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Operationally Special 101 > 2022 EPME 2.0 > Flashcards

2022 EPME 2.0 Flashcards

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1
Q

Where should CG voluntary education service inquires related to tuition assistance be sent to?

A

ETQC

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2
Q

Registrar services provided by ETQC include which of the following?

A

Degree reporting
JST
Solicitation for voluntary education program awards

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3
Q

Which directive provides specific guidance on the CG voluntary credentialing program?

A

CG Voluntary Credentialing Program CI 1540.10

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4
Q

Where are tuition assistance waivers submitted for final review?

A

ETQC

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5
Q

Where can a link to the ASVAB AFCT waiver request guide be found?

A

ETQC Voluntary Education Services Portal Page

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6
Q

The Harry W. Colmery Veterans Educational Assistance Act is also known as the what?

A

Forever GI Bill

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7
Q

Under the Post-911 GI Bill, a Veteran enrolled at more than one-half time can qualify for a monthly housing allowance based on DoD’s Basic Allowance for Housing (BAH) rate for what rank with dependents?

A

E-5

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8
Q

The Montgomery GI Bill-Active Duty provides up to how many months of education benefits?

A

36

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9
Q

The GI Bill Comparison Tool offers information based on which of the following GI Bill benefits?

A

Tuition/fees, housing allowance, and book stipend.

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10
Q

Veterans in their second 6 months of OJT and Apprenticeship Training programs may use their GI Bill benefits to receive what percentage of the applicable monthly housing stipend?

A

80%

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11
Q

In which of the following cases is TA authorized?

A

Ta is authorized for:

  • Active Duty Military
  • If funded reserve members affiliated with the Selected Reserve (SELRES).
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12
Q

One purpose of the ______ program is to provide developmental incentives for personnel with high ability, dedication, and the capacity for professional growth t remain in the CG.

A

Advanced Education Program

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13
Q

Which of the following is a responsibility for a student who has been accepted into the Advanced Education Program?

A
  1. Apply to Advanced Education Program Manager approved schools.
  2. Gain acceptance to at least one approved school.
  3. Complete necessary prerequisites prior to commencing program.
  4. Provide AEPM and FORECOM with current address, telephone number, and emergency contact information.
  5. Carry a full credit-hour load year-round at the respective college or university.
  6. Attain degree for respective program
  7. Complete program requirements in the allotted time.
  8. Submit evaluations in accordance with the Personnel Manual.
  9. Maintain a close liaison with AEPM.
  10. Submit Student Accounting Form.
  11. Provide diploma and transcript to Servicing Personnel Office for entry of degree completion into DA.
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14
Q

Who acts as subject matter expert to assist CG members with voluntary education programs?

A

Education Services Officer

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15
Q

Which of the following is one of the four firearm safety rules?

A
  1. Treat all firearms as if they are loaded
    2 .Always maintain proper muzzle control
  2. Keep finger off trigger until on target and ready to shoot
  3. Know your target and what is beyond it.
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16
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-3?

A

<p>Six months in pay grade E-2 or satisfactory completion of Class "A" school.</p>

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17
Q

Which of the following is a requirement to advance to E-4?

A

Six months in paygrade of E-3.

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18
Q

The _____ and ASVAB tests are different versions of the same battery of tests.

A

AFCT

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19
Q

Class “A” school course graduates who had their advancement to E-4 withheld upon graduation due to receiving an “UNSAT” conduct while attending school are required to complete how many months of good conduct prior to being advanced?

A

6 months

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20
Q

Which of the following ratings have no direct path of advancement from E-3 to E-4?

A

Investigator (IV) and Diver (DV)

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21
Q

Where is the list of ratings open to striking found?

A

ALCOAST Message

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22
Q

Where are “A” school rating requirements listed?

A

Enclosure (3) to CIM 1500.10C

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23
Q

Which stress management term is defined as “bad” stress?

A

Distress

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24
Q

“Good” stress is related to which stress management term?

A

Eustress

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25
Q

Which term is defined as “the non-specific response of the body to any demands places upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor?

A

Stress

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26
Q

What are “stressors”?

A

The cause of stress (transfers, deadlines, etc.)

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27
Q

What term is defined as a stress management tool used to measure a person’s stress load?

A

Stressmap

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28
Q

Stress is defined within the CG Stress Management Program as:

A

The non-specific response of the body to any demands placed upon it or what you feel after you encounter a stressor

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29
Q

The services provided by the _____ are available for professional assistance with Stress Management

A

Employee Assistance Program Coordinator (EAPC)

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30
Q

Which stress management awareness and skills training promotes an understanding of stress, awareness of support resources, and provides practical stress navigation tools to help build resilience of sailors, families, and commands?

A

Operational Stress Control

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31
Q

How can you contact the Employee Assistance Program?

A

1-855-CGSUPRT

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32
Q

Who is eligible for the Office of Work Life Stress Management Program?

A

Active Duty members and their dependents
Reservists
Civilian Employees of the CG

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33
Q

Identify a signal of distress which an expected stress reaction associated with critical incidents

A 
Emotional responses
Cognitive responses
Behavioral responses
Physiological responses
Spiritual distress responses
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34
Q

<p>The National Institute of Mental Health offers which as example of a way to manage stress?</p>

A

<p>Keep a journal<br></br>Download an app with relaxation exercises<br></br>Exercise and eat healthy<br></br>Get regular sleep<br></br>Avoid excess caffine <br></br>Identify and challenge your negative thoughts<br></br>Reach out to friends and family</p>

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35
Q

The National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism low risk guidelines suggest that “zero” drinks is the low risk option when?

A

Severe SUD

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36
Q

Key behaviors for low-risk alcohol use include what model?

A

0,1,2,3

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37
Q

Where can you find additional clarification on low-risk drinking guidelines?

A

CG-111

rethinkdrinking.niaaa.nih.gov

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38
Q

Which of the following is an intention of the Substance Abuse Prevention Program?

