Final Study Flashcards

1
Q

Supervisor’s review of missed training, when OPA referral.

A

Determine if justified.
Document in PAS
Reschedule

OPA when:
Unjustified
No reasonable notice given.
Supervisor request due to employee history

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who calls the FAA to close airspace?

A

PIO, Incident Commander, or Dispatch Supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who can request assistance from media aircraft?

A

Captain or Perm LT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What information can generally be released when a suspect is arrested but not charged or booked?

A

Age, Gender, Race, City

Investigating / Arresting Agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What information can generally be release about Deceased Persons

A

Age, Gender, Race, City

KCME does rest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What information about a suspect requires chief approval to release?

A

Character,
criminal record,
community reputation
Outcome of legal proceedings

Confession
interviews
examinations
statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What information gets released about employees?

A

Age, Race, Gender, Rank, Tenure, Bureau

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who ensures a separating employee returns all gear?

A

Human Resources, but also immediate supervisor.

Supervisor may make attempts to recover property, and writes memo for failed recoveries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Who makes proper disposition of deceased equipment?

A

Captain / manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Good ways to get fired

A

Lying
Conviction (felony, moral turpitude misd)
Violation of regulation / order / civil service law
Incompetence
Improper use of city property
Debts
Using political influence for personal gain
Getting someone elected to officer in a shitty way
Bribes / Inducing into illegal act
Prisoner abuse
AWOL 3 days
Secondary Employment with conflict of interest
Fail to qual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who is responsible for maintenance and control of grievance records?

A

Director of HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How often are fully sworn officers evaluated?

When will they be evaluated?

A

Minimum once per year, within 20 days of hire date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What happens after a performance evaluation is completed?

A

Employee may add comments
CoC reviews
Submitted to HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an EI mentor plan?

A

Strategy to intervene / assist employee in upholding lawful, professional, ethical standards?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does a mentor plan contain?

A

Issues
Method / Action plan
Timeline
Follow-up Actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is an EIS mistake corrected?

A

Request correction from EI Coordinator via CoC.
PRC, CoC, Bureau Chief will review.
HR director has final decision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who creates an EI mentor plan?
For how long?
Who approves it or approves no mentor plan at all?

A

Captain / Director
6 months or less
PRC and Assistant Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Who is on the Performance Review Committee?

A
EI Coordinator
Reps:
Chief
HR
Patrol
APRS
ETS
Dept of Risk Management (Director of Legal Affairs / Designee)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who schedules PRC meetings

A

EI coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the EI timline?

A

3 / 14 / 3 / 7
775

3 days: EI Coordinator notifies supervisor
14 days: SGT does assessment
3 days: LT reviews
7 days: Capt reviews
1 week prior to PRC meeting: EI Coordinator submits to PRC
Within 7 days of meeting, PRC reviews
Within 5 days, bureau chief reviews

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

EI Triggers: EEO Complaint

A

2 complaints within 12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EI Triggers: Names in Police Action Claims / Lawsuit

A

2 within 24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
EI Triggers:  TYPE 1 / 2 UOF For different Bureaus
Patrol
Collaborative
Homeland / Spec Ops
Investigations
Professional Standards
A

653 432
1
Patrol: Exceeding 6 incidents in a 6 month period.
Collaborative and Homeland Security / Special Operations: 5 in 6
Criminal Investigations and Professional Standards: 3 in 6
2

Patrol: Exceeding 4 incidents in a 6 month period.
Collaborative and Homeland Security / Special Operations: 3 in 6
Criminal Investigations and Professional Standards: 2 in 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What happens if I have more EI activity while on an EI mentor plan?

A

LT will review and make recommendations about mentor plan to captain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Who is responsible for Accident Prevention Program?

A

Dept Safety Officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who is in the Safety and Health committee?

A

Six Employees.
Up to 3 appointed by Chief
The rest elected by bargaining units / membership.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Who reviews inspection reports of unsafe working condition and accidents?

