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Mark/Scott/Troy-Lanes Study > Mark > Flashcards

Mark Flashcards

1
Q

NAT

A

Network Address Translation

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2
Q

Translates one private IP to one public IP, also known as one-to-one NAT

A

Static NAT

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3
Q

Randomly routes a private IP address to an available pool of public IP addresses.

A

Dynamic NAT

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4
Q

PAT

A

Port Address Translation

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5
Q

Allows multiple private IP addresses to share a common connection to the internet over a single IP address
(also known as NAT overload)

A

Port Address Translation or PAT

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6
Q

LAN

A

Local Area Network

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7
Q

Geographically close set of computers one a network that uses the same communication device.

A

Local Area Network or LAN

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8
Q

WAN

A

Wide Area Network

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9
Q

A group of connected computers that are geographically apart.

A

Wide Area Network or WAN

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10
Q

Permits or blocks web traffic

A

Firewall

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11
Q

VPN

A

Virtual Private Network

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12
Q

Establishes a secure connection to an organization’s private network using a public network

A

Virtual Private Network or VPN

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13
Q

MAC

A

Media Access Control

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14
Q

Identifies a device globally

A

IP Address

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15
Q

DHCP

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

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16
Q

Assigns private IP addresses to all devices on the local network.

A

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol or DHCP

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17
Q

ISP

A

Internet Service Provider

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18
Q

TCP

A

Transmission Control Protocol

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19
Q

UDP

A

User Datagram Protocol

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20
Q

A combination of a IP address and a port number.

A

Socket Address

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21
Q

SMTP

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

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22
Q

HTTP

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

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23
Q

HTTPS

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure

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24
Q

DNS

A

Domain Name Server

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25
Q

SSH

A

Secure Shell

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26
Q

POP3

A

Post Office Protocol Version 3

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27
Q

NTP

A

Network Time Protocol

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28
Q

IMAP

A

Internet Message Access Protocol

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29
Q

SNMP

A

Simple Network Management Protocol

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30
Q

TFTP

A

Trivial File Transfer Protocol

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31
Q

FTPD

A

File Transfer Protocol Data

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32
Q

FTP

A

File Transfer Protocol Control

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33
Q

Expressed as 4 octets.

A

IPv4

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34
Q

Expressed as 8 quartets

A

IPv6

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35
Q

An IP address that is dedicated and does not change.

A

Static IP

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36
Q

CIDR

A

Classless Inter Domain Routing

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37
Q

Notation used to identify all IP addresses in a subnet block.

A

Classless Inter Domain Routing or CIDR

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38
Q

CIDR notation for 5 usable static IP addresses?

A

/29

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39
Q

What is the subnet mask for a 5 static IP block?

A

255.255.255.248

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40
Q

/30

A

CIDR notation for 1 subnet block.

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41
Q

255.255.255.240

A

Subnet mask for a 13 static IP block.

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42
Q

CIDR notation for 13 static IP block?

A

/28

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43
Q

Allows the customer to forward incoming internet traffic arriving on a specific part to an internal IP address.

A

Port Forwarding

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44
Q

A way to automate Port Forwarding

A

Port Triggering

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45
Q

Means that the download and upload speeds are not the same

A

Asymmetrical

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46
Q

Means the download and upload speeds provided are the same

A

Symmetrical

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47
Q

What are the two basic types of firewalls?

A

Hardware and Software based

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48
Q

A fixed 12 digit hexadecimal number embedded into the manufacturers network controller hardware.

A

MAC Address

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49
Q

IEEE

A

the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers

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50
Q

Connection oriented protocol considered reliable for data transfer.

A

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) Port.

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51
Q

Connectionless Protocol that is faster then TCP, however lost packets are not retrasmitted.

A

User Datagram Protocol (UDP) Port.

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52
Q

The 3 categories that ports are assigned in.