A
  1. Raise awareness of substance abuse issues
  2. Encourage, teach, and support low-risk guidelines for alcohol use
  3. Provide periodic prevention training
  4. Support commands
  5. Outline zero tolerance for drug/substance misuse and abuse
  6. Support mission readiness
  7. Align with other policy
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39
Q

What is Substance Abuse Prime for Life training used for?

A

Prevention education, as an evidence-based alcohol and drug program for members who show signs of misusing alcohol.

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40
Q

What is the definition of substance abuse?

A

The use of a substance by a member, which causes other (performance of duty, health, behavior, family, community) problems or places the member’s safety at risk

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41
Q

What is considered substance abuse?

A

The use of alcohol, prescription drugs, illicit drugs, over the counter compounds, or any substance that is used to change mood or induce a “high” that causes cognitive, behavioral, or physiological impairment problems.

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42
Q

According to the National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) as an individuals BAC increases, the risk of ____ increases

A

Harm

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43
Q

According to the National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) drinking too much over time can raise your risk of _____ cancer, liver disease, and other illnesses.

A

Stroke

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44
Q

According to the National Institute of Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) more than ____ people die from alcohol related causes in the United States each year.

A

95,000

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45
Q

What is considered binge drinking for men?

A

5 or more drinks in two hours

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46
Q

What is considered binge drinking for women?

A

4 or more drinks in two hours

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47
Q

Binge drinking is a pattern of drinking that brings BAC to what percent or higher?

A

.08%

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48
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being slightly impaired?

A

.08%

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49
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by a person being “sloppy drunk”?

A

.16%

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50
Q

<p>What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by stupor or blackout?</p>

A

.30%

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51
Q

What BAC would be associated with the stage of intoxication indicated by coma and risk of death?

A

.40%

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52
Q

A sign of alcohol poisoning is ____?

A

Passes out and cannot be awakened, vomiting while passed out, has cold, clammy, and/or pale skin, and breathing is slow and irregular.

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53
Q

Youth who drink alcohol are more likely to experience _____

A
  1. School problems such as higher rates of absences or lower grades
  2. Social problems such as fighting or lack of participation
  3. Legal problems such as arrest for driving or physically hurting someone while drunk
  4. Physical problems such as hangovers or illness
  5. Unwanted or unplanned and unprotected sexual activity
  6. Disruption of normal growth or sexual development
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54
Q

Which of the following is a reason women face higher risks when drinking alcohol?

A

Alcohol resides predominantly in body water and pound for pound women have less water in their bodies than men.

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55
Q

What is a standard drink for 80 proof hard liquor?

A

1.5 ounces

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56
Q

How many grams of pure alcohol is in a “standard” drink?

A

14 grams

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57
Q

How many fluid ounces of table wine are in a standard drink?

A

5 ounces

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58
Q

How many fluid ounces of beer are in a standard drink?

A

12 ounces

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59
Q

Using the BAC calculator, what would be the BAC percentage for a 150lb male who consumed 3oz. of 40% alcohol over 1 hour?

A

.05

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60
Q

<p>Across the United States, a recorded BAC test of \_\_\_\_ or higher is proof of DUI without any other evidence</p>

A

.08%

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61
Q

A medical professional must perform an analysis and diagnosis for potential ____ upon commission of an alcohol incident or referral.

A

Alcohol Use Disorder

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62
Q

A member diagnosed within the first ____ days of CG service as drug/alcohol abuse or dependent is considered physically disqualified for enlistment.

A

180

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63
Q

What is the CG’s policy on tobacco use and abuse?

A

It is CG policy to discourage the use of all forms of tobacco products and to protect people from exposure to environmental tobacco smoke, unsanitary conditions created by the use of spit tobacco, and the potential addiction to nicotine products. The use of any tobacco product in public detracts from a sharp military appearance and is discouraged. Where conflicts arise between the rights of non-nicotine users and nicotine users, the rights of the non-user will prevail.

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64
Q

Being able to “hold your liquor” or having a high tolerance for alcohol is a ______

A

Concern

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65
Q

Which example would constitute unauthorized use of prescription drugs?

A

No current prescription (within six months) or verified medical use explanation for a drug(s) that would account for the positive urinalysis result. Unauthorized use results in a drug incident finding.

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66
Q

Coast Guard operations are inherently complex, dynamic, dangerous, and by nature, involve …?

A

The acceptance of some level of risk.

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67
Q

Deliberate use of the Risk Management process ______ by reducing member exposure to hazards.

A

Increases mission success

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68
Q

The potential gains of conducting the activity or mission must justify, or warrant, the …?

A

expected risk exposure

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69
Q

What provides a framework to identify and assess hazards, evaluate the risk level, and weigh the risk against the potential benefits?

A

The RM process.

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70
Q

What initial deliberate analysis is updated prior to any mission activity throughout the day to satisfy the time-critical risk management requirement, and expedite response actions?

A

GAR 2.0

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71
Q

When is Risk Management (RM) most effective?

A

When hazards are identified early and there is ample time to evaluate and implement mitigations and controls to reduce risk exposure.

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72
Q

Since all CG missions are operating environments are fluid and dynamic, the RM process is …?

A

Continuous and adaptive.

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73
Q

Where are the steps of RM described?

A

RM Fundamentals

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74
Q

What are units encourages to use to conduct “what can go wrong” analyses on an as needed basis when new missions and activities are introduced to the unit?

A

RM Matrix (RAM)

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75
Q

What are functions of physiological and psychological factors that supports the ability of crewmembers to perform safely and effectively?

A

Crew Endurance

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76
Q

Additional elements can be added to GAR 2.0 risk to address…?

A

unique operational realities

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77
Q

Which model is used to identify hazards and explore mitigation strategies during risk assessments?

A

PEACE

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78
Q

What is defined as the possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard?

A

Risk

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79
Q

What is defined as a process to identify, assess, control, mitigate, and manage hazards associated with an operation or activity?

A

Risk Management

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80
Q

How many actions are there in the Assess Hazards steps in the RM process?

A

3

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81
Q

Which is an action taken during the first step in the RM process?

