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SPD SGT Exam 2022 > Manual > Flashcards

Manual Flashcards

1
Q

Set time personnel are on duty / Sub-command of precinct.

A

Watch

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2
Q

Succession of Command

A 
Chief
Deputy Chief
Chief Operating Officer
Patrol Operations Bureau Chief
Special Operations Chief
Professional Standards Bureau Chief
Criminal Investigations Bureau Chief
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3
Q

When do acting sergeants get training?

Who provides it?

A

For assignment over 60 days.
Given within 90 days of assignment (or prior)
Captains provide training.

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4
Q

Who is responsible for employees completing training in a timely manner?

A

Section Commanders / Civilian Managers

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5
Q

Who do you notify if you must miss training?

A

Supervisor and ETS

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6
Q

Supervisor’s review of missed training, when OPA referral.

A

Determine if justified.
Document in PAS
Reschedule

OPA when:
Unjustified
No reasonable notice given.
Supervisor request due to employee history

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7
Q

Who may release info to media without chief approval?

A

PDR or Records Subpoena

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8
Q

Who can give statements to media?

A

PIO, Captain, Permanent LT

Employees can refer media to dispatch

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9
Q

What are some topics only the chief will cover with media?

A

Budget
Dept Goals
Allocation of Resources
Interpretation of Policy

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10
Q

Can media enter a disaster area?

A

Yes, as long as it doesn’t impede police operation.

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11
Q

Who calls the FAA to close airspace?

A

PIO, Incident Commander, or Dispatch Supervisor

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12
Q

Who can request assistance from media aircraft?

A

Captain or Perm LT

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13
Q

Who releases info to crime stoppers?

A

Public Affairs Unit

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14
Q

What is an example of a “related outlet” in relation to media?

A

CrimeStoppers

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15
Q

What information can generally be released to media with an arrest and booking?

A

Suspect Name/Age/Gender/Race/City
Charge / Alleged Crime
Arresting / Investigating Unit
Arrest Circumstances

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16
Q

What information can generally be released when a suspect is arrested but not charged or booked?

A

Age, Gender, Race, City

Investigating / Arresting Agency

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17
Q

What information can generally be released regarding a police incident?

A 
Basic description
How the incident came to police attention
What time the police responded
Number of officers assigned to call
Number of suspects / victims
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18
Q

What information can generally be release about Deceased Persons

A

Age, Gender, Race, City

KCME does rest.

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19
Q

Do we release information on juveniles, their guardians, or parents?

A

We don’t, regardless of status.

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20
Q

What does it take to release a photo of a juvenile?

A

Court order OR parental consent.

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21
Q

What information about a suspect requires chief approval to release?

A

Character,
criminal record,
community reputation
Outcome of legal proceedings

Confession
interviews
examinations
statements

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22
Q

Who can release information about bomb threats, kidnapping threats?

A

Chief, or Violent Crimes Capt / LT

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23
Q

How do I get collision information released?

A

Through Public Affairs, and it’s only the narrative portion.

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24
Q

When can a booking / investigation photo be released?

Who authorizes?

A

Assists in capture or warns public of danger.

Investigating unit authorizes.

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25
Q

Where do media reps get police reports?

A

Public Affairs Unit

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26
Q

What information gets released about employees?

A

Age, Race, Gender, Rank, Tenure, Bureau

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27
Q

Who coordinate OIS information release?

A

Public Affairs Unit, as approved by Chief

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28
Q

When does department release names of OIS officers?

A

Within 48 hours.

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29
Q

In regards to OIS, what gets released within 72 hours?

A

Video and Evidence photographs.

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30
Q

Who approves any process meant to review performance?

A

The Chief

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31
Q

How much notice is required for resignations and retirements?

A

2 weeks

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32
Q

How long do I have to withdraw a resignation?

A

180 days

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33
Q

What is the process to withdraw a resignation?

A

Within 180 days
Public Safety Civil Service Secretary may permit withdrawal
Requires favorable recommendation from Chief

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34
Q

Who ensures a separating employee returns all gear?

A

Human Resources, but also immediate supervisor.

Supervisor may make attempts to recover property, and writes memo for failed recoveries.

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35
Q

Who makes proper disposition of deceased equipment?

A

Captain / manager

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36
Q

Who returns badges, cap shields to fiscal, property, fleet management

A

Lieutenants

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37
Q

Good ways to get fired

A

Lying
Conviction (felony, moral turpitude misd)
Violation of regulation / order / civil service law
Incompetence
Improper use of city property
Debts
Using political influence for personal gain
Getting someone elected to officer in a shitty way
Bribes / Inducing into illegal act
Prisoner abuse
AWOL 3 days
Secondary Employment with conflict of interest
Fail to qual

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38
Q

Who is responsible for maintenance and control of grievance records?

A

Director of HR

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39
Q

Who makes an annual analysis of grievances?

A

Legal advisor, assisted by bargaining unit liaisons.

Legal advisor forwards to chief

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40
Q

Who ensures supervisors complete performance evaluations on time?

A

Captain

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41
Q

Evaluation schedule of probationary police officers

A

Phase 1: CJTC
Phase 2: FTO
Phase 3: Alternate Weekly / Monthly FTO supervisor

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42
Q

How often are fully sworn officers evaluated?

When will they be evaluated?

A

Minimum once per year, within 20 days of hire date.

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43
Q

Non sworn evaluation schedule?

A

Probation: 3 months
Non probation: yearly
Special Evaluations (deficient employee): 3 months
Temp employees: None

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44
Q

What happens after a performance evaluation is completed?

A

Employee may add comments
CoC reviews
Submitted to HR

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45
Q

How do I get an ADA accommodation?

A

Request from Supervisor / HR includes
History of Disability
Description of Accommodation

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46
Q

What does an employee submit to HR for ADA request?

A

Documentation, Physician’s report, disability, and required accommodation.

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47
Q

When will I be required to disclose my religious affiliation?

A

Religious accommodation request.

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48
Q

What risk level is SPD for TB / Airborne Pathogens?

A

Very Low

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49
Q

Where can I get up to date information on exposures / airborne pathogens?

A

HMC / CDC

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50
Q

Who do sergeants notify of airborne pathogen exposure, and how soon?

A

Watch LT and by end of shift.

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51
Q

Who do I contact about HEP B series / testing?

A

Employment Services Lieutenant

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52
Q

What is considered a reportable bodily fluid exposure?

A 
Direct exchange of blood 
or OPIM (other potentially infectious material)
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53
Q

What is a non-reportable bodily fluid exposure?

A

Blood / OPIM on
intact skin, clothing, equipment

Being present in same room.
Touching or talking

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54
Q

PPE stops blood / OPIM from reaching what?

A

Clothing, Footwear, Skin, Eyes, Mouth, Mucous Membranes

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55
Q

What kit has PPE in a patrol car?

Who do you tell if it is incomplete?

A

Biohazard kit

Tell a stationmaster

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56
Q

When does evidence take a syringe?

A

Homicide

Assault with Syringe

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57
Q

Is the EIS punitive / disciplinary?

A

No

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58
Q

What is an early intervention alert?

A

An alert that flows up CoC to Performance Review Committee and back. Has a tracking number.

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59
Q

What is an EI mentor plan?

A

Strategy to intervene / assist employee in upholding lawful, professional, ethical standards?

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60
Q

What does a mentor plan contain?

A

Issues
Method / Action plan
Timeline
Follow-up Actions

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61
Q

How often do supervisors (up to commanders) review EIS of employees?

A

At least once weekly.

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62
Q

How often does EI coordinator update captains and civilian mangers?

A

Monthly

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63
Q

Who initiates an Early Intervention Assessment?

A

SGT / Commander / Manager when thresholds are met.

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64
Q

When is a mentoring plan mandatory and the EI Assessment is skipped?

A

2 preventable collisions within 6 months

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65
Q

What is included in an EI Assessment?

A 
Review thresholds
Notify employee
Review last 2 performance evals in PAS
Review docs relating to underlying incidents
Review other relevant items
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66
Q

Who does a supervisor contact to initiate a discretionary EI Assessment?

A

EI Coordinator

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67
Q

In regards to EIS, what does a supervisor do with a new employee?

A

Review EIS and make note in PAS

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68
Q

How is an EIS mistake corrected?

A

Request correction from EI Coordinator via CoC.
PRC, CoC, Bureau Chief will review.
HR director has final decision.

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69
Q

Who creates an EI mentor plan?
For how long?
Who approves it or approves no mentor plan at all?

A

Captain / Director
6 months or less
PRC and Assistant Chief

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70
Q

Who is on the Performance Review Committee?

A 
EI Coordinator
Reps:
Chief
HR
Patrol
APRS
ETS
Dept of Risk Management (Director of Legal Affairs / Designee)
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71
Q

How often does the PRC meet?

A

Monthly

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72
Q

What is discussed during PRC meeting?

A 
Consistency / Uniformity
Mentoring plan adequacy
Threshold adjustment
New Indicators
(any changes require chief approval)
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73
Q

Who schedules PRC meetings

A

EI coordinator

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74
Q

Who does the PRC forward EIA / Mentor plans to for approval?

A

Bureau Chief

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75
Q

What is the EI timline?

A

3 / 14 / 3 / 7
775

3 days: EI Coordinator notifies supervisor
14 days: SGT does assessment
3 days: LT reviews
7 days: Capt reviews
1 week prior to PRC meeting: EI Coordinator submits to PRC
Within 7 days of meeting, PRC reviews
Within 5 days, bureau chief reviews

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76
Q

EI Triggers: UOF TYPE 1

A

Exceeding 6 within 6 months

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77
Q

EI Triggers: UOF TYPE 2

A

Exceeding 4 within 6 months

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78
Q

EI Triggers: UOF TYPE 3

A

Exceeding 1 within 6 months

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79
Q

EI Triggers: Vehicle Collisions

A

2 preventable collisions within 6 months

4 collisions total within 12 months

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80
Q

EI Triggers: OPA complaints (Supervisory, Frontline, Investigation)

A

4 within 12 months

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81
Q

EI Triggers: EEO Complaint

A

2 complaints within 12 months

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82
Q

EI Triggers: Names in Police Action Claims / Lawsuit

A

2 within 24 months

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83
Q 
EI Triggers:  TYPE 1 / 2 UOF For different Bureaus
Patrol
Collaborative
Homeland / Spec Ops
Investigations
Professional Standards
A

653 432
1
Patrol: Exceeding 6 incidents in a 6 month period.
Collaborative and Homeland Security / Special Operations: 5 in 6
Criminal Investigations and Professional Standards: 3 in 6
2

Patrol: Exceeding 4 incidents in a 6 month period.
Collaborative and Homeland Security / Special Operations: 3 in 6
Criminal Investigations and Professional Standards: 2 in 6

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84
Q

What happens if I have more EI activity while on an EI mentor plan?

A

LT will review and make recommendations about mentor plan to captain.

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85
Q

How many calls per week should a sgt go on with a mentor plan officer?

A

At least 4

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86
Q

When are debriefs prohibited in early intervention mentor plans?

A

Type 3 UOF, OPA complaints (unless complete).

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87
Q

What is given top priority for workplace safety?

A

Prevention of occupational injuries and illnesses.

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88
Q

Who is responsible for Accident Prevention Program?

A

Dept Safety Officer

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89
Q

Who should be familiar with Accident Prevention Program?

