Marine/Maritime Operations

Question 1

Which watch position ensures proper execution of the operational plan within the execution phase of the operational planning process while remaining aware of the evolving operating picture and the need to deviate from the plan in anticipation of emerging threats, needs, and circumstances? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS3, OS2]

Answer 1

Command Duty Officer

Question 2

Which watch position provides oversight of all operational missions within AOR to include developing recommendations regarding response actions to the Operational Command? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 2

Command Duty Officer

Question 3

Which watch position maintain an overall awareness of operational activity within the CC and/or make necessary adjustments to the watch to react to increased work levels? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 3

Command Duty Officer

Question 4

Which watch position reviews all message traffic and information/data from communications and information systems? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 4

Operations Unit

Question 5

Which watch position coordinates the initial actions, planning, and execution phases for any emergent incident within any mission area requiring a specific maritime response? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 5

Operations Unit

Question 6

Which watch position tracks and monitors the status of all planned or emergent operations within the execution phase of the operational process? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS3, OS2]

Answer 6

Situation Unit

Question 7

Which watch position monitors the Local Tactical Picture (LTP), monitor classified and unclassified data, sensor data? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS3]

Answer 7

Situation Unit

Question 8

Which watch position obtains vital information from vessels/personnel in distress or a maritime incident report that could require a maritime response? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS3]

Answer 8

Communications Unit

Question 9

Which watch position continuously monitor maritime distress and hailing frequencies? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS3]

Answer 9

Communications Unit

Question 10

For any given operation, what stage does the Command Center enter upon initial receipt of an incident which may require a response? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 10

Awareness

Question 11

What SAR Stage is the Command Center in when all pertinent information is collected? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 11

Initial Actions

Question 12

What stage does the Command Center conduct risk management, as well as develop a course of action? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 12

Planning

Question 13

What stage does the Command Center launch resources to an incident and monitors the situation? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

SAR Operations Stages:
Awareness
Initial Action
Planning
Operation
Conclusion

Answer 13

Operations

Question 14

What stage does the Command Center ensure that MISLE and all other case documentation is entered and validated? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 14

Conclusion

Question 15

What tool is used to ensure that oncoming watchstanders complete all required actions prior to assuming duty and aware of operations and cases within the AOR? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 15

Watch Relief Checklist

Question 16

What type of tropical cyclone (system) has surface winds less than 37 kts? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 16

Tropical Depression

Question 17

What type of tropical cyclone has maximum sustained winds of greater than (or equal to) 64 kts? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 17

Hurricane

Question 18

What type of tropical cyclone has maximum sustained winds between 37 to 63 kts? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 18

Tropical Storm

Question 19

What warning is issued when winds are sustained between 34-47 kts? ((LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 19

Gale Warning

Question 20

What warning is issued when sustained winds are between 48-63 kts? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 20

Storm Warning

Question 21

When is hurricane season? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 21

1 June to 30 November

Question 22

What condition is set between 1 June and 30 November? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 22

Hurricane Condition Five (HURCON V)

Question 23

What condition is an alert to hurricane force winders greater than 64 kts and may be expected within 72 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 23

Hurricane Condition Four (HURCON IV)

Question 24

What condition is the readiness condition in which a hurricane may be expected within 48 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 24

Hurricane Condition Three (HURCON III)

Question 25

What condition is the warning in which a hurricane may be expected within 24 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 25

Hurricane Condition Two (HURCON II)

Question 26

What condition signifies "danger" to which a hurricane is may be expected within 12 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 26

Hurricane Condition One (HURCON I)

Question 27

Storm and Hurricane Conditions are set at the direction of the ______. (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 27

District Commander

Question 28

What condition is applied when a general threat of possible terrorist activity exists but warrants only routine security posture? (CIM 5530.1C) [OS2]

Answer 28

FPCON NORMAL

Question 29

What condition applies when there is a general threat of possible terrorist activity directed against units and personnel, the nature and extent of which are unpredictable? (CIM 5530.1C) [OS2]

Answer 29

FPCON ALPHA

Question 30

What condition applies when an increased and more predictable threat of terrorist activity exists? (CIM 5530.1C) [OS2]

Answer 30

FPCON BRAVO

Question 31

What condition applies when an incident occurs or when intelligence is received indicating that some form of terrorist action against units and personnel is imminent? (CIM 5530.1C) [OS2]

Answer 31

FPCON CHARLIE

Question 32

What condition applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific location is likely? (CIM 5530.1C) [OS2]

Answer 32

FPCON DELTA

Question 33

What Flash message is used to disseminate a terrorist threat warning where the probability of an actual terrorist or criminal element attack is credible, specific, and imminent? (CIM 5530.1C) [OS2]

Answer 33

Blue Dart

Question 34

Who is the lowest level that may authorize the increase of FPCON? (CIM 5530.1C) [OS2]

Answer 34

Commanding Officer (Unit Level)

Question 35

What is the U.S. Coast Guard's baseline security posture, set in the face of general, non-specific threats? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS2]

Answer 35

MARSEC I

Question 36

What is a heightened security posture, implemented in response to a specific or non-specific threat? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS2]

Answer 36

MARSEC II

Question 37

What is the security posture normally set when a terrorist attack is imminent or has already occurred? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS2]

Answer 37

MARSEC III

Question 38

Who may raise MARSEC levels? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS2]

Answer 38

CG-0 (Commandant) | Captain of the Ports

Question 39

Who may lower MARSEC levels? (CIM 16600.6N) [OS2]