A

Mission
Task Analysis
What can go wrong Analysis
List Causes

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82
Q

What are captured in GAR 2.0 to make warranted risk decisions?

A

PEACE/STAAR analyses

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83
Q

What model is used to identify those elements considered essential to the safe and effective execution of an operation or activity?

A

PEACE

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84
Q

What deliberate risk assessment should units perform at the start of each day or watch?

A

GAR 2.0

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85
Q

At a minimum, units must included all elements of which model in their GAR 2.0?

A

PEACE

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86
Q

What model outlines potential strategies to mitigate and/or control risk?

A

STAAR

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87
Q

Which models when used in tandem, generate the necessary information to establish a shared mental model up and down the chain of command, assist in decision making, and encourage robust risk management?

A

PEACE and STAAR

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88
Q

Which models can also be applied to activities outside the workplace that are often spontaneous and dynamic?

A

PEACE and STAAR

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89
Q

What shall all units use to conduct a real-time risk assessment prior to engaging in operations or activities that expose personnel to hazards?

A

GAR 2.0

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90
Q

Who determines whether a particular use of a government motor vehicle is for official purposes?

A

Unit commander, CO, or Officer in Charge

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91
Q

When are CG owned motor vehicles authorized to transport spouses spouses and dependents?

A

From the workplace to an official function to which the spouse and dependents were invited and the employee if participating in an official capacity.

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92
Q

Which of the following would be an authorized use of a CG owned motor vehicle?

A 
Official purpose
Ceremonies
Non-CG employees in official capacity
Spouse and dependent with member
Military Recruits
Official Travel
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93
Q

Only government employees that possess a ___ and _____ state, territorial, or District of Columbia drivers license are permitted to operate a motor vehicle

A

Current and Unrestricted

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94
Q

To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, commands must identify hazards and reduce risks when assigning long distance driving duties to personnel who have been on-duty within the previous ____ hours.

A

8

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95
Q

<p>To reduce the potential for traffic mishaps caused by operator fatigue, members must not exceed \_\_\_ hours of combined duty hours and driving hours.</p>

A

14

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96
Q

Which form is used to report accidents involving a government motor vehicle?

A

SF91

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97
Q

Personnel convicted of a serious moving violation while operating a GMV must…?

A

Complete a driver improvement course

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98
Q

What term is defined as the process involved in managing ones personal finances, including income, expenses, and investments for an individual or family?

A

Personal financial management

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99
Q

The definition of which term includes prudent day to day management of personal finance?

A

Personal financial management

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100
Q

What term is defined as the act of evaluating an individual’s or family’s income and expenditures and recommending short and long-term actions to achieve financial goals and ensure individual, family and mission readiness?

A

Financial Planning and Counseling

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101
Q

The Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP) consists of how many elements?

A

7

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102
Q

Which of the following is an element of the Personal Financial Management Program (PFMP)?

A

7 total. Education and Training, Counseling, Information and Referral, Command Financial Specialist Program, Outreach, Collaboration and Coordination, and CG SUPRT Financial Wellness Program.

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103
Q

Commands with at least _ personnel assigned, must have a trained Command Financial Specialist (CFS).

A

25

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104
Q

What is the early withdraw penalty tax for the Thrift Saving Plan?

A

10% of any taxable portion of the distribution not transferred or rolled over

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105
Q

The compliance tab in CGBI is broken down into _ categories, based on level of compliance.

A

4

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106
Q

What will you need to do if your preferred email address is not listed as an option when signing up for email notifications in CGBI?

A

Update your contact information in Direct Access to include your preferred email address.

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107
Q

If your personal readiness data in CGBI need corrections, select the _ icon in the top-right corner of the ‘Skills” Tab

A

BLUE- GET MORE INFORMATION

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108
Q

What is a purpose of the EES?

A

To set standards by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of all enlisted members.
To inform enlisted members of the performance standards they will be measured against.
To provide a means by which enlisted members can receive feedback on how well they are measuring up to the standards.
To capture a valid, reliable assessment of enlisted members’ performance so the Coast Guard may advance and assign members with a high degree of confidence. To provide the Coast Guard with a tool to support a wide variety of human resource decisions including discharges, reenlistments, conduct determination, advancement eligibility, assignments and reductions in rate.
To provide members’ of boards and panels with the necessary information to make selections and decisions based on enlisted members observed performance and potential.

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109
Q

Which of the functions is the evaluee’s responsibility within the EES?

A

Familiarization, Performance, Evaluation Input, Acknowledgement, Verification

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110
Q

The _ comprised of designated members who execute the enlisted evaluation report process for enlisted members.

A

RATING CHAIN

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111
Q

Which of the following is a factor type of performance within the EES?

A

MILITARY, PERFORMANCE, PROPESSIONAL QUALITIES AND LEADERSHIP

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112
Q

A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins _.

A

A new period of eligibility for the Good Conduct award begins the day after the effective date of the EER in which an unsatisfactory conduct mark was awarded. If confinement is imposed by NJP or CM and the member is confined, the good conduct eligibility period starts on the date of release, regardless if on probation. If no confinement is included in the punishment or sentence, the good conduct eligibility period starts the day following conviction or awarding of NJP.

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113
Q

The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report _.

A

May not be appealed to an appeal authority.

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114
Q

Who is normally the appeal authority for an EER?

A

The first flag officer in the evaluee’s chain of command.

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115
Q

What is the definition given in the Recruit Training Master Pamphlet for effective communication?

A

SUCCESSFUL IN ESABLISHING AN ACTIVE TWO WAY LINK WITH ANOTHER INDIVIDUAL OR GROUP

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116
Q

What are the common barriers to effective communication?

A 
Physical/ Distance
Ambient Noise
Distracting Movement
Language (dialect, accent)
Past Experience
Stereotypes
Emotional Blocking
Social Status
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117
Q

How can you overcome the common barriers to effective communication?