A

All Supervisors

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90
Q

Who reports unsafe working conditions?

A

All employees

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91
Q

Who do you report immediate workplace hazards to?

A

Immediate supervisor

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92
Q

Who is in the Safety and Health committee?

A

Six Employees.
Up to 3 appointed by Chief
The rest elected by bargaining units / membership.

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93
Q

Who coordinates the election to Safety and Health Committee

A

HR

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94
Q

Who reviews inspection reports of unsafe working condition and accidents?

A

Safety and Health Committee

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95
Q

How long is a term for a Safety and Health Committee member?

A

Not to exceed 1 year.

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96
Q

How often does Safety and Health Committee meet?

A

Not less than 1 a quarter

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97
Q

Who keeps meeting minutes for Safety and Health Committee meetings?

A

Employment Service LT

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98
Q

Who documents attendance and minutes for Safety and Health Committee?

A

Dept Safety Officer

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99
Q

Who requests transfers through EMT?

A

LT and authorized admins.

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100
Q

When must an employee submit an EMT request?

A

2 weeks prior to new start date

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101
Q

Who reviews EMT transfers?

A

Within Bureau: Captain

Inter-Bureau: Assistant Chief

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102
Q

Who manages EMT changes for extended sick, limited duty?

A

HR

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103
Q

Where is employee information stored, including callout info, emergency contact, address, and computer drive access?

A

PEDS

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104
Q

Who do you report a legal name change to for PEDS update?

A

HR

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105
Q

Does an employee need to give a residential address even if using a PO box for mail?

A

Yes

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106
Q

Who approves leave over 4 days consecutive?

A

Section Captain

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107
Q

When are 10-day vacation requests approved?

A

Feb 14

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108
Q

When are time-sheets due?

A

Noon on Wednesday following the end of a pay period.

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109
Q

What types of leave can you request in excess of balances?

A

Holiday and Furlough

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110
Q

Who approves extensions to holiday and furlough?

A

Bureau Chief

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111
Q

What is the time limit for time-keeping corrections for a sergeant?

A

45 days.
exception: extended leave
Bureau chief can approve corrections beyond 45 days.

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112
Q

For what reason can a sergeant give release time?

A

medical emergency for immediate family

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113
Q

These units are exempt from working day-off events:

A 
Homicide
ABS
UC detectives
Stand By Personnel in these units
   FIT, TCIS, CSI
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114
Q

Who reviews personal exemptions in leave requests for red-dot days?

A

Deputy Chief

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115
Q

When do you inform the Family Medical Leave Coordinator about release time?

A

When it exceeds 3 days.

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116
Q

What exceptions exist for pre-approval for OT?

A

Court

Active in a Major Incident

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117
Q

What are the work hour maximums?

A

90 in a week
0300 Saturday -0300 Saturday
Exceptions: Public Safety, Court, Mandatory OT
Approved by a captain

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118
Q

When can you not work OT?

A

Military leave, Sick leave, Discipline, and Limited Duty

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119
Q

What are the three different OT forms?

A

OT Request
Court OT
Event Summary

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120
Q

Who approves out of class OT?

A

A Captain

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121
Q

How long do I have to submit a statement of termination of marriage?

A

31 days

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122
Q

When is sick time prohibited?

A

Non pay status: suspended / laid off

Outside work schedule: holiday / furlough

Injured working off-duty

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123
Q

Can I use sick time if I become sick or injured on a scheduled trip?

A

Yes

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124
Q

Can I work off duty while on sick time?

A

No, unless Chief says it is ok.

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125
Q

Where do sick absences get recorded?

A

Timesheet

Medical Absence Report Form

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126
Q

Can you use discretionary leave if you run out of sick leave?

A

No. Discipline for violations.

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127
Q

What happens if I’m on sick over 2 weeks?

A

Go on a 5-2 schedule

Employment Services LT manages

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128
Q

When do I need to do an APF?

LEOFF 1?

A

After taking 4 days consecutive sick leave (includes FML)

LEOFF 1 after taking 5

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129
Q

What extra step is required when on mental health leave?

A

Surrender firearm

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130
Q

Who do I contact to use Long Term Disability?

A

SPOG. HR will assist.

Non-Sworn: FMLC

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131
Q

How long can I work in limited duty?

A

16 weeks (does not apply to pregnancy)

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132
Q

How do you request limited duty?

A

Email captain through CoC and employment service LT.

Provide limitations, expected duration

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133
Q

What do you need to return from limited duty?

A

APF signed by doctor

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134
Q

What types of leave may be used for pregnancy?

A

FML
Disability
Pregnancy Disability
Long Term Disability

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135
Q

How long can I take a leave of absence (personal or medical)?

A

Up to 12 months

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136
Q

Qualifying FML conditions

A

Newborn / Foster / Adoption
Care of family w/ serious health condition
Own health condition
Qualifying Military Exigency of Spouse, Child, Parent
Care of service member or veteran

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137
Q

How much sick time can I have donated?

A

560 hours per incident

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138
Q

Can I receive sick leave donation to care for family?

A

No, only for own illness / injury.

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139
Q

How much sick leave can I donate?

A

Minimum 8 hours.

Must maintain 240 after donation.

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140
Q

How do I get DV, Sexual Assault, Stalking leave?

A

Contact Employment Services LT

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141
Q

How much military leave can I take?

A

Up to 21 days each federal fiscal year.

May take unpaid leave beyond.

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142
Q

Who approves military leave beyond 21 days?

A

Bureau Chief

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143
Q

How much leave can I take for a spouse deploying?

A

15 unpaid each deployment

May sub ANY accrued leave for unpaid leave

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144
Q

What are close relatives in regards to bereavement leave?

Other than close?

A

Close: Spouse, domestic partner, child, parent, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, grandchild of spouse, anyone employee/spouse has legal custody of.

Other: Cousin, Parent Sibling, Parent Sibling Child, Spouse of Sibling, Sibling Child, Sibling Grandchild

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145
Q

How much bereavement leave does the dept offer?

A

40 hours for close relative.

Sworn: 40 hours for other than close relative.

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146
Q

May I take bereavement leave intermittently?

A

Yes.

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147
Q

For non sworn, how can I take leave for bereavement for other than close relative?

A

Dept can approve 40 hours sick leave for bereavement of other than close relative.

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148
Q

What if I want more than 40 hours bereavement?

A

Dept can approve other leave type usage.

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149
Q

How long do I have to use bereavement leave?

A

1 year

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150
Q

Who determines on-duty status?

A

Chief of Police

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151
Q

Is not following training a policy violation?

A

No.

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152
Q

When is it ok to not identify yourself?

A

An investigation is jeopardized
Police function hindered
Safety Consideration

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153
Q

Who do employees notify before initiating a claim for damages related to official position?

A

The the Chief of Police

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154
Q

Who do you inform if you intend to apply for an order against someone who assaulted you on-duty?

A

Supervisor

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155
Q

Who investigates minor policy violations?

A

CoC

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156
Q

What are examples of serious policy violations?

A 
Force
Bias police
Violation of constitutional rights (speech, religion, assemble, due process)
Violation of LE authority
Fail to use ICV
Failure to report serious policy violations to OPA
Intentional / Reckless violations of policy
Serious neglect of duty
Insubordination
Criminal Violation
Dishonesty
Misuse of Authority
Repeat minor policy violations
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157
Q

Minor Policy Violations

A 
Fail to ICV system check
Fail to seatbelt (no injury)
Fail to ID tactical issues in UoF reporting
Failure to turn off radio while ICV on
Minor rudeness
Secondary employment w/o permit
Profanity
Tardiness
Personal appearance
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158
Q

Who receives misconduct allegations when there is a conflict of interest?

A

Subject assigned to OPA? OPA Director

Subject is OPA director? City HR Director

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159
Q

What personal events do I have to report to my supervisor?

A 
Criminal Investigation
Criminal Traffic Citation
Arrest
Conviction
Respondent in Order
License Expired / Revoke, etc
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160
Q

What information do I give a citizen if they want to file a claim against the city?

A

Claims Division of City Law Dept
Form available at Seattle Muni building
Can also call and get one mailed.

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161
Q

Can an employee volunteer or aid in a civil action?

A

No

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162
Q

What do I do if I’m paid for participating in a civil action?

A

Give the check to Fiscal, endorsed “payable to City of Seattle”

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163
Q

What can I accept as a gift?

A 
Promo / Nominal $25 or less
Common areas $25
$50 aggregate
$5 coffee 
$10 food anon
Informational materials, subscriptions, publications, related to duty
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164
Q

How do I report prohibited gifts?

A

Send memo to Captain of Compliance

Retain item

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165
Q

Can I participate in defense interviews

A

Yes, after notifying KCPAO of SCAO

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166
Q

Do I need to answer all questions in a defense interview?

A

No, and I may terminate the interview as well.

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167
Q

What is discrimination

A

Act, by itself or part of practice
Intended to or results in different treatment
Race, color, age, sex, marital status, sex orientation, gender identity, political ideology, creed, religion, ancestry, national origin, honorably discharged vet or mil status, presence of any disability.

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168
Q

What is harassment

A

A form of discrimination
Subject to discriminatory conduct as a term of employment
Submission / rejection is used as basis for employment decisions
Unreasonably interferes with work performance or hostile work environment.

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169
Q

What is sexual harassment?

A

Unwelcome advances, requests for sex favors, other conduct under harassment circumstances.

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170
Q

Who oversees EEO, fair employment and labor practices?

A

HR Director

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171
Q

What is the generally accepted time limit for EEO complaints?

A

180 days from last harm

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172
Q

How long is an EEO investigation?

A

180 days. Can be extended by HR director.

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173
Q

When are EEO records expunged?

A

Unfounded / Not sustained: 3 years after end of year of complaint
Sustained: 6 years after end of year of complaint

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174
Q

Who can keep a sustained EEO complaint from being expunged after 6 years?

A

Dept Legal Adviser can request a hold.

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175
Q

Who is typically reassigned during an EEO investigation?

A

The named employee.

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176
Q

What laws govern employee political activity?

A

City Code of Ethics SMC 4.16 and Elections Code SMC 2.04

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177
Q

Can an employee endorse a candidate?

A

Yes, but must clearly state it is employee’s own personal position.

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178
Q

What is the difference between ballot issues and issues of interest?

A

Ballot issues: Covered by law

Issues of interest: Covered by policy

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179
Q

When does an issue of interest become a ballot issue?

A

State: Submitted to secretary of state
County: Submitted to county auditor
City: Collection of signatures or passage of council resolution

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180
Q

What are the four reasons to leave your district / beat?

A

Dispatched
In Pursuit
Responding to Major Issue
Given Permission by Sergeant

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181
Q

What additional responsibilities do foot/bike officers have?

A

Contact with public / merchants

Record activities on log sheet

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182
Q

How many marked cars can be at coffee / lunch?

A

No more than 2, excluding sgt

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183
Q

How many officers can be on break at same location?

A

4 officers, 1 sgt

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184
Q

How should you answer the phone?

A

SPD, Precinct, Name, Offer of assistance.

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185
Q

If the duty officer encounters a report with evidence, what should they do?

A

Call 911 for officer to be dispatched.

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186
Q

What are the mail delivery times?

A

1st: Before 0530
2nd: Before 1430
3rd: Before 2230

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187
Q

Does the clerk need to wear a gun belt?

A

No, the watch LT can waive the need for it.