A

Well Known, Registered, and Ephemeral

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53
Q

Reserved for devices on a local are network

A

Private IP addresses

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54
Q

Includes any range beginning with 127.x.x.x

A

Loopback IPv4 Addresses

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55
Q

This range of IPv4 addresses allows a computer to loopback to itself for testing purposes.

A

Loopback IPv4 Addresses

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56
Q

APIPA

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing

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57
Q

Enables a computer to assign an IP address automatically to itself when a DHCP server is unreachable.

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing or APIPA

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58
Q

IP range includes and IP that begins with 169.254.x.x

A

Automatic Private IP Addressing or APIPA

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59
Q

A subnet block contains these IP addresses

A

Network, Routable, Gateway, and Broadcast

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60
Q

First physical address in the subnet block identified with a CIDR notation

A

Network Address

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61
Q

Address used by all devices assigned a routable IP address as an entry and exit point.

A

Gateway Address

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62
Q

The Preferred and alternate DNS server IP addresses for all Comcast customers.

A

Preferred is 75.75.75.75
Alternate is 75.75.76.76

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63
Q

Last physical address in the subnet block.

A

Broadcast Address

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64
Q

In order to receive a _____ IP address, the customer must use a Comcast-issued IP gateway.

A

Static

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65
Q

10.0.0.32 is an example of this type of IPv4 address.

A

Private

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66
Q

How many bits in an IPv4 address?

A

32 bits

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67
Q

How many bits in an IPv6 address?

A

128 bits

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68
Q

How many IP addresses would a customer require if they have multiple servers of the same type and use the same port?

A

5 or 13

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69
Q

How many IP addresses would a customer require if multiple servers using different ports?

A

As long as the services are using different ports only 1 is needed.

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70
Q

Allows a selected computer to bypass the firewall features of the gateway and permit unrestricted access from the internet to that computer.

A

Definitized Zone or DMZ

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71
Q

Tightens security to restrict access for certain users or applications.

A

Port Blocking

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72
Q

Hubs, repeaters, and network interfaces are examples of equipment is what layer?

A

Physical layer or layer #1

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73
Q

Responsible for overseeing the movement of data in and out of the communication path.

A

Data Link or Layer # 2

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74
Q

Primary responsibility is getting data from one end to another.

A

Network Layer or Layer #3

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75
Q

Segments and reassembles data from the upper layers.

A

Transport Layer or #4

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76
Q

Responsible for encryption, decryption, compression, and decompression.

A

Presentation Layer or #6

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77
Q

Examples of this layer are email, HTTP, DNS, Telnet, SNMP.

A

Application Layer or #7

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78
Q

Sends and receives bits on the network.

A

Physical Layer or #1

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79
Q

Switches are a part of this layer.

A

Data Link or #2

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80
Q

Protocols included with this layer are IP, ICMP, and RIP.

A

Network layer or #3

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81
Q

Establishes a logical connection between sending and receiving hosts.

A

Transport Layer or #4

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82
Q

Sets up, Manages and tears down sessions between presentation layer.

A

Session Layer or #5

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83
Q

Specifications includes MPEG, and SSL.

A

Presentation Layer or #6

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84
Q

Ensures that data transferred from one systems application layer can be read by application layer on receiving system.

A

Presentation Layer or #6

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85
Q

HTTP, SMTP, DNS, FTP

A

Layer 7, Application Layer

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86
Q

UDP/TCP, Flow control

A

Layer 4, Transport layer

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87
Q

QoS, Voltages, physical addressing, MAC, LLC

A

Layer 2, Data link Layer

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88
Q

Voltages, hubs, repeaters, Cables

A

Layer 1, Physical Layer

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89
Q

Routers, IP, ICMP, RIP

A

Layer 3, Network layer

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90
Q

MPEG, SSL

A

Layer 6, Presentation layer

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91
Q

Net Bios, PPTP

A

Layer 5, Session layer

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92
Q

Provides state of the art internet tools to allow a business to
manage and configure their own wireless network

A

WiFi Pro

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93
Q

How many SSID’s can be configured on Wifi Pro

A

8

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94
Q

This feature allows devices used by the business to connect
wirelessly

A

Private Wifi

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95
Q

Encourages repeat business and choice destination for customers
who need WiFi access