A

Suspend judgment by practicing nonjudgmental listening.
Resist distractions focus on the person. Make eye contact.
Wait before responding. Listen with an open mind before responding.
Make nonjudgmental comments. Ask open-ended questions.
Observe body language and voice tone. Avoid assumptions listen to the whole story.
Eliminate external and internal distractions.
Avoid push-button issues that you know have the potential to make the listener upset.
Avoid daydreaming.
Do not prepare your response while someone is talking

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118
Q

What is a means to test understanding of a message for effective communication?

A

PARROTING, PARAPHRASING, AND CLARIFYING

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119
Q

What is one type of listening for effective communication?

A

Inactive, selective, active, reflective

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120
Q

What is a reason for feedback in effective communication?

A

ACHIEVE PERSONAL GROWTH. ANYTIME SOMEONE TELLS YOU SOMETHING IN A CONSTRUCTIVE MANNER, YOU SHOULD CONSIDER IT A GIFT AND SAYTHANK YOU.
RECEIVER GAINS INSIGHT INTO SOMETHING THEY MAY NOT HAVE OBSERVED ABOUTTHEMSELVES.
FEEDBACK CREATES AN OPEN ENVIRONMENT BY ALLOWING FOR THE SHARING OF IDEAS AND INFORMATION.
IT HELPS YOU PREPARE FOR THE FUTURE BY NOT DWELLING ON THE PAST.

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121
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for giving feedback?

A

BE SPECIFIC AND TO THE POINT. EXPRESS EXACTLY WHAT HAPPENED.
FOCUS ON BEHAVIOR OF THE PERSON AND NOT ON THE PERSON.
DIRECT FEEDBACK TOWARD CHANGEABLE BEHAVIOR ONLY. FEEDBACK MUST BE SOLICITED. WHEN SOMEONE ASKS FOR HELP, THAT PERSON IS OPEN TO FEEDBACK.FEEDBACK MUST BE TIMELY. DO NOT WAIT TO GIVE IT
CHECK FOR UNDERSTANDING. USE ACTIVE LISTENING SKILLS.

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122
Q

For effective communication, what is a basic rule to follow for receiving feedback?

A

TRY TO BE OPEN MINDED AND RECEPTIVE. DON’T BE DEFENSIVE.
ASK FOR RELEVANT EXAMPLES THATTHEY HAVE SEEN.\n- SUMARIZE TO ENSURE UNDERSTANDING OF THE FEEDBACK.
SAY “THANK YOU.·REMEMBER, FEEDBACK IS A GIFT AND YOU SHOULD TREAT IT THATWAY.

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123
Q

What Is included in the definition of the Leading Self competency of followership?

A

ALL COAST GUARD MEMBERS ARE FOLLOWERS. THE FOLLOWERSHIP ROLE ENCOMPASSES INITIATIVE, COMMITMENT, RESPONSIBILITY, ACCOUNTABILITY, CRITICAL THINKING, AND EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATIONS. FOLLOWERS LOOK TO LEADERS FOR GUIDANCE AND FEEDBACK THEY EXPECT CHALLENGING TASKS TO BOTH LEARN AND DEVELOP COMPETENCE. ACTIVELY INVOLVED, THEY SEEK TO UNDERSTAND THROUGH LISTENING, RESPONSIBLE QUESTIONING AND FEEDBACK. FOLLOWERS HAVE THE RESPONSIBILITY TO WORK WITH LEADERS TO ENSURE SUCCESSFUL MISSION ACCOMPLISHMENT.

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124
Q

The anticipated level of expertise for followership is shared by which responsibility levels?

A

Executive senior manager, mid-level manager, first line supervisor, worker

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125
Q

What is the Coast Guard’s definition of leadership?

A

IS THE ABILITY TO INFLUENCE OTHERS TO OBTAIN THEIR OBEDIENCE, RESPECT, CONFIDENCE, AND LOYAL COOPERATION

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126
Q

The Coast Guard Leadership Development Framework consists of how many components?

A

4

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127
Q

Which of the following is a Coast Guard leadership competency

A 
LEADING THE COAST GUARD (Strategic thinking, political savvy, entrepreneurship, external awareness, partnering, human resource management, financial management, technology management, stewardship.) LEADING SELF (Accountability and responsibility, followership, self awareness and learning, aligning values, health and well-being, personal conduct, technical proficiency.) 
LEADING OTHERS (Effective communications, influencing others, respect for others/Diversity management, team building, taking care of people, mentoring.) 
LEADING PERFORMANCE AND CHANGE (Vision development and implementation, Creativity and innovation, conflict management, decision making and problem solving, management and process improvement, customer focus.)
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128
Q

How do you access and view your payslip?

A

Log into Direct Access and select the View My Payslips (AD/RSV) link from the Employee pagelet

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129
Q

What dependent information in the payslip is important for eligibility to receive benefits?

A

DATE OF BIRTH

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130
Q

Which block of the payslip contains a member’s basic pay?

A

Earnings

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131
Q

What information can be found in the tax data section of they payslip?

A

FICA / FITW / SWT

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132
Q

In which section of your payslip can you validate whether or not you are receiving the correct pay and/or allowances?

A

MIDDLE SECTION

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133
Q

Which information can be found in the bottom section of the payslip?

A

All current and year to date (YTD) wages and taxes are shown that appear on a W2. A summary of leave is also shown and the Net Pay Distribution section shows Direct Deposit info and the amount that was actually deposited into your account.

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134
Q

What information is found in the Net Pay Distribution block of the payslip?

A

Section shows Direct Deposit info and the amount that was actually deposited into your account.

135
Q

Which section of the payslip will show information unique to each member?

A

Remarks Section

136
Q

You will not render a salute if the person to be<br></br>saluted does not approach within __ paces.

A

30 paces

137
Q

Onboard ship salutes shall be dispensed with after the first daily meeting with what exception?

A

The Commanding Officer and officer’s senior to the CO, to visiting officers, to officers making inspections, and to officers when addressing or being addressed by them. (pg. 119)

138
Q

You must render salutes to which of the following?