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188
Q

How many watch lieutenants must be on duty at all times?

A

At least 1

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189
Q

Watch LT additional duties, per watch.

A

1st: Facility, Vehicles
2nd: Precinct Training Coordinator
3rd: Community Liaison Coordinator

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190
Q

Who supervises ACT / CPT?

A

Ops LT

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191
Q

Who maintains an effective staffing deployment in a precinct?

A

Ops LT

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192
Q

Who does a precinct captain report to?

A

Patrol Operations Bureau Chief

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193
Q

How often are chemical agents inspected? Who does the inspecting?

A

Monthly

Stationmaster

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194
Q

Who approves a report written by an off-duty employed officer?

A

On duty sgt UNLESS off duty sgt is supervising.

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195
Q

Who is eligible for off-duty employment?

A

FTE
Good Standing (training, certs, quals)
Not on probation
Not otherwise prohibited

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196
Q

What suspends off-duty employment eligibility?

A

Sick
Disability
FML (own)
Release

Military Leave

Suspension
OPA reassign

Possibly: Poor work record, complaints

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197
Q

Who can grant exceptions for off-duty employment while on extended sick leave?

A

Chief of Police, with dr recommendation

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198
Q

What is required on an Off Duty Employment Permit Form?

A

Employer name
Address of work
Specific Duties

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199
Q

Who must approve off duty work permits?

A

Employee Captain

Captain of precinct of work

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200
Q

How do I proceed if I need an off duty work permit asap?

A

A sgt can approve a temporary off duty permit for 4 days.

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201
Q

What is the maximum length of an off duty permit? When does it expire?

A

1 year.

Expires on hire date.

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202
Q

Who maintains file of all off-duty permits?

A

HR Director

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203
Q

When does dept pay OT in regards to off duty employment?

A

Action taken past off-duty shift

Required by dept to take action that prevents off-duty performance

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204
Q

What minimum salary must be earned in an off-duty job?

A

Top step officer / sergeant.

Total compensation may include pay and other benefits

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205
Q

What information is required to log in off duty?

A 
V call sign
Business / event name
Address
Hours
Uniform
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206
Q

What OT event does not require on-air logging?

A

Stadium events with on scene SPD supervisors

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207
Q

What equipment is necessary for off-duty traffic control?

A

Safety Vest / Lime rain jacket

Hard hats

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208
Q

Can I use police authority for private purpose civil matter off-duty, like assisting repo, process server, etc?

A

No

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209
Q

Can I invest in or be employed by Private security business?

A

No, but chief can waive if you write intent to retire in 18 months.

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210
Q

Is it ok for a SGT to work for one of their own officers while off duty?

A

No.

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211
Q

How much rest is required in a rolling 24 hour period?

A

6 hours
LT can waive
Does not apply to harbor

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212
Q

Blue Team notes for Off Duty Employment

A

“Community Member” for reporting party - Off Duty Employer
Enter hours worked in “Summary of Incident”
Precinct area in “location of occurrence”

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213
Q

Who oversees dept social media accounts?

A

Public Affairs Unit

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214
Q

Can I use city email to register a social media account?

A

No

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215
Q

How does the policy define family relationship?

A 
Spouse, children, step children
Parents, step-parents, parents in law
Grandparents, Grandparents in law
Siblings, siblings in law
Aunts, Uncles
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216
Q

What is the name of the policy defined relationship with employees who are dating, having sex, or cohabitating?

A

Personal relationship

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217
Q

When will the dept avoid placing family / personal relationships together?

A

In supervisor / subordinate circumstances.

Is assignment where the relationship could interfere with dept interest.

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218
Q

Who do I inform if I develop a family or personal relationship with a member of the dept?

A

The HR lieutenant

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219
Q

How are transfers handled when a family / personal relationship develops?

A

Transfers occur in accordance with CBA

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220
Q

What are some discernible personal characteristics, in regards to bias?

A

Age, Disability, economic status, familial status
Gender, gender identity, sexual orientation
Homelessness, mental illness
national origin, political ideology
race, ethnicity, color, religion
motorcycle use / paraphernalia
Veteran status

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221
Q

Who does the policy say provides yearly bias training?

A

The chief

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222
Q

When is it ok to use personal characteristics for criminal investigations?

A

When broadcasting a suspect description

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223
Q

When does an officer take into account personal characteristics?

A

When making decisions about services (crisis, homelessness, etc)

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224
Q

When are officers required to report bias to their supervisors by?

A

By end of shift

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225
Q

What should an officer do if a complainant of bias policing wants to leave?

A

Attempt to get contact info.
Provide supervisor contact info
Provide OPA contact info

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226
Q

If a bias based policing complainant leave the scene, and the officer is finished at the scene, what must the officer do?

A

Remain at scene and wait for supervisor.

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227
Q

What are the two possible Blue Team entries for a bias complaint?

A

Bias Review Blue team when no misconduct , no OPA request

Complaint Blue team when misconduct or OPA request

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228
Q

Who does a supervisor forward Bias Review blue team entries to?

A

Bureau Chief

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229
Q

What gets removed from the Chief Legal Officer’s annual bias report?

A

Names of officers

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230
Q

SPD consults with neighborhoods, businesses, community groups, CPC, IG to mitigate what?

A

Disparate impacts

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231
Q

What will disparate impact analysis focus on?

A

Race, Color, National origin.

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232
Q

Why does the dept analyze officer initiated activity?

A

To prevent disparate impacts

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233
Q

What should officers assume while on duty, at all times?

A

They are being observed and recorded

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234
Q

What exceptions exist to recording officer activities?

A

Must not hinder, delay, compromise
Threaten safety of officers / public
Attempt to incite others to violence

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235
Q

If someone recording police causes a slight inconvenience to an officer, can that officer that prohibit the recording?

A

No, slight inconveniences are not prohibited.

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236
Q

Do press credentials change a person’s level of access to a crime scene?

A

No, there is no distinction made.

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237
Q

Which dept-related facility can you consume alcohol in?

A

SPOG office

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238
Q

When can you drink alcohol in uniform?

A

LE Funeral reception
Awards banquet
Vancouver Police Ball
Other functions, as authorized by Chief

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239
Q

Can I eat at a bar or tavern where liquor is sold while in uniform?

A

No

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240
Q

Who will be present for an impairment test of an officer?

A

Two Sgts and a LT

OR Sgt and LT

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241
Q

If after hours, who should a LT notify about impairment testing of an officer?

A

Duty Captain, Bureau Chief, HR Director

Copy of testing goes to OPA

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242
Q

How do you find a fit-for-duty testing location?

A

Employment Services LT

If unavailable, City Safety Coordinator

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243
Q

When is CISM communication not confidential?

A

When CISM member is initial responder or witness

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244
Q

Who maintains list of CISM team members?

A

Peer Support

SPD Comms

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245
Q

When must a CISM member still report mandatorily?

A

Injury, abuse, neglect child/vuln adult
Danger of physical harm to self or others
DV

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246
Q

What do you tell a suspect who is being arrested?

A

ID self
Inform under arrest
Reason for arrest
Miranda

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247
Q

When must a lieutenant be notified of an arrest?

A

If the arrest is for assault on an officer.

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248
Q

Who screens an arrest if a sgt is the arresting officer?

A

Another sgt

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249
Q

When must sgts screen arrests?

A

If handcuffed by SPD, injured, or force.

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250
Q

What extra documentation do felony arrests require?

A

Alert Email

Label

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251
Q

When is it ok to rely on immigration documents?

A

When it is the sole source of establishing someone’s identity

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252
Q

What will officers do with Admin Warrant of Removal, Immigration Violations, Outstanding Warrants for Deportation?

A

Nothing.

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253
Q

Who provides permission to contact DHS about a foreign national?

A

Bureau Chief

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254
Q

How does one get foreign national status if you’re unable to ask about immigration status?

A

When the information is provided voluntarily.

When a search yields that they are a foreign national.

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255
Q

When in the arrest process does a consular notification take place?

A

After arrival at precinct / jail / hospital, but before interrogation or booking.

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256
Q

Who is responsible for making the consular notification?

A

Arresting employee

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257
Q

What must be done when a foreign national is deceased?

A

Consular notification

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258
Q

What must done when a guardianship is being considered with a minor or incompetent foreign national?

A

Consular notification.

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259
Q

What must be done when a foreign ship or aircraft is involved in a collision or accident?

A

Consular notification.

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260
Q

What must be done if someone claims diplomatic immunity, but can’t prove it with documentation?

A

Continue on as normal.

Consider calling Dept of State

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261
Q

When can you interview someone with diplomatic immunity?

A

For public safety.

May include UoF and arrest.

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262
Q

Are foreign nationals with immunity immune from detention and traffic citations?

A

No

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263
Q

What do you do if you are booking someone before a consular notification is made?

A

Inform the jail staff.

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264
Q

What is required for a body cavity search?

A

Written authorization from a LT
Search Warrant
Medical professional

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265
Q

What is the term for a person’s sexual practices or orientation?

A

Private Sexual Information

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266
Q

What type of information is political affiliation, religious affiliation, membership of organizations, etc?

A

Restricted information

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267
Q

When is it ok to collect or rely on restricted information?

A

When it has a legitimate law enforcement purpose

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268
Q

What exceptions exist to policy regarding private sexual information or restricted information?

A

Supplied by person
Information public (social media, etc.)
Provided by third party
Religious accommodation

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269
Q

What unit do you register with once approved to collect restricted information?

A

Criminal Intelligence Section

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270
Q

Can you take baseline photos of a demonstration absent criminal activity?

A

Yes, but must later be purged if there is no crime.

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271
Q

What types of photos are best when documenting demonstration events?

A

Long range photography

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272
Q

How long do employees have to send demonstration photos to intel?

A

24 hours

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273
Q

When will intel purge demonstration photos with no valid reason to keep?

A

5 days

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274
Q

How long can intel maintain demonstration photos?

A

Up to 5 years after case file becomes inactive

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275
Q

When will intel purge demonstration photos?

A

When no criminal activity

When investigation inactive and purged within 5 years.

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276
Q

Is it permissible to infiltrate religious organizations?

A

Yes, but requires chief approval

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277
Q

Must an officer exhaust all possible alternatives to impound prior to impound?

A

No, but must consider reasonable alternatives.

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278
Q

What crimes may a vehicle be impounded for?

A

DUI, after reasonable alternative.

Commercial sex abuse of a minor
Promoting ^
Promoting travel for ^

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279
Q

Do you complete an inventory search on a vehicle with an investigation hold?

A

No

If no warrant is received, inventory as soon as is practical

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280
Q

When may officer impound with 24 hours notice?

A

Abandoned, mechanically unsafe, violation of law

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281
Q

How much notice does parking enforcement typically provide for impound?

A

72 hours

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282
Q

Can an officer impound to the VPR?

A

Yes, but must screen with sergeant

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283
Q

What are the requirements to impound to VPR?

A 
Evidence
Analysis 
Integral
Seizure 
Detective says so
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284
Q

What disqualifies a vehicle from the VPR?

A

Crime outside seattle
Oversized vehicle (req SGT / CSI approval)
Leaking (CSI approval)
Damaged in arson (CSI approval)

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285
Q

Who is the authorizing body for VPR exceptions?

A

CSI

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286
Q

Investigative sergeants must report vehicle impounds to what unit?

A

Records File Unit - Auto Records Team

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287
Q

Who can release vehicles from the processing room?

