews should always refer to the release time on the flight released to determine if an ARTR is needed for an early departure

55
Q

If an airport requires it ATC pushback and or start Clarence, where can you find this information?

  • ATC pushback and or start clearance can be found in the airport briefing guides
  • ATC pushback and or start clearance can be found in AOM
  • ATC pushback and or start clearance can be found in FOM volume 01
A

• ATC pushback and or start clearance can be found in the airport briefing guides

56
Q

Regarding rejected takeoff procedures, the decision to reject a takeoff rest solely with the captain. The decision to reject to take off must be made prior to V1 for which of the following reasons?

  • so the RTO maneuver can be initiated no later than V1
  • so no damage will occur to the engines
  • to minimize damage to the wheels and brakes
A

• so the RTO maneuver can be initiated no later than V1

57
Q

Part 121 does not specifically require an obstacle clearance analysis for one engine in operative missed approach or rejected landings. If no client gradient is published on the approach chart, a minimum climb gradient of (E/O GRAD) of 2.5% (PAN OPS) or how many feet/NM )TERPS) is required to fly the published missed approach procedure?

  • 200 feet/NM
  • 100 feet/NM
  • 500 feet/NM
A

• 200 feet/NM

58
Q

A flight may not depart more than how many minutes before it’s released time without an a RTR?

  • A flight may never depart at any time before it’s released time without an ARTR
  • 15 minutes
  • The flight may depart at any time before it’s released time without an ARTR
A

• 15 minutes

59
Q

There are no runway lighting restrictions for takeoff if the visibility, or RVV is 1/4 SM (TDZ RVR 1600) or greater (Day or night). All that is required for takeoff is adequate visual reference to continuously identify the takeoff surface and maintain directional Control throughout the takeoff run. The determination of adequate visual reference will be left to the discretion of the PIC. If they takeoff is conducted at night with no runway lighting available, the flight crew shall obtain:

  • A takeoff alternate as a return to the departure airport will not be possible
  • and a RTR is required if he takeoff is conducted at night with no runway lighting available
  • authorization from the director of operations is required if a takeoff is conducted at night with no runway lighting available
A

• A takeoff alternate as a return to the departure airport will not be possible

60
Q

Standard blackout procedures are to be used for all departing UPS flights. What indicates “load complete” and alerts maintenance to establish ground to cockpit communication for the engine start/departure sequence?

  • The closing of the last cargo door
  • The closing of the crew entry door
  • The closing of the main entry door
A

• The closing of the last cargo door

61
Q

Do you have access to a diversion guide to help aid you if you are presented with a possible diversion situation. Where is it located?

  • FOM volume two, chapter 11
  • each of the fleet AOM’s contains a detailed diversion guide to assist in diverting to international airports
  • The only publication that contains a detailed diversion guide is the Jeopesen General airway manual
A

• FOM volume two, chapter 11

62
Q

Which item shall also be included in the CRM/safety briefing, as applicable?

  • Terrine avoidance considerations
  • landing runway information, anticipated turn off and taxi route

• landing distance available

A

Terrain avoidance considerations

63
Q

Who must notify flight control immediately if the gateways actual payload exceeds the plan to pay load?

  • Gateway
  • The captain
  • The load supervisor
A

• Gateway personnel

64
Q

Which of the following parameters define a successful auto land?

  • The aircraft remains within 1/3 dot of the localizer and 1/3 dot above/zero below glideslope
  • and ILS flown approach with auto pilots engaged from no later than 500 feet HAT to the end of the landing rollout
  • Aircraft tracks localizer/runway centerline with no lateral deviation greater than 50 feet between nose gear and runway centerline
A

• The aircraft remains within 1/3 dot of the localizer and 1/3 dot above/zero below glideslope

65
Q

Monitoring the aircraft flight path is a key responsibility for both the PFNTM during all phases a flight. As part of this, crewmembers should anticipate mode changes (ie, intercepting vertical path) and do which of the following?