A

Officers of the armed forces of the US, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration, the public Health Service and foreign armed services. (pg. 119)

139
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem and conditions permit, the senior person should

A

Vehicles within sight or hearing of the ceremony shall be stopped. Persons riding in such vehicles shall remain seated at attention

140
Q

If in a motor vehicle during the National Anthem,

the driver shall_

A

Vehicles within sight or hearing of the ceremony shall be stopped. Persons riding in such vehicles shall remain seated at attention.

141
Q

When are salutes rendered by persons in motor

vehicles?

A

Persons operating moving motor vehicles should not render or return salutes. Passengers will render and return salutes

142
Q

When in uniform at a parade, if the flag passes

you, you shall_.

A

Salute

143
Q

When in civilian attire at a parade, when the flag

passes you shall_.

A

Comply with the rules and customs established for civilians (Hand over heart).

144
Q

The Code of Conduct is an ethical guide for members of the Armed Forces that has ____ articles.

A

6

145
Q

All members of the Armed Forces of the United States are expected to measure up to the standards embodied in the Code of Conduct ____

A

while they are in combat or in captivity.

146
Q

Which of the following would be a prohibited political activity for a member of the Armed Forces?

A

muzzle March or riding political parade, display political sign at residence on military installation, Fundraising, Speaking before a partisan political gathering, Participating in any radio, tv, to advocate for or against a political party

147
Q

The National Terrorism Advisory System (NTAS) consists of how many types of advisories?

A

Two. Bulletins and Alerts

148
Q

Which FPCON requires the movement of cars and objects at least 25 meters from buildings?

A

FPCON BRAVO

149
Q

Which Type I PFD provides greater mobility when the use of law enforcement or other types of gear are required?

A

Stearns Model 1600

150
Q

Boat characteristics include which two types of frames?

A

Transverse and Longitudinal

151
Q

Members with a PFB waiver will trim facial hair as to not to exceed what length?

A

¼ inch in length

152
Q

Which grooming standard applies to moustaches?

A

Men only - Neatly groomed

153
Q

Who can grant a permanent shaving waiver for members?

A

CO or OIC

154
Q

The USCG celebrates its birthday on_ of each year.

A

August 4th, 1790

155
Q

The Revenue Cutter Service began with _ cutters at a cost of $1000 each.

A

10

156
Q

In 1838, Congress enacted legislation in response
to steamboat boiler explosions that would evolve
over the next several decades into what agency?

A

Steamboat Inspection Service

157
Q

The first time that a federal agency was specifically tasked with looking for people in danger was in _ when the Revenue Cutter Gallatin was ordered to patrol the coast.

A

1831 (December)

158
Q

The United States Coast Guard was formed when the Revenue Cutter Service and Life-Saving Service were merged on what date?

A

January 28, 1915

159
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to Department of Transportation?

A

April 1967

160
Q

When was the United States Coast Guard transferred to the Department of Homeland Security?

A

01 March 2003

161
Q

Alexander Hamilton was appointed to be the first ____

A

Secretary of the Treasury

162
Q

Who was the Coast Guard’s First Aviator?

A

Elmer Stone

163
Q

Who was the first Commandant of the Coast Guard

A

Ellsworth Bertholf

164
Q

On June 19 1911, Ellsworth Bertholf was named Captain Commandant of the _____

A

Revenue Cutter Service

165
Q

Who was awarded the Medal of Honor for evacuating a battalion of Marines trapped by Japanese forces on September 27, 1927?

A

Douglas Munro (a.k.a. Douggie Fresh) (a.k.a. America’s Hero)

166
Q

Where did SM1 Douglas Munro aid a battalion of Marines during landing and rescue?

A

Point Cruz, Guadalcanal

167
Q

SMl Douglas Munro was in charge of 26 Higgins
boats during an amphibious invasion at Point
Cruz,_.

A

Guadalcanal

168
Q

What vessel is credited with firing the first naval shot of the Civil War?

A

Harriet Lane

169
Q

The USCGC TAMPA was sunk by _ during World War I.

A

German U-boat / Torpedo

170
Q

An explosion that killed more than 1,600 people in Nova Scotia led Congress to establish ___ duties for the United States Coast Guard.

A

COTP Offices In NY, Philly, Norfolk, and Sault Ste. Marie

171
Q

Captain of the Port duties were assigned to the
United States Coast Guard during which military
conflict?

A

World War I

172
Q

During World War I, how many USCG cutters went overseas to perform convoy escort duty between Gibraltar and Great Britain?

A

6

173
Q

During World War 11, which Coast Guard officer led a 16 member unit of his special task force on a raid to a German arsenal in Cherbourg, France?

A

LCDR (later Captain) Quentin R. Walsh

174
Q

Which Coast Guard officer was awarded the Navy Cross for heroic actions during the liberation of 50 American paratroopers who had been prisoners since D-Day.

A

CAPTAIN QUENTIN R. WALSH

175
Q

During Vietnam, the United States Coast Guard conducted ___J which patrolled the South Vietnamese coast to stop the flow of war materials and personnel from going to the VietCong.

A

Operation Market Time

176
Q

During Vietnam, how many Point Class patrol
boats from the Coast Guard were sent to Vietnam
to support maritime interdiction operations?

A

26

177
Q

Where did Coast Guard Port Security Units deploy in 1990-1991.

A

Persian Gulf

178
Q

The United States Coast Guard were among the first to respond to the attack on the World Trade Center on_

A

September 11th, 2001

179
Q

In which year did the United States Coast Guard

conducted the largest domestic SAR mission in United States history following Hurricane Katrina.

A

2005

180
Q

The United States Coast Guard mobilized more than 2,700 reservists in the largest homeland security operation since WWII following …?

A

September 11, 2001

181
Q

In 2010, the USCG reserves were activated in response to the Deepwater Horizon oil rig explosion that forcefully pumped oil and gasses into Gulf waters for how many days?

A

87 days

182
Q

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal was posthumously awarded which award for his actions on 24 April 2004?

A

Bronze Star Medal with combat V

183
Q

Who served as a boarding officer on the USS FIREBOLT PC 10 in Iraq when he was mortally wounded?