A

Investigating unit OR CSI

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288
Q

What is required on an investigation hold impound sheet?

A

Reason and unit responsible.

Do not put “see narrative”

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289
Q

On VPR impounds, where is the supervisor copy sent if using paper?

A

To data in an alert packet

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290
Q

What form is used to transfer vehicle custody to a different unit?

A

Investigative Hold Tracking Form

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291
Q

Who is notified when transferring investigative custody of a vehicle?

A

Auto records

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292
Q

When does the city pay for an impound?

A 
RO / Authorized driver was
   Not arrested
   Not charged
OR
   Improper hold
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293
Q

When does the owner pay for an impound?

A

RO / Driver was arrested or charged.

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294
Q

What unit gets updated with all vehicle custody transfers, moves, releases, etc?

A

Auto Records Unit

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295
Q

What units can use confidential informants?

A 
Human Trafficking
MCTF
Narcotics
Gun Violence Reduction Team
Investigation Support Unit
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296
Q

Can someone on DOC be a CI?

A

Yes, but requires DOC approval.

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297
Q

What is the age limit for CIs?

A

No one under 16.

16/17 requires A/Chief approval

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298
Q

What is a confidential informant?

A

Someone who provides information for personal benefit, including money or court favor.

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299
Q

Can a confidential informant remain confidential throughout without testifying?

A

Yes, but they receive no benefits.

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300
Q

Can you shop in a store that your CI is working at?

A

Legitimate business purchases are not prohibited by policy.

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301
Q

Who goes along to pay a CI?

A

Detective and a second LEO

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302
Q

Who needs to approve legal consideration for CI?

A

A/Chief of investigations

Prosecutor

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303
Q

When are CI files purged?

A

No contact for 5 years

Approval from A/Chief Investigations

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304
Q

Who approves “problem informants?”

A

LT approves

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305
Q

How often does APRS audit CI files?

A

Twice yearly, at least 120 days apart

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306
Q

What gets a CI paid?

A 
Information
Evidence
Contraband
Actual Expenses
Introductions to other CIs
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307
Q

What is the procedure to pay a CI?

A

Complete task
Justification for payment of funds
Entry into CI activity report
Vouchers / receipts / unit logs

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308
Q

Who do I notify if I disclose CI identity for a public safety emergency?

A

Captain

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309
Q

What is a cooperating witness?

A

A person willing to provide information or deliver illegal drugs in exchange for release from custody.

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310
Q

Who is authorized to use CWs?

A

Investigation Bureau and ACT

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311
Q

The watch LT can approve ACT to use a CW for how long?

A

5 days, one time use.

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312
Q

Can ACT use a CW more than once?

A

Yes, with approval from follow-up unit sergeant.

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313
Q

What happens if a prospective CW has already been used?

A

Contact the follow-up unit sergeant.

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314
Q

What are some potential disqualifiers for CWs?

A

Violence
DV
Assault on LEO

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315
Q

How does one obtain Prospective Information for mobile devices?

A

Pen Register, Trap and Trace.

Requires an order, even with exigency

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316
Q

Who needs to sign off on an emergency prospective order?

A

KCPAO Special Operations Unit

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317
Q

How long do you have to complete an affidavit after an emergency pen register?

A

48 hours

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318
Q

What can be a determining factor in whether someone is in custody?

A

Their juvenile status.

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319
Q

When is it ok to postpone miranda?

A

When awaiting a detective

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320
Q

What age can a parent or guardian waive miranda?

A

Under 12

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321
Q

After Miranda, what must occur prior to questioning or consent-searching a juvenile?

A

They must consult with legal counsel

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322
Q

When is it ok to question a minor after Miranda?

A

After counsel OR
Imminent threat AND
Delay would hamper protection AND
Questions are limited to imminent threat

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323
Q

What additional warning is provided to hearing impaired along with Miranda?

A

That a no-cost interpreter is available.

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324
Q

What ways can Miranda be documented?

A

Rights form
Officer statement
Recording Device
Custodial interview (recorded)

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325
Q

When may officers continue questioning post-miranda?

A

Kidnapping, Missing Persons, public safety information (gun)

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326
Q

When is a limited vehicle sweep authorized?

A

Reasonable suspicion of unsecured firearm

Vehicle will be impounded or towed

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327
Q

When will officers cease a warrantless search?

A

When the reason for search is no longer valid.

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328
Q

Can a landlord give consent to search a leased property?

A

No

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329
Q

What reasonable bases are considered for exigent searches?

A

Objective and Subjective

Violence, armed suspect, suspect on premise, likely to escape, etc

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330
Q

Does open view doctrine allow a warrantless entry?

A

No, still get a warrant unless exigency applies

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331
Q

What is plain view doctrine?

A

When evidence is discovered in a protected area that an officer has legally entered.

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332
Q

What may be searched during a search incident to arrest?

A

Arrestee and area within immediate control.

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333
Q

When can a residence be searched incident to arrest?

A

Only immediate area

Only when arrested might escape / destroy evidence

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334
Q

Can abandoned items be searched to determine ownership?

A

Yes.

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335
Q

What type of search is used to protect against false claim, isolate dangerous items, and account for property?

A

Inventory search

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336
Q

What type of search is used on personal property, SKO?

A

Inventory search

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337
Q

What do you do when you come across closed containers in an inventory search?

A

Document it

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338
Q

What form is used for detainee property?

A

Custodial Property Summary

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339
Q

What type of warrant is used for known armed persons?

A

High risk

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340
Q

What type of warrant is used for forced entry, possibly armed person?

A

Dynamic

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341
Q

What type of warrant is used for police controlled environments or low risk?

A

Administrative warrant

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342
Q

Who approves each warrant type?

A

SGT: Admin
LT: Dynamic / High Risk
Captain: Warrants outside city

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343
Q

When is a risk assessment required?

A

Dynamic and High Risk warrants

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344
Q

When can warrants be served outside the city?

A

If related to a city crime OR approved by a captain.

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345
Q

Where do you file completed warrants?

A

Felony: E609 Court Clerk
Misd: Email SMC search warrant return

346
Q

What level of proof is required for a strip search?

A

Reasonable suspicion or probable cause.

347
Q

How is a strip search defined?

A

Removal, Re-arranging of clothing to permit inspection of private areas.

348
Q

What is required for a strip search?

A

Must be in custody at precinct or jail

349
Q

Who can approve an alternate location for a strip search?

A

Captain

350
Q

When can you strip search with reasonable suspicion?

A

Weapon, Evidence, Threat To Security

351
Q

When do you need probable cause to strip search?

A

When evidence exists without a threat.

352
Q

What invasive method can be used when you have reasonable suspicion of a health condition that requires immediate attention?

A

Strip search

353
Q

When is reasonable suspicion de facto present for strip searches?

A

Violent offense
Escape, burglary, deadly weapon
Possession of controlled substance

354
Q

When can officers frisk during a terry stop?

A

When they believe suspect is armed and presently dangerous.

355
Q

What happens if a suspect is handcuffed, regardless of arrest?

A

Supervisor screens in person.

356
Q

When can a companion be seized during an arrest?

A

Only as long as necessary for safety.

357
Q

When is identification mandatory?

A

Traffic
Purchasing liquor
CCW

358
Q

What is required to transport for ID?

A

PC for arrest.

359
Q

What is a valid reason to detain for fingerprinting kit / mobile ID?

A

Notice of infraction.

360
Q

When can a Field Contact terry stop report be delayed?

A

When conducted off duty and no arrest was made.

361
Q

Who must be on scene when an outside handler and dog are used?

A

SPD canine and they must decide it is appropriate.

362
Q

What is the approval authority for outside canine?

A

Canine Supervisor, Captain of Metro, and A/Chief special operations

363
Q

What does an agency need with SPD to use an outside dog and handler?

A

Reciprocal agreement

364
Q

When can SPOC captain authorize outside dog and handler?

A

During SPOC activation

365
Q

What special circumstance allows an outside dog and handler to be used without approval?

A

FEMA search and rescue during disaster

366
Q

What is not accepted when receiving a warrant transfer from another agency?

A

Evidence

367
Q

What disqualifies a warrant transfer?

A

Injured or combative suspects

368
Q

Is it ok to discuss STDs with the KCJ nurse?

A

No, not without permission.

369
Q

What information goes into the narrative of Investigation of Fugitive Warrant?

A

Jurisdiction, Date of Warrant, Warrant Number, Name of Verifier, Charges, Bond

370
Q

When does a fugitive warrant need a second superform?

A

If there are additional charges

371
Q

Where do you take people to post bail for SMC?

A

0800-1700 to Muni Court first floor payment window

1700-2230 to KCJ bail window

372
Q

Where do you take someone to post bail for an outside agency?

A

0630-2230 KCJ bail window

373
Q

What cities don’t accept bail at KCJ?

A

Enumclaw, Black Diamond, Kent

374
Q

When will evidence accept a container with unknown contents?

A

When applying for a warrant.

375
Q

When do you submit a property release supplement along with evidence?

A

For community caretaking where the owner is known

376
Q

When can a finder immediately claim a found item?

A

$100 or less, no crime, legal, not dangerous, no owner

377
Q

When do you NOT write a found property report?

A

When finder doesn’t want the item.

378
Q

What do you note on a property release supplement for found narcotics?

A

Release to director for disposal

379
Q

What kind of found property will SDOT handle?

A

Bikes

380
Q

What should be documented after unloading a firearm?

A

The location of the rounds.

381
Q

What guns are tested by IBIS / NIBIM?

A

All crime guns.

382
Q

What caliber ammo (and above) goes to ABS?

A

.50 cal

383
Q

Who takes deteriorated ammo?

A

ABS

384
Q

What do you do with turned in marine flares?

A

Don’t take them. No one wants them.

385
Q

Where may public surrender ammunition?

A

SPD Range

386
Q

What offense code is used for gun surrender without a court order?

A

Gun Turn In Civil

387
Q

What are the two acceptable dispositions of court evidence that has been checked out?

A

Leave it with court

Return to evidence unit

388
Q

What should you get from prosecutor if leaving evidence?

A

Signature and bar number

389
Q

How do you release evidence?

A

Property Release Supplement

390
Q

How should money be documented and counted?

A

Two sworn, on BWV

391
Q

How should victim property be handled if placed in evidence?

A

Safekeeping, Currency Envelope, Prop Release Supplement

392
Q

When does evidence deposit money into the bank?

A

90 days after submission

393
Q

When will evidence not deposit money?

A 
Marked buy money
Physical Evidence
Lab Exam
Biohazard
Counterfeit
Foreign
Collectible
394
Q

What are the two photo evidence systems?

A

DEMS and evidence.com

395
Q

Who maintains DEMS?

A

Photo Unit

396
Q

How many megapixels does the policy require?

A

10+

397
Q

How do you verify DEMS uploads?

A

Confirmation Email

398
Q

How do you verify Axon uploads?

A

Visually on app

399
Q

Forensic photography (latents, tire tread, footwear, UoF injury) should use what type of camera?

A

DSLR

400
Q

What to do when DEMS down?

A

Mail SD card to photo unit

401
Q

What do you do with third party photos?

A

Submit media device into evidence and document.

402
Q

What troubleshooting can a user do for axon outages?

A

Get better signal
log into seattlepd.evidence.com
use city email to log in

403
Q

What databases will an ID tech search, in order?