Answer 39

El Commandante

Question 40

Who is primarily responsible for monitoring planned and emergent activities within the unit’s AOR; tracking the status of activities and readiness of blue forces; collecting, fusing, and disseminating important information; and monitoring the common operational picture (COP)? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 40

Situation Unit

Question 41

Whos is the direct representative of the Operational Commander for current operations, responsible for the performance of the watch in the execution of its primary functions, and ensures the proper coordination of operational plans for a specific operational period? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 41

Command Duty Officer

Question 42

Who is responsible for the planning and execution of incident response missions conducted within the AOR? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 42

Operations Unit

Question 43

Who is responsible for monitoring required voice frequencies, maintaining communication guard requirements, and, as directed, executing tactical communication for emergent operations? (CIM 3120.20A) [OS2]

Answer 43

Communications Unit

Question 44

What port condition is set when gale forces winds from a hurricane are expected to arrive within 72 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 44

Port Condition WHISKEY

Question 45

What port condition is set when gale force winds from a hurricane are expected to arrive within 48 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 45

Port Condition X-RAY

Question 46

What port condition is set when gale force winds from a hurricane are expected to arrive within 24 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 46

Port Condition YANKEE

Question 47

What port condition is set when gale force winds from a hurricane are expected to arrive within 12 hours? (LANT OPLAN 9700 Annex H2) [OS2]

Answer 47

Port Condition ZULU

Question 48

What zone is established by the COTP or District Commander to prevent damage or injury and safeguard ports, harbors, and waterfront facilities? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS1]

Answer 48

Security Zone

Question 49

What zone is used to provide safety or security for U.S. naval vessels? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS1]

Answer 49

Naval Vessel Protection Zone NVPZ)

Question 50

A Naval Vessel Protection Zone expands around a USN asset approximately _____. (CIM 16600.6B) [OS1]

Answer 50

500 yards

Question 51

_______ are designated vessel which carry 500 or more persons on board. (CIM 16600.6B) [OS1]

Answer 51

High Capacity Passenger Vessel (HCPV)

Question 52

What are the five types of Limited Access Areas IAW 33 CFR 165? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS1]

Answer 52

- Security Zone - Safety Zone - Naval Vessel Protection Zone - Restricted Waterfront Areas - Regulated Navigation Areas

Question 53

Enforcement of security and NVP zones required at least ____ armed vessels with Mounted Automatic Weapons.(CIM 16600.6B) [OS1]

Answer 53

Two (2)

Question 54

What is the order of priority for High Value Units (HVUs)? (CIM 16600.6B) [OS1]

Answer 54

- Ballistic Missile Subs (SSBNs) - Aircraft Carriers (CVNs) - Guided Missile Subs (SSGNs) - Attack Subs (SSNs)

Question 55

What gives the Coast Guard statutory basis for its law enforcement missions? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1]

Answer 55

Title 14 U.S.C. 521

Question 56

What is the principle source of Coast Guard MLE authority (SEAS II)? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1]

Answer 56

Title 14 U.S.C. 522

Question 57

What statute gives Coast Guard petty officers, warrant officers, and commissioned officers customs officers authority? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1]

Answer 57

Title 14 U.S.C. 703

Question 58

What is a government's legal power to act? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1]

Answer 58

Authority

Question 59

What is used to determine if a government can enact their authority? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1]

Answer 59

Jurisdiction

Question 60

What are the three elements of Jurisdiction (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1]

Answer 60

- Substantive law - Vessel status/flag - Location

Question 61

What gives the Coast Guard authority to conduct law enforcement ashore? CIM 16247.1G) [OS1

Answer 61

Title 14 U.S.C. 523

Question 62

What law gives the Coast Guard authority to prevent or respond to acts of terrorism against individuals, vessels, public, and commercial structures? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 62

Ports and Waterways Safety Act

Question 63

What statue allows other agencies to request Coast Guard LE assistance? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 63

Title 14 U.S.C. 701

Question 64

Which self-defense is the use of force to defend oneself or others from imminent threat of physical injury? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1) The three types of self-defense are: Individual Unit National

Answer 64

Individual

Question 65

Which self-defense is the act of defending a particular unit of the U.S. military forces or law enforcement agency assets from imminent danger? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 65

Unit

Question 66

Which self-defense is the act of defending the United States, U.S. persons, and/or U.S. commercial assets or property from a hostile act or demonstration of hostile intent? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 66

National

Question 67

What CFR gives CG LE officials access to vessel and facilities in performance of their official duties? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 67

33 CFR 101.515 Pursuant to 33 CFR 101.515, vessel and facility owners and operators must permit LE officials, in the performance of their official duties, who present proper identification, to enter or board that vessel or facility at any time, without delay or obstruction, when the LE officials are acting in the performance of their official duties and present proper identification.

Question 68

Who shall be notified immediately if LE personnel's access to a vessel or facility is delayed or obstructed? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 68

COTP

Question 69

After discussing the know risks of the evolution, who has the ultimate authority and responsibility of deciding upon a course of action? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 69

The on-scene personnel (boarding team).

Question 70

True of False: Physical Force to obtain information during a boarding is authorized? (CIM 16247.1G) [OS1)

Answer 70

FALSE. Boarding Officers and Boarding Team Members are encouraged to develop information gained through tactical questioning of individuals during a boarding, provided that questioning does not rise to the level of a custodial interrogation.