A

Guest (Public) Wifi

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96
Q

Comcast Business offers customers these two types of WiFi

A

Private and Public

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97
Q

Prevents Wifi from broadcasting during non-business hours

A

Wifi Network Scheduling

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98
Q

Place limits on guest Wifi to ensure there is enough bandwidth for
the business private network

A

Bandwidth Allocation

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99
Q

Place limits on how long your guest can “surf” and how long they
must wait until Wifi is available to them agian

A

Session Timeout

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100
Q

Keeps unwanted content from appearing in public that may be
considered offensive

A

Content Filtering

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101
Q

Allows Wi-Fi access that is safe and secure

A

Security

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102
Q

Abilty to provide coupons, discounts or information about the
business

A

Splash Page

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103
Q

Allows the business to reveiw the health of the wireless network
and security threats

A

Reporting

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104
Q

Drive your customers to your social network pages and give them
the option to like or follow your business

A

Social Media Authentication

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105
Q

The customer can enable up to how many social media platforms

A

3

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106
Q

What are the 3 social media platforms customers can link to wifi
pro

A

FB, Instagram, Twitter

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107
Q

Determines how many people walk by your business vs how many
people walk in

A

Conversion & Footfall

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108
Q

The number of visitors broken out by the amount of time they were
detected on Guest network and the amount of time they spent in
a specific location

A

Dwell Time

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109
Q

New vs repeat customers and repeat user frequency

A

Brand Loyalty

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110
Q

What is the maximum number of Wi-Fi Pro access points allowed
to ensure optimum Wi-Fi coverage

A

2

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111
Q

Is a suite of features and tools that allows customers to more efficiently manage their network, promote their business and provide
a dedicated Wi-Fi network for their customers

A

Wi-Fi Pro

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112
Q

Which internet Tier is eligible for Wifi Pr

A

ALL

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113
Q

is a mobility solution - configure and control your Wi-Fi networks
from anywhere with any device

A

Wi-Fi Pro

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114
Q

Allows a business to better understand their customer patterns,
providing footfall conversion, linger, loyalty metrics and more

A

Customer Analytics

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115
Q

Customers comparison shopping can drive customer to impulse
buy while in store

A

Showrooming

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116
Q

Maximum ceiling height Wi-Fi Pro can be installed

A

20 ft

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117
Q

Any height above this needs a scissor lift

A

10 FT

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118
Q

Maximum CAT5 run from modem

A

300ft

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119
Q

What 3 ports must be open for the Aps

A

port 80, port 443, port 3851

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120
Q

Wi-Fi Pro Portal landing page is this feature

A

Guest insights Dashboard

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121
Q

How many concurrent users are supported per AP

A

60 users (30 per radio)

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122
Q

Max throughput of Wi-Fi pro

A

250 Mbps

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123
Q

Content filtering is provided by this company

A

Norton Protect safe

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124
Q

Set schedules are set in these intervals

A

30 mins

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125
Q

LEDs will be what color when provisioning is complete

A

Green

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126
Q

See what in-store customer has purchased in the past and how
they interacted with your brand

A

Purchase pattern

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127
Q

Speed for CAW

A

250/10

128
Q

Number of users per AP for CAW

A

25

129
Q

How many APs are complimentary per property (CAW)

A

5

130
Q

How much is CAW for retail or Bulk MDU

A

free

131
Q

3 types of service for CAW

A

Common area Wi-Fi, High density CAW, Managed Wi-Fi

132
Q

Common area Wi-Fi, High density CAW, Managed Wi-Fi

A

1 Gb

133
Q

of Aps for high density CAW

A

plus 6

134
Q

CAW (WIFI PRO ABBREVIATION)

A

Common Area WiFi

135
Q

Web site where you are directed to after accepting terms and
conditions and providing authentication

A

Landing page

136
Q

Website where all traffic is redirected, typically to get some type
of authentication credential and accept terms