A

KC, Western ID, fax to FBI

404
Q

What methods can be used to audio record?

A

Axon
Digital Audio Recorder
BWV
ICV

405
Q

How are third party audio recordings handled?

A

Upload to unit folder, original in evidence.

406
Q

Who maintains audio statements?

A

Video unit

407
Q

How do you document a lack of case number in evidence.com?

A

NOCASENUMBER

408
Q

What report is completed with found narcotics (in addition to normal)?

A

Property Release Supplement

409
Q

Is it found property when an owner is known but unable to retain?

A

No, it is safekeeping

410
Q

What is required for safekeeping if no SKO tag is on the item?

A

Property Release Supplement

411
Q

How are perishables handled?

A

Itemized, may photo, discard.

412
Q

Conduct prior to force may do what?

A

Influence the level of force necessary.

413
Q

Type 1 examples

A

Hobble
Stationary Tire Deflation
Blast Ball away from people
Pointing firearm

414
Q

Type 2 examples

A

Taser
OC
Impact
Canine

415
Q

Type 3

A 
OIS
Impact weapon to head
Loss of consciousness
Hard strike to head, neck, throat
Head into fixed object
416
Q

What is the goal of de-escalation

A

Voluntary compliance

417
Q

What de-escalation technique is based on Neuro Linguistic Programming?

A

Pattern Interrupt

418
Q

What two types of public safety cards are there?

A

Public Safety Statement OIS card

UoF Public Safety Statement card

419
Q

What vehicle tactics are always considered a UoF?

A

PIT and ramming

Roadblock when on eluding suspect

420
Q

When feasible, what do you do before discharging firearm?

A

Give a verbal warning

421
Q

When do you automatically call for aid?

A 
Type 3
Canine Bite
UoF with breathing difficulty
Less Lethal (TASER, 40mm, OC)
Greater than type 1 and
   Pregnant
   Pre-adolescent
   Elderly
   Frail / disabled
421
Q

What is a canine bite ratio?

A

Bites divided by Apprehensions

421
Q

What is it called when a dog bites without command, or bites the wrong target on command?

A

Accidental bite

422
Q

What is the minimum for a containment visual perimeter?

A

2

423
Q

Canine eligible crimes.

A 
Burg
Assault (felony)
Arson
Roberry
Serious sexual assault
Kidnapping
Homicide

Drive by

DV felony
Misd:
DV assault
DV order with mandatory arrest

424
Q

When are canine prohibited?

A

Admin warrants / DOC warrants
Impaired or crisis absent listed offenses
Demo management

425
Q

When is a direct apprehension prohibited, but canine still permitted?

A

Burg 2

426
Q

When should a canine release the bite?

A

First possible moment.

427
Q

How often is TASER training?

A

Annual

428
Q

What is a good option when you need to take someone into custody, injury is likely, and hands on is likely to cause great injury?

A

TASER

429
Q

How many TASER cycles before an officer should consider other options?

A

3

430
Q

What areas should be avoided with TASER?

A

Chest, Head, Neck, Genitals

431
Q

Who do officers notify when they have concerns about their TASER?

A

CoC up to captain

432
Q

Noticy the CoC and TASER coordinator when this happens:

A

Deployment without TASER

433
Q

Is a bicycle an impact weapon?

A

Yes

434
Q

How often do we train impact weapons?

A

2 years

435
Q

All what with impact weapons are screened through FIT?

A

Hard head strikes

436
Q

How often do we train OC?

A

2 years

437
Q

What force tools are trained every 2 year?

A

OC / Impact

438
Q

What steps should be taken for OC used indoors?

A

Remove person from confined space.

439
Q

What should be considered with vehicle force?

A

Secondary risks (tires, spun out vehicles, etc)

440
Q

Can a PIT trained officer who is no longer in SWAT still use PIT?

A

Yes, can use regardless of unit

441
Q

When is ramming appropriate?

A

Exigent circumstances

442
Q

Stationary Tire Deflation force matrix:

A 
No contact:  de minimis
Contact with stationary veh, Type 1
Injury, Type 2
Bad injury, Type 3
Motorcycle, Deadly Force
443
Q

Are all roadblocks UoF?

A

No, not necessarily

444
Q

Who oversees the departments special weaponry?

A

A/Chief Special Operations

445
Q

What can be used on violently combative subjects?

A

Hobble restraint

446
Q

What level force is the hobble?

A

Type 1

447
Q

Where do you aim blast balls?

A

Open space near person engaged in violence

448
Q

If an injury occurs from blast ball, what level force is it?

A

Type 2

449
Q

The dept tracks blast balls to each unit, squad, or employee?

A

Employee

450
Q

What is the advantage of 40mm?

A

Extended standoff distance

451
Q

What is the primary effect of 40mm?

A

Temporary interrupt

452
Q

Who maintains 40mm program?

A

ETS

453
Q

SWAT does their own training on this less lethal device and notifies ETS

A

40mm

454
Q

What is the preferred 40 mm target?

A

Buttocks, Thigh, Calf, Large muscles.

Avoid head, neck, genitals

455
Q

Who can use 40mm for crowd control?

A

SWAT

456
Q

Who maintains pepperball inventory?

A

Firearms Training Squad

457
Q

Who trains Pepperball operators?

A

SWAT

458
Q

Where to target with pepperball?

A

Below the waist.

459
Q

What level of force are pepperballs?

A

Type 2

460
Q

When can you fire at a moving vehicle?

A

When threatened with deadly force other than vehicle itself

461
Q

Is a vehicle presumptively justification of deadly force?

A

No

462
Q

Who maintains the OC supply?

A

QM overall
Stationmasters: MK3, 4, 9
Ops LT: MK 21, 46

463
Q

What is the difference between Bang Out and Blast Ball toward people?

A

Bang Out - Type 1

Toward People - Type 2

464
Q

What are the force levels of NFDD?

A

Type 1: Away from people

Type 2: At people

465
Q

What type 2 injuries should FIT screen?

A

Minor joint dislocation

Tooth injuries

466
Q

All contact to this body part need to be screened with a SGT:

A

Neck

467
Q

When may a sergeant request a higher level of force investigation?

A 
Factors:
Nature of resistance
Handcuffed subject
Vulnerable subject
Force stemming from bad information
Unclear if consistent with policy or law
468
Q

Can a sergeant screen force if they participated in planning that led to that force?

A

No

469
Q

What must all officers do who participated in tactical planning in an operation that led to force?

A

Witness statement.

470
Q

What goes in the comments section of a SGT type 1 screening?

A

Brief summary of investigation.

471
Q

Does a sergeant determine if force was within policy or law during a type 2 investigation?

A

No, they are only a fact finder.

472
Q

What is a typical FIT response?

A

1-6 detectives
SGT
Captain
OPA rep

473
Q

How long does the fit captain have to present an investigation to a/chief of professional standards bureau?

A

60 days

474
Q

Witness with significant involvement in lethal force is given release time for how long?

A

24 hours minimum

475
Q

How does a SGT gather witness officers on a TYPE 2 call?

A

Review CAD, contact all officers.

476
Q

How long does an employee have to schedule a mental health pro after type 3 force?

A

72 hours.

477
Q

What will the dept provide in regards to mental health counseling for type 3?

A

Initial visit within 72 hours. Another at 6 months. As many as you’d like in between.

478
Q

Who should a sgt call for missing video on a UoF?

A

ITD

479
Q

This gets activated on a Type 3 shooting UoF.

A

Incident Command System

480
Q

Who completes the UoF major incident summary?

A

FIT Captain

481
Q

How is a Type 1 investigation routed?

A

SGT, LT
Capt or OPS
FRU

482
Q

How is a type 2 investigation routed?

A

SGT, Admin LT, LT
Captain
FRU
FRB, if necessary

483
Q

Who reviews video if there is no admin LT?

A

Sgt

484
Q

Can a sgt reclassify force?

A

No, but they may request.

A LT or Captain is required to reclassify.

485
Q

What does the FRB review?

A

All type 3

Type 2 referred by FRU

486
Q

What kinds of type 2 get referred to FRB?

A 
Serious Policy Violations
FIT screenings for type 3
Less Lethal
Canine
Crowd Management
487
Q

What additional percentage of Type 2 cases go to FRB?

A

10%, chosen randomly

488
Q

Who is on the FRB?

A 
1 Training
3 Patrol
1 APRS
1 Investigation
1 from anywhere else
489
Q

What is required of FRB members?

A

18 month term

8 hours of training

490
Q

What if I can’t make it to an FRB meeting?

A

Find a replacement

491
Q

Who is the FRB chair?

A

Force Review Captain

492
Q

Who else may chair the FRB if the Force Review Captain is unavailable?

A

Deputy Chief

Any Assistant Chief

493
Q

What is quorum at an FRB?

A

4

494
Q

Who presents type 3 investigations to FRB?

A

FIT Captain

495
Q

What is eligible for a 60 day expedited summary review (FIT)?

A

Firearm Discharge / No cause for concern for public safety

Discharge at an animal

496
Q

When would an officer not complete a type 1 UoF during crowd managment?

A

When a commander orders the force, they are required to report

497
Q

What additional voting members are added to FRB during crowd control events?

A

LT or Captain chosen by A/Chief Professional Standards

498
Q

Who conducts daytime follow-up for 3rd watch force review cases?

A

Admin LT

499
Q

Who determines dress code for plain clothes officers?

A

Section or Precinct Commander

500
Q

Mail Hair Standards

A 
2" Outward
1.5" Taper to Ear
1.5" sideburn width
.5" from side of face at base of sideburn
.5" ear cover
.5" sideburns below ear
501
Q

Mustache Standards

A

.5” from mouth corner
.25” below mouth corner
.25” over upper lip

502
Q

What cannot interfere with headgear?

A

Hair of both males and female officers

503
Q

What Jewelry is authorized?

A

Watch
Medical Bracelet
2 rings
.25 inch post earrings

504
Q

How can I wear black suspenders with my uniform?

A

Medical exemption signed by Employment Services LT

505
Q

Who maintains the Uniform Reference Catalog?

A

APRS

506
Q

Which side of the uniform gets a cloth name tape?

A

Right side

507
Q

What is required officer equipment?

A 
Vest
Belt
Flashlight
Handcuffs
Timepiece
Traffic Vet
Hat, Bat, Gasmask
508
Q

When will dept replace vest?

A

Every 5 years

509
Q

When do I get my clothing allowance?

A

On sworn anniversary.

510
Q

Damaged uniforms are reimbursed at a prorated rate:

A

Less than 12 months: 100%
12-24: 75%
24-36: 50%
36+: 25%

511
Q

Maximum value of personal equipment reimbursements:

A 
Glasses:  $125
Electronic Devices:  $100
Timepieces:  $70
Safety glasses / sunglasses:  $25
Flashlight:  100%
512
Q

Who decides reimbursement for non-listed damaged items?

A

Executive Director of Administration

513
Q

These units get a gear reimbursement:

A

SWAT / K9 / ACT
HARBOR, Mounted, traffic
Bikes

514
Q

What form is filled when applying for reimbursement of property?

A

13.18 Damage/Loss of Equipment, Uniform, or Personal Property

515
Q

How to be sure to qualify for Law Enforcement Safety Act?

A

Carry an approved firearm

516
Q

Who can apply for Patrol Shotgun?

A

Anyone off probation

517
Q

How many years of service required for the rifle program?

A

2 years

518
Q

How are participants selected for PSP / PRP?