A

DC3 Nathan Bruckenthal

184
Q

How many times has the National Ensign been changed since 1776?

A

26

185
Q

The CG Ensign consists of ____ perpendicular stripes, alternating red and white

A

16

186
Q

The ____ is displayed as a mark of authority for boardings, examinations, and seizure of vessels for the purpose of enforcing U.S. laws

A

CG Ensign

187
Q

On 1 August 1799, Secretary of Treasury, Oliver Wolcott issued an order specifying the design of the

A

CG Ensign

188
Q

The ____ was created to fly in place of the national flag while in American waters

A

CG Ensign

189
Q

During parades and ceremonies, the CG Standard is adorned with 43 ____

A

Battle Streamers

190
Q

The design of the ___ is obscure, but it may have evolved from an early jack

A

CG Standard

191
Q

The ____ is the upper left corner of the CG Ensign

A

CG Standard

192
Q

This flag is used during parades and ceremonies

A

CG Standard

193
Q

What is carried in all ceremonies representing heroic actions in all naval encounters from 1798 to the present?

A

Battle Streamers

194
Q

Battle Streamers are attached to the ____ replacing cords and tassels

A

CG Standard

195
Q

Individual units may only display those ___ that they have earned.

A

Battle Streamers

196
Q

Only ____ may display a complete set of battle streamers

A

Major Headquarters Commands

197
Q

The USCG adopted battle streamers in 1968 following the practice established by the _____

A

US Marines

198
Q

The USCG is authorized a total of ____ battle streamers

A

43

199
Q

The ____ is flown on the bow of a vessel only, while at anchor or moored in port

A

Union Jack

200
Q

The ___ is flown on the jackstaff, which is located on the bow of a vessel

A

Union Jack

201
Q

The ____ is the canton of the United Stated Flag

A

Union Jack

202
Q

The presence of the ____ indicated that a cutter is under the command of a commissioned officer.

A

Commissioning Pennant

203
Q

The ___ is used on invitations, programs, certificates, diplomas, and greetings

A

CG Seal

204
Q

The first CG Seal and Emblem were approved by Treasury Secretary Andrew W. Mellon in what year?

A

1927

205
Q

The CG ____ was ordered to be used on the CG Ensign as a distinctive logo in 1957.

A

CG Emblem

206
Q

The historical significance of the Coast Guard ____ dates back to the Revenue Cutter Service

A

CG Shield

207
Q

The ___ consists of a wide red bar forward of a narrow blue bar both canted at 64 degrees on the bow with CG emblem superimposed

A

CG stripe

208
Q

The ____ was developed in the 1960’s by the industrial design firm Raymond Loewy/Williams Snaith Inc.

A

CG Stripe

209
Q

Semper Paratus is the Latin word meaning

A

Always Ready or Ever Ready

210
Q

When was the CG Motto adopted?

A

Between October 1896 and May 1897

211
Q

The earliest recorded use of the phrase Semper Paratus appeared in a newspaper article in what city praising the Revenue Cutter Service?

A

New Orleans

212
Q

What language did Semper Paratus originate from?

A

Latin

213
Q

The music for Semper Paratus was written by who?

A

Captain Francis Saltus Van Boskerck

214
Q

What is a Safety Data Sheet?

A

The SDS includes information such as the properties of each chemical, the physical, health, and environmental health hazards, protective measures, and safety precautions for handling, storing, and transporting the chemical.

215
Q

What must be readily accessible to all workers while in their work area, when workers are required to use HAZMAT or when workers are at risk of exposure to HAMAT?

A

SDS

216
Q

If the SDS is not available, who must the unit notify to obtain the SDS?

A

Manufacturer

217
Q

The standard GHS formal for a safety data sheet includes ____ sections, in a specific order

A

16

218
Q

Specific hazard information may not be present on a chemical container, as a result you must consult the ____ to prevent improper use or handling.

A

SDS

219
Q

GHS provides a standard for the content, layout, and presentation of ___?

A

Labels

220
Q

What is the Active and Reserve Gold Badge assignment standard tour length?

A

2 Years

221
Q

Who must provide the Commander/Commanding Officer endorsement for all CSELs except the MCPOG and MCPOG-CGR?

A

O6 or higher

222
Q

What program is intended to assist you in becoming familiar with your new community and the resources available when you are reassigned?

A

Relocation Assistance Program

223
Q

Who can provide you with community information, demographic information, relocation packages, and state information when you are reassigned?

A

Transition/Relocation Managers

224
Q

Transition/Relocation Managers may provide ____ with local resource information

A

Welcome Packages

225
Q

How should you contact your transition/relocation manager?

A

In the work-life office at your receiving unit or at the regional work life staff office

226
Q

Your ___ can help you utilize the Office of Work-Life Adoption Reimbursement Program

A

National Foster Care and Adoption Directory

227
Q

Who is your point of contact for information relating to the CG Scholarship Program?

A

Family Resource Specialist at the Regional Work-Life Staff Office

228
Q

What form is used to enroll a dependent family member with medical special needs into the Special Needs Program?

A

Family Member Medical Summary DD Form 2792

229
Q

What is the title for the for staff members at Health Safety and Work-life Regional Practices specifically trained to assist individuals and commands when maltreatment incidents occur?

A

Family Advocacy Specialist

230
Q

One purpose of the ___ is prevention, identification, reporting, investigation, and treatment of intimate partner and child maltreatment

A

Family Advocacy Program

231
Q

CGSUPRT is part of HSWL’s …?

A

Office of Work Life

232
Q

Members can call ___ 24/365 to speak with an experienced and highly trained counselor

A

CGSUPRT (Employee Assistance Program)

233
Q

The ____ has been designed to capture a valid reliable assessment of enlisted members performance so the CG can advance and assign them with a high degree of confidence

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

234
Q

The ___ has been designed to inform enlisted members of the performance standards against which they are measured

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

235
Q

The ____ has been designed to provide a means by which each enlisted member can receive feedback on how well the member is measuring up to the standards

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

236
Q

The ___ has been designed to provide information about discharges, re-enlistments, good conduct, advancement eligibility, and reductions in pay grade.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

237
Q

The ___ has been designed to set standard by which to evaluate the performance and behavior of each enlisted member.