A

Splash page

137
Q

slot in a RF range, which can be changed to minimize interference

A

Channel

138
Q

How many Wi-Fi channels in north America on 2.4 Ghz

A

11 ( 3 non overlapping)

139
Q

5 Ghz uses how many channels in wifi

A

49 (24 non overlapping)

140
Q

Any configuration change will cause the wifi pro access points to
go offline for how long, range in minutes

A

3-6 minutes

141
Q

This wifi network is only made available to employees and authorized users

A

Private wifi

142
Q

By default, wifi pro broadcasts how many networks when the
account is created

A

2

143
Q

this network is provided to your customers as a convenience and
benefit for doing business

A

Public

144
Q

This is the default mode on the AP and can monitor up to 16
VLANS

A

sensor mode

145
Q

This mode the device can be connected to a trunk port on a switch
and can monitor up to 100 VLANS

A

Network Detector mode

146
Q

Schedule when WiFi is broadcast from the business

A

Wifi Scheduling

147
Q

Allocate time limits to your guest’s WiFi usage sessions

A

Session Timeout

148
Q

Prevent access to content deemed unacceptable by the business

A

Content filtering

149
Q

Creation of a customized welcome page when the Public WiFi is
accessed

A

Splash page

150
Q

Prevent malicious attacks to the SMB wireless network

A

Security

151
Q

On demand reporting on WiFi security for the SMB’s wireless
networks

A

Reporting

152
Q

The time set here wil determine how long a guest can stay connected to the guest network

A

Timeout

153
Q

The default login timeout is set for

A

24 hrs

154
Q

” is the equipment used for power transmission in network equipment, via network UTP cable, together with data.

A

Power over Ethernet (PoE)

155
Q

Max throughput on Wifi Pro

A

1.2 Gbps

156
Q

WiFi Pro covers approximately how much square footage

A

2500

157
Q

C75 Access points connect to this port on the AP

A

LAN1

158
Q

Access points can take up to this long to provision

A

10 to 15 mins

159
Q

Validate the customer login to their WifiPro cloud via this link

A

comcastwifipro.com

160
Q

A Hospitality Customer can be defined as

A

Hotel, Motel, Inn, and Bed & Breakfast

161
Q

how many internet connected devices do most travelers travel with

A

4

162
Q

VARs

A

Value Added Resellers

163
Q

% of individuals that state the wifi is the most important amenity for their stay

A

89%

164
Q

These are companies that assist the Hospitality entity with distribution and additional services beyond the point of demarcation

A

Value Added Resellers (VARs)

164
Q

What is the top requested amenity for hotels

A

Wifi

165
Q

What is the #1 priority for the hotel staff IT staff

A

Increasing Bandwidth

166
Q

Single piece of equipment in a centralized location that receives
the Comcast HD digital line-up. The channels needed inside the
hotel are decoded and then re-encoded with Pro:Idiom or Clear
QAM

A

Q2Q (Qam to Qam)

167
Q

Single piece of equipment that can ingest encrypted content from
our regular video plant, than remove the encryption to send out to
guest room

A

mDTA

168
Q

This is the video package that is only available for use in hotel
guest room

A

Free to guest Video (FTG)

169
Q

is encryption technology that is downloaded onto each tv in hotel
rooms.

A

Pro-Idiom

170
Q

This document should be included with all hospitality orders that
have FTG video

A

P.I.E. (Private Infrastructure Evaluation)

171
Q

What are the Two internet rates available to Hospitality customers

A

Internet plus, Stand alone

172
Q

Internet to customers to share symmetrical data for for single or
multiple locations

A

Ethernet

173
Q

Is an option to select when a customer wants to bundle internet
service with Video or Voice