A

PSP: Captain submits ranked list to FTS
PRP: Captain submits ranked list to Pro Standards Chief who decides

519
Q

What happens if you fail to qual and don’t have a waiver?

A

OPA

520
Q

Is vacation, schedule, or court a reason to get a qual waiver?

A

No

521
Q

What date are qual waiver extensions submitted by?

How many can I get?

A

Jan 31

Only 2 consecutive waivers allowed.

522
Q

How many chances to qual on training date?

A

2

523
Q

How many days of remedial training when you fail to qual?

A

60 days

524
Q

You have to surrender your firearm if you fail to do this?

A

Fail to qualify within the 60 day remedial training windows

525
Q

How long is the second firearm remedial phase?

A

Another 60 days

526
Q

Who is on the FQRB?

A

Chair appointed by chief.
Guild Rep
ETS Rep

527
Q

When will the FQRB meet?

A

within 14 days of an appeal request

528
Q

What is the remedial qual period for PSP / PRP?

A

30 days

529
Q

Who do you appeal to if you fail a 2nd qual with PSP / PRP?

A

Your own Bureau Chief

530
Q

WHo takes custody of firearms before issue?

A

QM

531
Q

What are the intercom hours of SeaPark garage?

A

0700-1500

532
Q

Which floor of seapark has access gate?

A

7th

533
Q

Can you park in the secure area after paying at SeaPark?

A

No

534
Q

What qualifies as a reason to get a validated ticket?

A 
Court
Special Reason a Captain approves
SPD employees on police business
Oral board participants
Non-SPD guests
535
Q

What is the SeaPark speed limit?

A

5mph

536
Q

How will the dept know you’ve been cheating at parking in SeaPark?

A

Random audits of prox card activity.

537
Q

Who allows parking at the range overnight (dept vehicles)

A

Bureau Chief OR

ETS captain and SPAA board

538
Q

Can I park my POV at the range?

A

Only with SPAA approval

539
Q

Where can I get my SeaPark Ticket validated?

A

0700-1515 Motor Pool

Otherwise at Datacenter

540
Q

What is worn above the waist when out of uniform in a dept facility?

A

ID

541
Q

The dept buys ID holder but not this:

A

Badge holders

542
Q

WHo maintains holding cell / security video?

A

ITD

543
Q

When may holding cell video be reviewed, in general?

A

Criminal Investigation,
Dept Investigation,
OPA, complaints,
EIS, civil claims

544
Q

Can a supervisor review holding cell videos to monitor officer performance?

A

Only when articulable and approved by captain.

545
Q

What does the justice department call a holding cell?

A

Lockup

546
Q

What must be completed prior to placing a detainee into a holding cell?

A

Inventory search

Inspect holding cell

547
Q

How often are welfare checks completed on detainees?

A

every 30 minutes

548
Q

A supervisor must approve holding cell detentions past _ hours.

A

2

549
Q

A juvenile cannot be detained in a holding cell for over _ hours.

A

6

550
Q

Watch Lieutenant assigns a sergeant to inspect what at the beginning of each shift?

A

Holding cells / log sheets

551
Q

These offenders are not locked in a holding cell, but rather put in an unsecured area.

A

Juvenile status offenders: (runaway, underage possession, curfew, warrant for listed)
Juvenile non-offenders: Jurisdiction of court for abuse, neglect

552
Q

This information must be passed on to the next agency if transferring a prisoner:

A

If they are at risk for sexual assault.

553
Q

Who will transport an arrest that occurs at end of shift?

A

Next watch

554
Q

How long does the admin retain detainee log sheets?

A

2 years plus current year

555
Q

We will document the use of this, even when applied by another agency:

A

Spitsocks

556
Q

Under what circumstance can AMR refuse a prisoner transport?

A

When there’s no officer to ride in the back.

557
Q

Who applies soft restraints when AMR takes to jail?

A

Officers. AMR may assist, but are not required.

558
Q

What are the criteria to transport DOC work release?

A 
Screen with SGT
Violent
Likely to escap
Risk
Inmate committed new crime
559
Q

What report is required when someone is declined at jail and hospital guard is issued?

A

Jail Decilne with Hospital Guard

560
Q

What crimes require guards, unless a Watch LT determines otherwise?

A

Felony, Felony Warrant, Repeat DUI, DV

561
Q

What are some personal items not retained by KCJ?

A

Helmets, Bags, Laptops, Extra clothing
Pepper Spray, guns
Booze, smokes

562
Q

Where does detainee marijuana go?

A

To jail, in a marked container

563
Q

What are some common reasons evidence contacts officers about SKO?

A

Marijuana and Cash inside

564
Q

When is marijuana submitted as evidence?

A

Quantity over 1 ounce
16 ounce infused product
72 ounces liquid

565
Q

This item is submitted as evidence even if it is SKO.

A

Firearms

566
Q

Who determines the deployment of assigned personnel?

A

Communications

567
Q

Who determines staffing?

A

Watch LT

568
Q

What channel is used for city wide car-to-car?

A

PTAC
North can use NW
South / SW can use SW
East / West use PTAC

569
Q

What are the database hours?

A

0700-0300

570
Q

KC IO channel list

A

02-08 - all police
06-07 - SPD
09-15 - all fire

571
Q

Five principles of radio

A 
BEANP
Brevity
Enunciation
Audible
Normal Even Steady Voice
Plain Verbiage
572
Q

Why does dispatch broadcast priority 3 calls?

A

In case units in area can assist / drive by / MIR / etc

573
Q

What do early roll call sergeants note on the roll call sheet?

A

Number of precedence 1 calls

574
Q

When should incoming units be logged in by?

A

Within 30 minutes of roll call start time.

575
Q

Devices must be password protected if they run this software:

A

VMobile

576
Q

What department assists with SPD phones?

A

Fiscal

577
Q

Courts don’t provide information located in what records?

A

Criminal History Records

578
Q

How often are ACCESS certifications done?

A

Every 2 years

579
Q

Data entry requires what level of ACCESS certification?

A

Level 2

580
Q

Who is Technical Agency Coordinator that maintains NCIC compliance?

A

Data Center Manager

581
Q

Except for a few circumstances (case file, prosecutor need), printouts of these are prohibited:

A

Criminal History

582
Q

Criminal record releases are handled by these units:

A

Records File Unit and Data Center

583
Q

How often are SPD personnel re-backgrounded?

A

Every 5 years

584
Q

What step is taken when a criminal history record (felony, misd, charges pending) is discovered for an employee?

A

ALL: TAC Notifies WSP Information Security Officer
Felony: Denied ACCESS
Misd: SPD Decides to limit ACCESS
Pending: nobody knows

585
Q

Security awareness training is required within _ of initial hire to maintain ACCESS/NCIC standards

A

6 months.

No cert? Need Security training every 2 years

586
Q

Who the Captain of Compliance notify when their audits find ACCESS violations?

A

COO, Employee, Supervisor

587
Q

When are directives issued?

A

3rd Wednesday, monthly

588
Q

How long are directives in effect?

A

Current year plus 1

589
Q

When do new policies take effect?

A

1st day of month following directive day

590
Q

What law governs our PDR process?

A

Public Records Act

591
Q

What are the four methods to submit PDR, and which is preferred?

A

GovQA records request (preferred)
Mail
Fax
In Person

592
Q

Who handles records requests from other city departments, other LEA, and insurance companies?

A

Crime Records Unit

593
Q

Who generally handles records requests for reports, clearance letters, administrative criminal background checks?

A

Public Request Unit

594
Q

Who generally is responsible for PDR?

A

Legal Unit

595
Q

Correspondence from the Chief, Deputy Chief, Bureau Chief, or Captain is called what?

A

Original Letter

596
Q

Pre-printed correspondence signed by Chief, etc is called what?

A

Form Letter

597
Q

Compliance sections maintains a file of all of this type of correspondence:

A

Form Letters

598
Q

How do senders mark an official memo?

A

initials next to their name

599
Q

A lieutenant must approve department correspondence addressed to who?

A

Entities outside dept.

600
Q

How are original letters formatted?

A

Dept Stationary, Block Text, Mixed punctuation

601
Q

What governs email signatures?

A

Brand Guidelines

602
Q

How long to reply to high importance emails?

A

4 business days or sooner.

603
Q

When should I activate auto-reply in outlook?

A

Absences over 4 days.

604
Q

A __ approves “send as” privileges in outlook.

A

Captain

605
Q

What financial transactions are allowed on dept email and devices?

A

Deferred comp

606
Q

Who investigates dept vehicle collisions?

A

Traffic, Patrol, TCIS

607
Q

Does a SGT need to go to a collision that occurs outside the city?

A

No, if approved by LT

Damage is minor

608
Q

A ___ is required in a dept collision when $1000 in damage, injury, traffic crime

A

PTCR

609
Q

If damage is under 1000 or a police only location, create this report.

A

Collision - Traffic

610
Q

If no PTCR, the involved officer will create this item.

A

Sketch

611
Q

What constitutes an emergency response?

A

Police Vehicle

Substantially outside normal traffic pattern

612
Q

Emergency response authorized when ___ outweighs ___

A

Need, Risk

613
Q

What is the highest priority with emergency vehicle operations?

A

Preservation of life

614
Q

Criminal Apprehension and Property preservation are ____ to preservation of life.

A

Secondary

615
Q

When is it appropriate to use emergency response for misd or property crimes?

A

In progress

Legit life safety concern

616
Q

Eluding happens after a driver does one of the following after being signaled to stop:

A

Increase Speed
Takes Evasive Action
Refuses to Stop

617
Q

Pursuits are ok for these crimes

A

Violent Offense / Sex Offense
AND
PC of imminent threat
Escape is worse than the danger posed by the pursuit

618
Q

When can you re-initiate a pursuit that has been terminated?

A

New crime and approved by supervisor

619
Q

All involved complete what report for a pursuit?

A

Blue Team

620
Q

What happens when eluding ends in collision, regardless of pursuit?

A

SGT responds
Blue Team still required
TCIS / Patrol Chief notified

621
Q

What does a square sticker on a patrol vehicle denote?

A 
It is a district vehicle
                West:  Red
		North:  White
		South:  Yellow
		East:  Green
		SW:  Blue
622
Q

What extra equipment do sergeant vehicles contain?

A

Evidence Packing

Crime Tape

623
Q

Who do you complain to if service at Charles st sucks?

A

Stationmaster

624
Q

Who gives authority to tape / tack shit on walls / lockers?

A

Captain

625
Q

Will the dept pay if they have to cut open your locked locker?

A

No

626
Q

Are roll call sheets and crime analysis reports recyclable?

A

No, they must be shredded

627
Q

What is the communication van?

A

Like a MP, but with more for dispatch

628
Q

Where are the MP / Comm van?

A

MP at west seattle (Council directed)
Communication van at west
MP3 at north, east, rainier valley

629
Q

How are bike maintenance officers trained?

A

Through appropriate school / manufacturer

630
Q

Who is responsible for assigned vehicles to units?

A

COO

631
Q

When is the motor pool open to sign out vehicles?

A

0700-1530, fleet control office

632
Q

How much gas should you leave in a vehicle?

A

At least 1/2 tank

633
Q

Who authorizes overnight use of vehicles?

A

Captain for up to 30 days
LT can temp authorize
Over 30 days? Tell the COO

634
Q

What happens if you don’t cancel a parking ticket w/i 48 hours?