A

Enlisted Evaluation System

238
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E1 and E2 is the last day of which months?

A

January and July (AD only)

239
Q

The end of marking periods for pay grade E3 is the last day of which month?

A

February and August (AD only)

240
Q

The end of the marking periods for pay grade E4 is the end of which month?

A

March and September (AD only)

241
Q

When do you need to provide evaluation input for your EER?

A

no later than 14 days prior to the end of the marking period. marks of a 1, 3, and 7.

242
Q

What is done with the completed original EER counseling sheet?

A

The unit provides the evaluee the original counseling sheet.

243
Q

Your signature on the member’s signature block of the EER counseling sheet indicates acknowledgment of ____

A

The counseling and review of their evaluation report.
The impact of their evaluation report on their Good Conduct eligibility
The appeal time frame
Their advancement potential and recommendation.

244
Q

The Marking Official should route the completed evaluation report to the approving official no later than ___ days after the evaluation report period ending date.

A

5 days

245
Q

The ___ is responsible for ensuring your evaluation is based on how you performed in each performance dimension consistently through the period.

A

Rating Chain

246
Q

What competency within a performance assessment must be adhered to every day of the marking period?

A

Conduct?

247
Q

What are the individual elements located under each factor type on which the CG evaluates its enlisted members called?

A

Competencies

248
Q

How many major categories of performance are there in the EES?

A

4

249
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures the member’s ability to bring credit to the CG through personal demeanor and professional actions?

A

Military bearing

250
Q

Which factor type in the EER measures a member’s ability to direct, guide, develop, influence, and support, others performing work?

A

Leadership

251
Q

Performance standards are the written criteria that outlines the expected performance to receive a mark of ___ in each competency

A

2, 4, or 6 in each competency

252
Q

If a member receives an unsat conduct mark on their EER, it will negatively impact their…?

A

Advancement and good conduct award eligibility

253
Q

Can the decision from the approving official on the advancement recommendation be appealed?

A

The recommendation for advancement portion on the evaluation report may not be appealed to an appeal authority.

254
Q

What are the possible choices for advancement recommendations?

A

Ready
Not ready
Not recommended

255
Q

What must occur when a member does not receive an advancement recommendation?

A

Approving official must try to counsel member and explain steps necessary to be ready for advancement . Comments must be detailed to why the not recommended was issued,

256
Q

The appeals process is designed to review marks the evaluee believes were based on what?

A

Incorrect information
Prejudice
Discrimination
Disproportionately low marks for the particular circumstances

257
Q

What must be contained in an appeal letter for an EER?

A

Specific competencies in dispute and supporting information indicating why the marks should be reviewed.
Supporting information must include specific examples of demonstrated performance that indicate how the member met or exceeded the written standards.
The member attaches a copy of the signed evaluation report counseling sheet as the first enclosure and other enclosures pertinent to the assigned marks.

258
Q

What is the deadline for active duty member to submit an appeal for their EER?

A

Within 15 calendar days after they signed the acknowledgement form.

259
Q

What is the EER appeal deadline for reservists?

A

45 calendar days after they signed the acknowledgment form.

260
Q

What is the dollar value limit placed on gifts given to an official superior on an occasional basis?

A

$10

261
Q

Where are the deadlines for Personal Data Extract (PDE) verifications and corrections provided?

A

SWE ALCGENL announcement message

262
Q

On your PDE, time in rating and time in service are computed up to what point?

A

terminal eligibility date

263
Q

On your PDE award points are earned up to what point?

A

service wide eligibility date

264
Q

Sea time points on a PDE are calculated at what rate

A

2 points per year

265
Q

On your PDE you will receive credit for all sea/surf award points for your first advancement on or after what date?

A

point start date

266
Q

What should you do if you find errors on your PDE?

A

Note them on a printed copy of PDE and provide it to admin.

267
Q

What should you do after ranking positions in order of preference on your eresume?

A

click return to previous page

268
Q

Once you have chosen all desired job basket boxes for an eresume what should your next step be?

A

click and save to job basket

269
Q

How do you make corrections on an eresume after it has been submitted?

A

You can only submit one eresume a day, so just correct and resubmit the following day.

270
Q

What is the form number for the Enlisted Individual Development Plan?

A

CG5357

271
Q

What is an IDP?

A

A personally tailored action plan that the supervisor and individual use to identify short and long term personal and career goals

272
Q

What is an IDP NOT?

A

A performance evaluation method, a contract for training, or a means for clarifying or revising a position description.

273
Q

A first term enlisted members IDP must be introduced and discussed with their supervisor within how many days of reporting to the unit?

A

30

274
Q

What does analysis of mishap data reveal as the most common cause of mishaps?

A

lack of deliberate and systemic risk management during preparation, planning, and execution of operations and activities.

275
Q

What does the RM process rely on to identify asses control mitigate and manage potential hazards?

A

PEACE

276
Q

Which of the following is the foundation of the RM process?

A

Hazard Identification

277
Q

In step 1 of the RM process, if time is limited and a thorough task analysis cannot be performed, what model can be used?

A 
PEACE
Planning
Event Complexity
Asset Selection
Communications
Environmental Conditions
278
Q

In the first step of the RM process cycle, WHY analysis is used in which action

A

Action 3 LIST CAUSES

279
Q

How is risk defined within RM

A

The possibility of loss or injury due to exposure to a hazard

280
Q

Which of the following is a risk assessment pitfal?

A

Misrepresentation, alarmism, indiscrimination, prejudice, inaccuracy, enumeration

281
Q

Develop controls is the first action in which step of RM process?

A

Step 3 develop control and make risk decisions

282
Q

Reducing risks by transferring all or some portion of that mission or task, to another individual, unit, or platform that is better positioned, more survivable, or more expendable is a control option using the ___ approach?