  • Verify compliance
  • Run systems diagnostics to determine the accuracy of auto flight
  • confirm that all communication systems are set correctly
A

• verify compliance

66
Q

Prior to entering or crossing any runway, both crewmembers should do which of the following?

  • Both crewmembers should scan the full length of the runway including the approach and departure Corredor’s and verbally confirm scan results with other
  • Each crew member is only required to scan the part of the runway on their side of the
  • each crew member is only required to scan the approach or departure quarters whichever is on their side of the aircraft
A

• Both crewmembers should scan the full length of the runway including the approach and departure Corredor’s and verbally confirm scan results with other

67
Q

Night approaches and landings require certain minimum runway and or approach lighting. The exact time that day ends and night begins can be determined by:

  • The exact minute of change from day tonight and vice versa, as well as the time of sunrise or sunset is available, when required, through flight control
  • Day means the time between the beginning of morning civil twilight and the ends when the upper disc of the sun touches the horizon, as published in the American air almanac, converted to local time
  • Knight begins when the upper disc of the sun touches the horizon and the beginning of the morning civil twilight
A

• The exact minute of change from day tonight and vice versa, as well as the time of sunrise or sunset is available, when required, through flight control

68
Q

With regard to activities during taxi a UPS aircraft and conducting checklist, which of the following is correct?

  • conduct checklist prior to taxi or only when the aircraft is stopped or taxiing without complex routing
  • Play on the timing and execution of aircraft checklist and company communications so that the RO will be available to participate in verbal coordination with the pilot taxi
  • when approaching the entrance to an active runway, only one crew member is required to ensure compliance with the hold short or crossing clearances before continuing with non-monitoring tasks
A

• conduct checklist prior to taxi or only when the aircraft is stopped or taxiing without complex routing

69
Q

Whenever a jump seater or an operating crew member becomes ill or injured in flight, the extent of the injury or illness must be determined. If the affected person is an operating crew member, the other crew member at the control shell:

  • immediately assume the duties of the affected crewmember and ensure safe operation of the aircraft
  • Divert immediately in all cases and notify station personnel at the next point of intended landing Landing
  • immediately begin completion of the declaration of health portion of the GEN decks as that will be required by public health officials.
A

• immediately assume the duties of the affected crewmember and ensure safe operation of the aircraft

70
Q

Flights conducted outside the 48 contiguous United States require heightened awareness. Except on flights conducted in accordance with OpSpec A012, The flight crew will do which of the following?

  • verify the coordinates of any way point not found in the FMCA database using the MFP or EFK
  • accomplish a quick IRS/hire you alignment
  • ensure organized tracks are plotted on the hardcopy plotting chartt
A

• verify the coordinates of any way point not found in the FMCA database using the MFP or EFK

71
Q

As a part of the preflight security inspection, UPS flight crews must do which of the following?

  • search the flight deck area of the aircraft prior to departure and also check latched, external compartment doors for signs of tampering
  • search the flight deck area of the aircraft and if suspicious item discovered, examine it thoroughly to determine risk to include assessing weight- determine if item is secured the aircraft, making audible sound, temperature etc.
  • The crew member designated to conduct a preflight security inspection is only required to inspect the general security integrity of the cockpit floor area
A

• search the flight deck area of the aircraft prior to departure and also check latched, external compartment doors for signs of tampering

72
Q

In the event of a 1 inch in operative rejected landing, which of the following is correct?

  • Fly the FDP/EFP ground track
  • Fly the ground track as published in the missed approach procedure
  • Fly the ground track is published in the PANS OPS Regulations
A

• Fly the FDP/EFP ground track

73
Q

Regarding lower than standard takeoff minimums in the US, for operations below RVR 1600 (500m), all available RVR reports are controlling, extremely long runways (ie. DEN 16R) utilize four RVR sensors (TDZ, mid, rollout and far end) and one fourth far end RVR is reported, it is not controlling and it is not to be used as one of the minimum number of required operative RVR systems. How many operative RB are reporting systems are required for operations below RVR at 1600 (500m)?