A

You pay it yourself

635
Q

A ___ is issued to alert of an actual or possible resource distribution for a major incident.

A

Mobilization alert

636
Q

A secondary objective of a mobilization alert is is control the depletion of patrol, and

A

Discourage uncontrolled response to major scene.

637
Q

Who can issue a mobilization alert?

A

Lieutenant

638
Q

Does a mobilization alert change patrol operation?

A

Yes, limit on views, priority calls.

639
Q

Mobilization stage 1

A

Credible threat
2+ precincts
Mutual Aid request

Deploys TF / traffic

640
Q

Mobilization Stage 2

A

Credible threat supported by regional / national incident
Significant even after going to priority calls
Mutual aid TF request
Unplanned event

SPOC activated
Everyone mobilized but investigations standy by

641
Q

Stage 3 mobilization

A

SPECIFIC credible threat

Lack of public order

642
Q

Stage 3 mobilization

A

SPECIFIC credible threat
Lack of public order

Everyone mobilized and detectives get uniforms on

643
Q

Stage 4 Mobilization

A

State of Emergency
Disaster / Major incident

Blue Gold unless otherwise directed

644
Q

What to do in a major disaster if off work?

A

Assume stage 4 mobilization (blue gold) and report to nearest duty station.

645
Q

Gold / Blue shift designations

A

GOLD like the sun
1st and 2nd and day shift

BLUE like the night sky
3rd watch, ACT, and night shift

646
Q

Who staffs the EOC?

A

ETS - PRIMARY

Professional Standards
APRS

647
Q

This system is used for rapid mobilization of emergency responders and providing information to public.

A

AlertSeattle

648
Q

Where can you decipher hazmat placards?

A

DOT handbook

649
Q

What is the initial perimeter for hazmat?

A

500ft

650
Q

Serious Incident Plan, in summary

A

Officer: Arrive, make safe, give aid, investigate.
SGT: Request follow up, secure scene.
LT: Take over. Media. Priority calls.

651
Q

Officer Injury / Fatality, in summary

A 
Officer: Broadcast, Aid, Perimeter
SGT1:  Perimeter, Req follow up, ensure notification to family
SGT2:  Hospital
LT:  Media control, priority calls
Commander:  Dept notifications
652
Q

A partial mobilization of the Task Force may be done by a field commander of what rank?

A

Sergeant

653
Q

What officers and sergeants are on TF?

A

First 2 work days

654
Q

These units are always TF regardless of duty day:

A 
ACT/CPT
SWAT
K9
Traffic
Wagons
655
Q

What will comms do with officers on priority calls when they are called up to task force?

A

Replace them with non-tf officers

656
Q

Wagons have this additional duty for TF:

A

Prisoner Processing

657
Q

CMIC matric, in order:

A

Management: Communication and dialogue
Intervention: Help good ones, arrest bad ones
Control: Up to and including dispersal

658
Q

The RCW defines these people in regards to crowd control activities:

A

Media

659
Q

In crowd control, an officer can serve in this role until a sergeant arrives:

A

Incident Commander

660
Q

This happens when 4+ pose an imminent threat at a demonstration, or traffic disruption, or criminal acts.

A

Unlawful Assembly

661
Q

Why are officers placed at the back of an unruly crowd?

A

To hear PA announcements

662
Q

Who has the authority to direct less lethal at crowd events absent exigent circumstances?

A

Incident commander

663
Q

When will officers provide aid, within their training, at crowd control events?

A

OC, Blast Balls, 40mm, Pepperballs

664
Q

An IC completes a ___ after a crowd control event.

A

AAR

665
Q

How is an AAR conducted on a multi-day event?

A

Post Event Briefing Forms

Chief Designee writes AAR

666
Q

What other ways, in addition to PA, can a dispersal order be given?

A

Social media

667
Q

Is a report required for a fire call with no damage or injuries?

A

No

668
Q

When will a sergeant screen a fire with ABS?

A

Arson (Fire Marshal 5 determines)
Death
Sig property damage
Fire bombings

669
Q

Who decides to evacuate a property with a bomb threat?

A

Property owner

670
Q

Officers ask this person to remain on site for interview when a bomb is discovered?

A

The person who discovered the device.

671
Q

These crimes are not eligible for CBO:

A 
DUI / traffic 
Felonies / follow up
Prostitution / Sexual Exploitation
Juveniles
Retail Theft
672
Q

When conducing a ___, you must identify how you IDed the subject.

A

CBO

673
Q

Sergeant screen with homicide when:

A 
Homicide / Serious assault
Suspicious, abuse, neglect
Under 18, including suicides
On duty police
Found bones
Industrial accident
674
Q

Who is notified for traffic deaths?

A

TCIS

675
Q

Who is notified for fire deaths?

A

ABS

676
Q

Who is notified for in custody deaths?

A

FIT

677
Q

Is it appropriate to take crowd photos at a death investigation?

A

Yes

678
Q

What two numbers can a medical examiner give?

A

NJA: No jurisdiction assigned. They’re not responding.
KCME: They’re responding

679
Q

Who coordinates with the ME when there is a hospice death?

A

Hospice

680
Q

Is a report required in a hospice death?

A

no

681
Q

Who must be notified when there are violent anti-social / anti-government groups?

A

SWAT

682
Q

When should SAU be called out?

A 
Stranger rape with scene
serious injury rape
Custody rapes (kcj, day care, etc)
683
Q

How much money seized for a narcotics callout?

A

10k

684
Q

Who should be notified to clean graffiti on city property?

A

SPU

685
Q

What should you wear with etching acid?

A

gloves

686
Q

The violent crimes commander gets notified of these.

A

kidnappings

687
Q

Who/what determines jurisdiction in custodial interference

A

Child legal residence

KCPAO final say

688
Q

DV will instruct when officershould complete this report on custodial interference.

A

Missing person report

689
Q

How can officers attempt to resolve parenting plan disputes?

A

inform offender of consequences

690
Q

Malicious harassment identifiers, misdemeanors:

A 
Parents
Politics
Homeless
Age
Married
691
Q

When someone yells derogatory language at a protected group while committing a crime, this is likely a what?

A

Crime with bias elements.

692
Q

What is a bias incident?

A

No crime, but still bias elements.

693
Q

Who will comms send to a bias incident?

A

Officer and sergeant.

694
Q

When will you not complete a missing persons report?

A

Litigants in civil case
Process servers / bill collectors
Family history compilation
Locating heirs

695
Q

What is the preferred method to notify Data of a complete missing persons report?

A

CAD to DATAT

696
Q

Who approves an amber alert?

A

LT

697
Q

When is an EMPA ok for a voluntary disapperance?

A

Mental Disability
Age, Health, Or adverse weather
Unable to return without assistance

698
Q

What should an officer do when searching a home with a missing child?

A

Get consent

Treat it like a crime scene

699
Q

What follow up takes over for AMBER alert?

A

Homicide if stranger

DV if known

700
Q

What goes on the first line for tested items in a WSP lab request?

A

THe most important. The first is often the only tested item.

701
Q

What is the typical dollar limit for seizure?

A

$500

702
Q

What is the usual boundary for a drug free zone?

A

1000 feet from school, school bus stop
Public park, public housing, public transit
Civic center

703
Q

What must also be satisfied to arrest in a school drug free zone?

A

In school hours.

704
Q

Is it mandatory to book a SODA offender?

A

No

705
Q

What must an offender carry to go through a SODA zone?

A

SODA paperwork stating the exemption

706
Q

What cannot be used as evidence of drug traffic loitering?

A

Needles

707
Q

What if a drug loitering arrest turns up narcotics?

A

Process like a narcotics arrest and note that the search was for loitering.

708
Q

What do you do with criminal marijuana less 40 grams?

A

Just request charges, don’t put it on superform.

709
Q

Does a medical marijuana card prohibit investigation?

A

no, case law

710
Q

How many days supply of medical marijuana is allowed?

A

60 days
24 ounces
15 plants

711
Q

What is the max capacity for a collective garden of marijuna?

A

3-10 patients
45 plants
72 ounces

712
Q

How can you tell a health care professional qualifying statement is legit?

A

Tamper resistant paper

713
Q

Officers carrying ___ should be at a lineup.

A

TASERs

714
Q

How many ID procedures can you do with a witness / victim?

A

1

715
Q

What happens if one person objects to recording at a lineup?

A

Then no recording

716
Q

What kinds of crimes need statements from victims, witnesses, and complainants?

A

Juvenile and Felony

717
Q

What is the age limit for a vulnerable adult?

A

60+

718
Q

What can qualify as a vulnerable adult under 60?

A

Incapacitated
Developmentally disabled
Care from specific institutions (hospice, etc)

719
Q

Who should you report vulnerable / elder abuse to?

A

In a home: Residential Care Services (RCS)

Otherwise APS

720
Q

Who handles elder abuse where there is no death / near death?

A

DV

721
Q

Who is responsible for disposal of a license plate when the other plate is stolen?

A

Complainant

722
Q

Consult general investigations about stolen cars in these situations:

A

Comp knows who has vehicle
Comp’s child took car
Rental car company

723
Q

Who gets booked on RTP, regardless of amounts or other crimes?

A

Top 10

724
Q

What warrant bail amount will send an officer to an RTP call?

A

$750

725
Q

Should a victim join an officer to ID a stolen pawn item?

A

No, officer goes alone.

726
Q

What options does an officer have with stolen pawn property to prevent its sale?

A

Police Hold

Seizure (requires PC and belief the item won’t be safe)

727
Q

Who does a SGT notify when a firearm is released from SPD custody?

A

Anyone who requested such notification.

728
Q

What must evidence do before releasing a firearm?

A

Background check through Public Records Unit

729
Q

These parts of an order do not go to the respondent:

A

LE Info Sheet
Motion and Order for waiver of fees
Return of Service

730
Q

When seizing a firearm of a CPL owner by order, also seize what?

A

CPL

731
Q

What is an extended family in child welfare terms?

A

Grandparent, sibling, step-sibling, aunt/uncle, first cousin

732
Q

Call DSHS to place a child here:

A

Crisis Residential Center

Youth Shelter

733
Q

When should you take a child into protective custody?

A

PC child abused / neglected

CPS asks you to

734
Q

Can I photograph a child for evidence?

A

Yes

735
Q

CPS must approve what kind of custody transfer?

A

Field Placement

736
Q

If you have a runaway who is afraid to go home, where should you send them?

A

CRC / DSHS

737
Q

When does patrol handle animals?

A

Vicious - notify animal control
Theft
Killing of animals

738
Q

Who should be contacted about nuisance animals?

A

Dept of Fish and Wildlife

739
Q

Animal control has authority over __ and __ animals

A

Injured and Impounded

740
Q

Is an interpreter required when a minor has deaf parents?

A

yes

741
Q

What is automatically dispatched when a deaf caller calls 911?

A

An interpreter.

742
Q

If you write a ticket at a collision, you must also do what?

A

PTCR

743
Q

What can you do if someone demands a report for a vehicle collision?

A

Give them PTCR paperwork

744
Q

Do you write a ticket on a felony collision that TCIS will take?

A

No

745
Q

When there is an injured party in a collision and the suspect is not identified, but the vehicle is located, do what?

A

TCIS hold

746
Q

What units on a PTCR are not allowed for a street car?

A

Unit 1 or 2

747
Q

SR99 Tunnel, which is above, which is below?