A

Transfer from STAAR

Spread out
Transfer
Avoid
Accept
Reduce
283
Q

The movement of forces, equipment, or tasks to other areas in order to avoid risk to the entire mission refers to what control option to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

Spread out

284
Q

What is the control option used for specific risks by “going around” them or doing the mission or task i a different way?

A

Avoid

285
Q

Within the RM process, which is a type of control that can be applied to hazards to mitigate the risk?

A

Physical controls?

286
Q

What mnemonic provides a simple and convenient aide to identify some approaches to eliminate or reduce risk?

A

STAAR spread out, transfer, avoid, accept, reduce

287
Q

What is the first choice in the standard of order of precedence for RM controls?

A

Design and engineering controls

288
Q

In which step of the RM process cycle does a member establish accountability?

A

Step 4 implement controls

289
Q

Which of the following is an action in step 4 of the RM process?

A

Make implementation clear
Establish roles and responsibilities
Provide Support

290
Q

Documentation is critical to the success of which step in the overall RM process?

A

Step 4 Implement Controls

291
Q

How many actions are there in the last step of the RM process?

A

3

292
Q

In step 5 of the RM process, “ensure changes requiring further RM are identified” is part of which action?

A

Evaluate

293
Q

In the RM process, what action follows an evaluation?

A

Feedback

294
Q

CG leaders communicate effectively in which of the following ways?

A

Formal and informal

295
Q

What is a trait described for CG leaders within the effective communications competency?

A

CG leaders communicate effectively in both formal and informal settings. Good listeners reinforce the message they convey supportive mannerisms.

296
Q

What is part of the anticipated level of expertise for a first-line supervisor in influencing others?

A

Learns to influence others, gains cooperation, while showing respectful understanding of other’s positions.

297
Q

Which leadership competency is being displayed by a first-line supervisor who coaches others and provides sound, thoughtful advice?

A

Mentoring

298
Q

What is the first step in resolving conflict among peers?

A

Defining conflict

299
Q

What is the third stage of conflict?

A

Escalation

300
Q

What is a characteristic of the escalation stage of conflict?

A

the point of contention where a peer to peer conflict can become increasingly aggressive.

301
Q

Which stage of conflict represents the path for resolving a conflict without first escalating?

A

Stage 4 De-escalating

302
Q

The Coast Guard’s preferred style for conflict management is ___

A

Collaborating

303
Q

In this conflict management style, the conflict must be resolved quickly and without regard for the other person’s desires

A

Competing

304
Q

In this conflict management style, intervention is considered but without a high value placed on your own desires.

A

Accommodating

305
Q

In this conflict management style, each person makes a sacrifice so that both parties get part of what they want

A

Compromising

306
Q

What is the last stage in resolving conflicts among peers?

A

Stage 5 Resolution

307
Q

The service stripe is placed at a ___ angle on the SDB jacket.

A

Diagonally at a 45 degree angle with the lower edge of the lowest stripe 2 inches from the cuff.

308
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E7?

A

Gold

309
Q

What color is the service stripe on the SDB jacket for an E4?

A

Scarlet

310
Q

What is the only authorized knot for the blue standard necktie?

A

Double Windsor

311
Q

When wearing the women’s overblouse with the SDB, the bottom of the overblouse shall …?

A

Not be visible under the SDB coat

312
Q

What does the women’s long sleeve light blue shirt have?

A

Fly front covering the button closure and pleated patch pocket

313
Q

What is the only alteration that is authorized for the light blue shirt?

A

Sleeve of the long sleeve shirt may be shortened. Both the long and short sleeved versions of the light blue shirt may be altered to provide a better or more athletic fit.

314
Q

Commands may prohibit the wear of which type of blue crew neck t-shirt in spaces subject to intense heat or fire?

A

Wicking polyester versions

315
Q

What is required for wear with all uniforms?

A

Undershirts with quarter length sleeves

316
Q

What shirts are women authorized to wear with the tropical blue short sleeve uniform?

A

Women’s shirt, overblouse, or men’s shirt

317
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short Sleeve uniform, men are required to wear…?

A

Black oxfords

Men’s Shirt

318
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Short sleeve, what footwear is authorized for women wearing slacks?

A

Oxfords
Pumps
Flats

319
Q

What head gear is authorized for wear with the Tropical Blue Long uniform?

A

Combo cover or Garrison cap

320
Q

What is not authorized to wear with the tropical blue long sleeve uniform?

A

Ribbons

321
Q

Oxfords are not authorized when…?

A

The women’s skirt is worn

322
Q

The women’s skirt and the women’s slacks align with the belt so that the…?

A

belt clip end should face the wearers right

323
Q

In all cases, the non-tab edge of the black belt with brass tip must align with the…?

A

Fly

324
Q

Which uniform item is not authorized to wear with the SDB jacket?

A

Wash and wear trouser/slacks

325
Q

What is an authorized color for sunglasses frames?

A

unadorned black or navy blue, gold, or silver

326
Q

You can wear a maximum of ___ rings per hand

A

1 ring

wedding/engagement ring sets counts as 1 ring

327
Q

Which of the following is a prohibited watch color?

A

diamond covered
Neon
White
Bright Colors

328
Q

What kind of rings are NOT authorized?

A

Thumb rings

329
Q

What insignias are worn on garrison covers?

A

E1-E3: CG Medallion
E4-E6: Collar device
E7-E9: Garrison Cap anchor

330
Q

While wearing the light blue shirt, collar insignia are centered between the visible top and bottom collar edges and …?

A

center of device is 1 inch and parallel from the leading edge

331
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long Sleeve uniform, the ___ will be worn over the wearers left pocket

A

Only 1 full sized insignia

332
Q

When wearing the Tropical Blue Long, the ___ will be worn over the wearer’s right pocket

A

Name tag

333
Q

What manual can you reference for the proper alignment of awards?

A

COMDTISNT M1650.25 Military Medals and Awards

334
Q

Which award has the highest precedence

A

Medal of Honor

Operationally Special 101 (8 decks)

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