A

Internet plus

174
Q

When internet only is sold to a hospitality customer

A

Stand-Alone

175
Q

Ethernet services are available on these length of contract terms

A

3 & 5 year

176
Q

What are the different types of Ethernet services available

A

EDI, EPL, EVPL, ENS

177
Q

EVPL must have a minimum of

A

1 hub, 2 spokes ports, 2 EVC

178
Q

EPL is limited to how many locations

A

2

179
Q

What are the 3 types of video options to Hospitality

A

Free to guest Video (FTG), Public View, Private view

180
Q

Video for Bar/fitness areas

A

Public view

181
Q

Video for guest room

A

Free to guest

182
Q

Video for conference room / lobby areas

A

Private view

183
Q

mini-mDTA is available for locations up to how many outlets

A

50

184
Q

mDTA is available for locations between how many outlets

A

50-100

185
Q

mini-mDTA supports up ot how many channels and room

A

50 rooms and 36 sd channels

186
Q

mDTA supports up to how many channels

A

80 channels

187
Q

Q2Q supports up to how many channels (both markets)

A

50 Cisco 60 Motorola

188
Q

Q2IP supports how many channels

A

60

189
Q

Q2IP supports up to how many cable cards

A

10

190
Q

Are companies that assist the hospitality entity with additional
services beyond the point of demarcation

A

Value added Resellers

191
Q

This is used to delete unused channels and inserts local feed for
subscription channels or other video such as camera feeds

A

Channel deletion filter and combiner

192
Q

loads base-band signal onto the standard video channel carrier

A

Modulator

193
Q

Q2Q supports how many HD channels

A

25-85

194
Q

If a customer wants to insert channels are a Q2Q it must be
inserted

A

below channel 25

195
Q

uDTA

A

Universal Digital Transport Adapter

196
Q

connects to the incoming RF before it encounters any “drop” or
“insert” equipment

A

uDTA

197
Q

MDTA

A

Multiple Digital Transmit Adapter

198
Q

MDTA supports up to how many outlets

A

50-100

199
Q

MDTA supports a maximum of how many rooms

A

50

200
Q

MDTA output channles are

A

channels 2-72

201
Q

When inserting channels on MDTA

A

must be above ch.72

202
Q

Channel insertion requires at least what signal measurement

A

15 dBmv

203
Q

Modulators can output signal between these levels

A

40 - 80 dBmv

204
Q

Customers must have this internet service for X1 for hospitality

A

EDI

205
Q

X1 hospitality compatible remotes

A

XR11/ XR15

206
Q

Minimum bandwidth required for each Tv

A

6 Mbps

207
Q

Which box is supported to X1 hospitality

A

Xi5

208
Q

The minimum # of truck rolls to complete install

A

4

209
Q

PMS

A

Property Management system

210
Q

This interface can receive a message when a guest checks in or
checks out to remove the last guest’s viewing activity

A

Property Management System (PMS)

211
Q

This device will be installed on the same network as the PMS

A

Nevo-Edge device

212
Q

is an innovative video entertainment experience customized for
hotel guest rooms

A

X1 for hospitality

213
Q

online customer portal which provides capability to manage product health

A

Hotel management System (HMS)

214
Q

This company developed Pro:Idiom

A

LG-Zenith

215
Q

This system is a secure Digital Rights Management

A

Pro:Idiom

216
Q

How many hrs can a guest look ahead on the Q2Q guide

A

2 hrs

217
Q

This is an on-screen programming guide available for Hospitality
HD Free to Guest (FTG) video

A

Electronic programming guide (EPG)

218
Q

What are the 3 Viewing packages for hospitality

A

Private, Public, Free to Guest (FTG)

219
Q

This package is for offices, lobby areas, conference rooms and
break rooms

A

Private Viewing

220
Q

This equipment delivers 36 SD channels for less than 50 rooms

A

mini-mDTA

221
Q

This package is for bar, and fitness center

A

Public viewing

222
Q

This piece of equipment supports up to 82 channels for 50 or more
rooms

A

mDTA

223
Q

Supports up to 60 HD channels on CAT5/CAT6

A

Q2IP

224
Q

Suports up to 60 HD channels with more than 65 rooms on RF

A

Q2Q

225
Q

Supports up to 80 SD channels up to 200 rooms

A

DTA

226
Q

wall mount option that supports up to 80 HD channels

A

HD Universal DTA

227
Q

PIE

A

Private Infrastructure Evaluation

228
Q

purpose of this survey is to verify the perspective hospitality
customers infrastructure is serviceable