A

OPPOSITE COMPASS
Northbound Below
Southbound Above

748
Q

Describe the fire and emergency doors in the SR99 tunnel

A

16 doors

650 feet

749
Q

Who can activate speakers and signs in the SR99 tunnel?

A

Traffic Management Center

750
Q

This is triggered when a wrong-way response is used in the SR99 tunnel.

A

Unified Command Response

SPD, SFD, 2 DOTs

751
Q

Succession of command for Unified Command Response:

A

SFD until stable
SPD takes over
WSDOT from there

752
Q

In a strip mall, can a trespass warning sign cover the whole property?

A

No, each store must have.

753
Q

What do trespass warning signs from the city allow an officer to do?

A

Be proactive

754
Q

Where are trespass warnings kept? Who enters them?

A

Mark43, Precinct Admin

755
Q

When you arrest someone on the trespass warning program, what do you do with the original trespass warning ticket?

A

Place it in evidence.

Replace it with a new one.

756
Q

This officer gets listed as a secondary officer in a trespass warning arrest.

A

The original officer who wrote the warning.

757
Q

What can SPD enforce at parks?

A

Parks Code
Park Rules
SMC/RCW

758
Q

Which copy of a parks exclusion goes to where?

A

White to Data
Gold to offender
Card stock to precinct

759
Q

How long are people excluded from parks for a felony? For a threat to safety?

A

1 year

1 day

760
Q

Who maintains breath test permit?

A

Sergeants and Officers

761
Q

Who may authorize an outside agency to complete a DUI?

A

Lieutenant

762
Q

What triggers a mando DUI arrest?

A

Pending DUI
Conviction past 10 years
Veh homicide / assault history

763
Q

What should an officer do while waiting for a DRE?

A

Fill out warrant

764
Q

What do you write in the narrative portion of DUI tickets?

A

Case number

“See related reports”

765
Q

When do you submit Report of Breath/Blood test to data?

A

.08 3 of 4 tests
.02 under 21
.04 commercial vehicle
Refusal

766
Q

When do you assign a DUI court date

A

Released

No blood test pending

767
Q

What must be completed before end of shift if you book the suspect for DUI?

A

All paperwork

768
Q

How long do you have to complete DUI paperwork with a booked suspect?

A

24 hours prior to court date

769
Q

When are DUIs referred to CPS?

A

Passenger under 16

Driver is a parent, guardian, custodian, sibling, half-sibling

770
Q

How long to file a blood warrant?

A

72 hours

771
Q

Who responds to serious assaults on officers?

A

Homicide

Type 1 / Type 2 force used? FIT

772
Q

Who completes the hazard report?

A

Officer assaulted / threatened

773
Q

What are the notifications for an assault on officer.

A

Watch LT advises duty captain, who advises bureau chief

774
Q

What gets included in a UoF report if an officer was assaulted?

A

Hazard report

775
Q

What do plainclothes officers do in a robbery response?

A

Report to primary officer

776
Q

Who does the SIR if a followup unit responds?

A

Follow-up unit

777
Q

What crime is not on an SIR?

A

Sexual assault

778
Q

Can you use Mobile ID on terry stops?

A

No, requires PC and/or requirement to ID (NOI, Liquor, CPL)

CONSENT OK

779
Q

This device can be used for community caretaking to identify subject.

A

Mobile ID

780
Q

What goes in a sexual assault report?

A

Penetration
ID of suspect
Forcible compulsion.

781
Q

What should be checked when arresting someone for indecent exposure?

A

Criminal history

782
Q

LEO of any agency investigated for this crime requires an on duty LT.

A

DV

783
Q

who gets notified if an employee is arrested for DV?

A

Chief / Chief
Captain / Captain
PAU
OPA

784
Q

What is collected from an arrested SPD officer for DV?

A

Badge, Gun, ID card

785
Q

This order usually come from dissolution, separation, or child custody issues.

A

Restraining Order

786
Q

This order is to prevent someone who has been alarmed, annoyed, or harassed:

A

Anti-Harassment order

787
Q

This order is served on release from custody for DV

A

No Contact

788
Q

Which order does not require verification prior to arrest?

A

No Contact order

789
Q

What are some ways to show that an order has been served?

A

WACIC
Petitioner copy shows served
PCT desk officer
DV unit

790
Q

Mando arrests for orders?

A 
Terms which restrain from violence, proximity, contact:
No Contact
Protection Order
Sex Assault
Vulnerable
Stalking

Restraining, but can’t be a felony

791
Q

What constitutes a felony order violation?

A

Assault, Reckless Endangerment

Two Prior Convictions

792
Q

Who can petition for an ERPO?

A

Family or LEO

793
Q

How long for a first attempt to serve an ERPO?

A

24 hours

794
Q

What are the minimum number of attempts an ERPO will be served?

A

3 attempts

795
Q

DV Mando arrest

A

18
4 hours
Assault

796
Q

What must be completed with a DV arrest?

A

DV Supplement

797
Q

What should an officer attempt to determine while doing a civil stand by?

A

Previous DV

798
Q

Patrol won’t enforce the following prostitution related crimes:

A

Adult entertainment
Illicit Massage
Online Investigations
Escort / Brothels

799
Q

What ages are allowed for ridealongs?

A

16/17 with parent permission and a good reason.

Captain decides

800
Q

How often can someone do a ridealong?

A

Yearly

exceptions for applicants

801
Q

Ridealongs aren’t allowed if you have this in your history:

A

Violence

Crimes against government order

802
Q

Who can make the determination for a ride along with misd history?

A

LT

803
Q

What if a ridealong requestor is unable to schedule after 3 attempts?

A

They start over.

804
Q

Who completes next of kin notifications (non-leo)?

A

KCME

805
Q

Who notifies next of kin in an employee death?

A

Watch LT

806
Q

What is Guardian 2 used for?

A

Search and Rescue

Tactical missions

807
Q

What channel is guardian one usually on?

A

MARS

808
Q

What do you do when leaving a false alarm notice?

A

Cross out the fine amount.

809
Q

What type of firework is threshold for ABS notification?

A

M80

810
Q

What label do you put on fireworks in the barrel when appropriate?

A

“Not needed as evidence”

811
Q

What options for packaging fireworks?

A

Envelope, Paper bag

No plastic

812
Q

If you operate BWV / ICV, you will also be…

A

In uniform

813
Q

Where do you note malfunctions to ICV / BWV?

A

CAD
Notify supervisor
ITD if problem

814
Q

Under what circumstances will you give a second recording notice?

A

Miranda

815
Q

Where must you ask for consent to record video?

A

Private areas, homes.

816
Q

Is it ok to record in a jail?

A

No, only for LE purpose

817
Q

When does an event conclude?

A 
Complete investigation
Little possibility of further contact
or
Sally Port
or
Destination reached and employee exits
818
Q

Which recording system still requires event and case number?

A

Coban

819
Q

If you have a take home car, when will you upload your video?

A

by end of next shift

820
Q

Can specialized units request exemptions to bwv?

A

Yes, not to exceed one year.

821
Q

Can you be disciplined for minor misconduct found on ICV review?

A

NO, training and counseling only

822
Q

This is a community / regional partnership that works the dept on crisis stuff.

A

Crisis Intervention Committee

823
Q

What two sergeants are in the CIT program?

A

CRU and CIT coordinator

824
Q

CFT Intercept Continuum:

A 
1:  Harmless symptomatic
   Non-Criminal:  contact info for services
   Criminal:  Verbal warning
2:  Indication of mental health needs
   NC:  Refer to partner
   C:  Document, warn
3:  Urgent Mental Health
   NC:  Case manager contact, CRT, transport voluntary
   C:  Document crime, warn
4:  Imminent:
   NC:  ITA
   C:  Mental health court or CSC
5:  Escalation
   NC:  DCR for commitment
   C:  Arrest, mental health court
6:   Escalated even more, resistant to other interventions
	CS:  DCR, commit
	C:  Arrest, book
825
Q

Who is responsible to ensure a suicide attempt subject gets resources?

A

CRU sergeant

826
Q

Diversion eligibility:

A

Misd, vucsa under 3 grams
No violence no sex offense 10 years
No level 2/3 sex offenders

827
Q

Who must be notified if a subject is given diversion?

A

the victim

828
Q

Five options for a crisis misd.

A 
I&R route to CRU
CSC referral
I&R request MHC
Jail with MHC
ITA, request MHC
829
Q

What do you do when KCJ refuses because of crisis?

A

Document the reason and name of jail personnel

830
Q

5 components of effective CIT that SPD monitors:

A 
Communication procedures
CIT officers
CRU
CIT Curriculum
SPD Culture
831
Q

When is a first aid call a report?

A

Injury or illness was from a crime.
Involves City Property
CPR, AED, Naloxone

832
Q

Use this system to report tourniquets, naloxone, pressure bandages, cpr, etc.

A

RedCAP

833
Q

EMT officers include this in their reports when giving first aid.

A

SOAP

834
Q

Why do we tell medical personnel all of the officers involved in patient care?

A

So they can notify of exposures

835
Q

Where can you carry naloxone?

A

Cargo Pants
Duty belt pouch
Patrol Vehicle
Bike Bag

836
Q

Seeking water and attraction to shiny shit may be a sign of what?

A

excited delirium

837
Q

This ALPR system is used by PEO and is purged daily

A

AutoVu

838
Q

This system is used by SPD for ALPR

A

BOSS

839
Q

BOSS alpr system retains plates for how many days?

A

90 days

840
Q

What other certification is required to get ALPR cert?

A

ACCESS

841
Q

What are the six paragraphs of an OPs order?

A

Mission / Situation
Concept / Command Control
Task Org / Coordinating Instructions

842
Q

Who gives out numbers for patrol ops orders?

A

Operations and Planning section

843
Q

What’s important when dealing with labor management disputes?

A

Don’t fraternize, accept food, give a shit appearance.

844
Q

What name goes in the AKA of a transgender

A

Adopted name

845
Q

How many officers for search of transgender?

A

two.

Ask for gender preference, record it

846
Q

What do you write on fields in a ticket that you don’t use?

A

N/A or a line through it.
“Unknown” for Address
“None” in license field

847
Q

When do you not serve a paper ticket that has been written?

A

When booked into jail.

848
Q

Is a diagram mandatory for parking tickets?

A

No

849
Q

How should you correct errors on a ticket?

A

Cross out and initial

850
Q

Do you write tickets for felony traffic?

A

No

851
Q

What do you put for issue date on tickets for a booked person?

A

You don’t put a date

852
Q

What do you do with unused tickets when transferring precincts?

A

Return to stationmaster

853
Q

Non traffic felony with WSP and they need help, what happens?

A

SPD assists and completes reports. WSP works under SPD sergeant.

854
Q

WSP is unable to make this kind of arrest?

A

Municipal

855
Q

Who investigates UWPD force that leads to death / injury?

A

On campus? UWPD does their own.

Off campus? SPD does it.

856
Q

Who requests SPD assistance for civil disturbances at UW?

A

President of University or
Provost and Executive VP
Senior VP of Finance / Facilities
Vice Provost and Dean of Undergrad

857
Q

When may UWPD chief act with authority of president for SPD requests?

A

Civil disorder in progress, immediate action necessary

858
Q

What must a canine do when ordered?

A

Release a bite
Bite
Stay and guard

SPD SGT Exam 2022 (6 decks)

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