  • A minimum of two operating RVR reporting systems are required
  • A minimum of three operative RVR reporting systems are required. If fourth far end RVR value is reported, it is not controlling and is not to be used as one of the minimum number of required RVR systems
  • as in Canada, no minimum number of transmissometers is specified for operations below RBR 1600 (500m)
A

• A minimum of two operating RVR reporting systems are required

74
Q

When the flight crew calculate said any change to the existing clearance to that airport may result in landing with less than planned the final reserve fuel, The captain shall:

  • advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring “minimum fuel“
  • advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring “emergency fuel“
  • advise ATC that priority handling is required and that the aircraft will be landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining
A

• advise ATC of a minimum fuel state by declaring “minimum fuel“

75
Q

As a normal operating procedure, if a landing cannot be made because of weather or other operating factors at the Destiination airport, the captain will do which of the following prior to proceeding to an alternate?

  • contact the aircraft dispatcher
  • Contact aircraft maintenance
  • contacting ATC to re-file is your only communications requirement
A

• Contact the aircraft dispatcher

76
Q

Transition altitudes in transition levels outside the US may be relatively low. Some are very low resulting in the need for strict adherence to altimeter setting procedures to ensure adequate terrain and obstacle clearance in traffic separation. As part of departure procedures and altimeter change procedures in the claim, Cruz must brief and maintain their transition altitude awareness to prevent leveling off at a flat level (which is based on QNE) with QNH Still set in the altimeters. The captain may deviate from the standard altimeter setting procedures to the extent necessary to ensure compliance with a signed altitudes under what circumstances?

  • when the transition altitude occurs very quickly after takeoff or when climbing to an assigned flight level close to the transition altitude
  • when the transition level is below FL 180, or one descending to unassigned altitude close to the transition level
  • when the transition level is below FL 120, or one descending to an assigned level close to the transitory level
A

• when the transition altitude occurs very quickly after takeoff or when climbing to an assigned flight level close to the transition altitude

77
Q

Prior to departure, review airport noise abatement procedures located in the Jeppesen airport briefing pages (10-1 P and 10-4) and which of the following?

  • The airport briefing guide
  • The route card
  • The Jeppesen general airway manual
A

• The airport briefing guide

78
Q

What is the priority for the crew to obtain take off performance?

  • crews are required to use only VTLR as it is part of the FBP and provides the necessary takeoff and landing data
  • ACARS FDP, TLR and as a last resort live calculation
  • crews are required to use only the live calculation means for obtaining takeoff performance
A

• ACARS FDP, TLR and as a last resort live calculation

79
Q

Regarding standard blackout procedures, the flight crew is required to compare the OFP plan to takeoff weight against the actual takeoff weight from the load manifest. What must you do if the actual takeoff weight exceeds the OFP plan to take off weight?

  • contact your aircraft dispatcher and provide them with the actual fuel, the actual payload and the number of ACM’s
  • contact aircraft maintenance control to resolve the discrepancy
  • you must notify flight control only if the actual payload is more than 30,000 pounds under the plan payload
A

• contact your aircraft dispatcher and provide them with the actual fuel, the actual payload and the number of ACM’s

80
Q

UPS policies govern dispatch of aircraft on aircraft components become in operative after the captain excepts the aircraft for flight. If abnormality occurs after the aircraft is secured for flight, but prior to takeoff, and there is an AOM/QRH procedure for the abnormality, accomplish the AOM/QRH Procedure. Which of the following is true regarding how often the procedure may be accomplished?

  • The procedure may only be accomplished only once
  • accomplish the AOM/QRH procedure as many times as are required to establish normal operation of the component
  • The AOM/QRH procedure may not be used to resolve a discrepancy prior to takeoff. The only option is to contact aircraft maintenance control for guidance
A

• The procedure May only be accomplished once

81
Q

What is the primary means to determine takeoff and landing performance?

  • performance data provided by UPS flight control
  • ACARS FDP
  • The aerodata application on the EFK is the primary means for determining performance data
A

• ACARS FDP

UPS 757/767 (16 decks)

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