A

PIE

229
Q

What are the two outports of the mDTA

A

Digital Bypass, Mixed services

230
Q

What is the minimum year contract for FTG video

A

5 years

231
Q

How many cable cards are equipped with the mDTA

A

12

232
Q

mDTA should have an input reading of, in dbmV

A

21 - 31 dbmV

233
Q

This needs to be installed in mDTA if in line amplifiers are downstream

A

Shunt

234
Q

mDTA has a power input of

A

60VAC

235
Q

How many line RF line extenders can be powered downstream
from the mDTA

A

5

236
Q

Mini-mdta decodes up to how many QAM channels

A

8

237
Q

Mini-mDTa is equipped with how many cable cards

A

6

238
Q

input for mini-mdta, in dbmv

A

(-)8 -to 15 dbmv

239
Q

input for Q2Q, in dBmv

A

(-12) to 15 dBmv

240
Q

CIP

A

Craft Interface Port

241
Q

Baud rate for Q2Q

A

115200

242
Q

This device takes QAM input signal and converts it to an IP for
bulk delivery of video

A

Q2IP

243
Q

What are the two encryption types for Q2IP

A

Pro:Idiom and AES

244
Q

Downstream levels for q2IP

A

5 to 10 dBmv

245
Q

Xi box will boot up in this mode

A

CAA (Commercial Activation App)

246
Q

This third party device provided to the hotel to enable them to
automatically send out device clear signals to Comcast instead of
manually requesting through the HMS application

A

Nevo-edge Device

247
Q

Tool is designed to give quick access to the most important data
when supporting X1 for Hospitality customers

A

Hawkeye

248
Q

great for fitness centers, retail and convenience stores and activity
centers

A

Public view

249
Q

This will protect potential damage to the wall when installing
outlets

A

Mud ring

250
Q

Hospitality customers may have digital service levels providing to
the property’s public, private and FTG

A

Service segmentation

251
Q

uDTA has a maximum HDMI output resolution of this

A

1080i

252
Q

connects to the incoming RF before it encounters any “drop” or
“insert” equipment

A

uDTA

253
Q

Passes through all digital and analog services unchanged from
the input port of the MDTA

A

Digital Bypass

254
Q

Provides analog NTSC video services from 54 to 552 MHz

A

Mixed Services

255
Q

Company used to refer Comcast Business customers for services not covered by Comcast?

A

Hello Tech

256
Q

What are the 3 blocks of static IP’s offered by Comcast Business?

A

1, 5, or 13

257
Q

What is the data cap placed on Comcast Business customers?

A

none. There is no data cap

258
Q

How many internet ports are on a CBR2?

A

6 total. 4 Gigabit ports and 2 Multi-Gig ports.

259
Q

Comcast Business modem that supports WiFi 6?

A

CBR2

260
Q

Comcast Business Modems that support DOCSIS 3.1

A

CBR, CBR2

261
Q

Any new business customer purchasing at least 100 Mbps must have what type of Comcast modem installed?

A

CBR

262
Q

Which Comcast Business modems that support Security Edge, WiFi Pro, and Connection Pro.

A

BWG, CBR, CBR2

263
Q

When can the WAN firewall be fully disabled?

A

Only when the customer has a static IP block loaded on the device.

264
Q

Used to disable routing capabilities on BWG, and CBR modems?

A

Bridge Mode

265
Q

What is the default firewall settings on Comcast Business Gateways?

A

Minimum Security or Low

266
Q

What are the 4 firewall settings offered on a Comcast Business Gateway?

A

1- Minimum Security or low
2- Typical Security or Medium
3- Maximum Security or High
4- custom

267
Q

What are the three different bridge mode options on a Comcast Business gateway?

A

1- Bridge Mode Disabled or Router Mode
2- Enabled / Advanced
3- Enabled / Basic

268
Q

When turned on the gateway transparently bridges all customer ethernet traffic while enabling Xfinity WiFi.

A

Bridge Mode Enabled/Advanced

269
Q

When turned on the gateway transparently passes all ethernet traffic to the modem and the Xfinity WiFi network is disabled.

A

Bridge Mode Enabled/Basic

270
Q

What is the IP address used to access the user interface (UI) on Comcast Business gateways?

A

10.1.10.1

271
Q

Customer UI username and password

A

Username: cusadmin
Password: highspeed

272
Q

Technician UI username and password.

A

Username: MSO
Password: Password of the day

273
Q

A cloud based solution that protects all connected devices on Comcast Business internet.

A

SecurityEdge

274
Q

Two main Wi-fi ready installation types

A

Greenfield, Brownfield

275
Q

Two sub types of Brownfield installs

A

all at once, rolling

276
Q

This type of installation is used for brand new construction.

A

Greenfield

277
Q

This is used for installation existing construction

A

Brownfield

278
Q

The preferred location to install a Gateway is where

A

Media Panel

279
Q

This must never be fished through the wall

A

Power Cord

280
Q

Depth of a media panel

A

5 inches

281
Q

Maximum distance of power outlet from a media panel if there is not one present in the panel itself

A

3 feet

282
Q

Preferred XB device in a Wi-Fi Ready installation

A

XB7

283
Q

Height (range) for XB bracket installation

A

4 - 5.5 ft

284
Q

Position relative to the electrical outlet where XB bracket should be installed

A

6 inches to the left or right

285
Q

How does air flow out of the XB7

A

In the bottom, out the top

286
Q

How many different brackets are available for XB devices

A

2

287
Q

Distance (range) that screws need to be placed on either end of the interior wire conduit

A

1-3 inches

288
Q

Interior wire conduit need screws this often when running horizontally

A

18-24 inches

289
Q

Interior wire conduit need screws this often when running vertically

A

24-36 inches

290
Q

Fiber modem eligible for Wi-Fi Ready

A

XF3/XD4

291
Q

Modem should never be installed near these things…

A

HVAC outlets, radiators, and any other heat source.

292
Q

All the materials included in a welcome kit for Wi-Fi Ready

A

Table Tent, Gateway Sticker, Media Panel Sticker, Plastic Sleeve, Welcome Letter

293
Q

Fan relay

A

Green (G)

294
Q

Change over valve in cool

A

Orange (O)

295
Q

Change over valve in heat

A

Brown (B)

296
Q

24V Neutral (common leg)

A

Black or Blue (C)

297
Q

24V Power for cooling

A

Red (Rc)

298
Q

24V Power for heating

A

Red (Rh)

299
Q

1st stage heat relay

A

White (W)

300
Q

2nd stage heat relay

A

White (W2)

301
Q

1st stage cool relay (compressor)

A

Yellow (Y1)

302
Q

2nd stage cool relay

A

Brown or Orange (Y2/O)

303
Q

Green (G)

A

Fan relay

304
Q

Orange (O)

A

Change over valve in cool

305
Q

Brown (B)

A

Change over valve in heat

306
Q

Black or Blue (C)

A

24V Neutral (common leg)

307
Q

Red (Rc)

A

24V Power for cooling

308
Q

Red (Rh)

A

24V Power for heating

309
Q

White (W)

A

1st stage heat relay

310
Q

White (W2)

A

2nd stage heat relay

311
Q

Yellow (Y1)

A

1st stage cool relay (compressor)

312
Q

Brown or Orange (Y2/O)

A

2nd stage cool relay

313
Q

Bonding of Coaxial installs must meet NEC 70

A

Article 250.94

314
Q

High split architecture is between what frequencys

A

5-204 mhz

315
Q

Max channels on a mini dta

A

36

316
Q

max channels on MDTA

A

72

Mark/Scott/Troy-Lanes Study (11 decks)

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