A

Safety and Health Committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long is a term for a Safety and Health Committee member?

A

Not to exceed 1 year.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When are 10-day vacation requests approved?

A

Feb 14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

These units are exempt from working day-off events:

A
Homicide
ABS
UC detectives
Stand By Personnel in these units
   FIT, TCIS, CSI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When do you inform the Family Medical Leave Coordinator about release time?

A

When it exceeds 3 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the work hour maximums?

A

90 in a week
0300 Saturday -0300 Saturday
Exceptions: Public Safety, Court, Mandatory OT
Approved by a captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When is sick time prohibited?

A

Non pay status: suspended / laid off

Outside work schedule: holiday / furlough

Injured working off-duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What types of leave may be used for pregnancy?

A

FML
Disability
Pregnancy Disability
Long Term Disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Qualifying FML conditions

A

Newborn / Foster / Adoption
Care of family w/ serious health condition
Own health condition
Qualifying Military Exigency of Spouse, Child, Parent
Care of service member or veteran

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do I get DV, Sexual Assault, Stalking leave?

A

Contact Employment Services LT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are close relatives in regards to bereavement leave?

Other than close?

A

Close: Spouse, domestic partner, child, parent, sibling, grandparent, grandchild, grandchild of spouse, anyone employee/spouse has legal custody of.

Other: Cousin, Parent Sibling, Parent Sibling Child, Spouse of Sibling, Sibling Child, Sibling Grandchild

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What personal events do I have to report to my supervisor?

A

Arrest / investigation / conviction
Respondent

License Expired / Revoke, etc
Crim traffic cite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What information do I give a citizen if they want to file a claim against the city?

A

Claims Division of City Law Dept
Form available at Seattle Muni building
Can also call and get one mailed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What can I accept as a gift?

A
Promo / Nominal $25 or less
Common areas $25
$50 aggregate
$5 coffee 
$10 food anon
Informational materials, subscriptions, publications, related to duty
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who can keep a sustained EEO complaint from being expunged after 6 years?

A

Dept Legal Adviser can request a hold.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How often are chemical agents inspected? Who does the inspecting?

A

Monthly

Stationmaster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What suspends off-duty employment eligibility?

A

Sick
Disability
FML (own)
Release

Military Leave

Suspension
OPA reassign

Possibly: Poor work record, complaints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is required on an Off Duty Employment Permit Form?

A

Name, Address, Duties

Employer name
Address of work
Specific Duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Who must approve off duty work permits?

A

Employee Captain

Captain of precinct of work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the maximum length of an off duty permit? When does it expire?

A

1 year.

Expires on hire date.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What information is required to log in off duty?

A
V call sign
Business / event name
Address
Hours
Uniform
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

If after hours, who should a LT notify about impairment testing of an officer?

A

Duty Captain, Bureau Chief, HR Director

Copy of testing goes to OPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who maintains list of CISM team members?

A

Peer Support

SPD Comms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When must a CISM member still report mandatorily?

A

Injury, abuse, neglect child/vuln adult
Danger of physical harm to self or others
DV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When can you interview someone with diplomatic immunity?

A

For public safety.

May include UoF and arrest.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When is it ok to collect or rely on restricted information?

A

When it has a legitimate law enforcement purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What exceptions exist to policy regarding private sexual information or restricted information?

A

Supplied
Public
Provided
Religious accommodation

Supplied by person
Information public (social media, etc.)
Provided by third party
Religious accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

When may officer impound with 24 hours notice?

A

Abandoned, mechanically unsafe, violation of law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the requirements to impound to VPR?

A
Evidence
Analysis 
Integral
Seizure 
Detective says so
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What disqualifies a vehicle from the VPR?

A

Crime outside seattle
Oversized vehicle (req SGT / CSI approval)
Leaking (CSI approval)
Damaged in arson (CSI approval)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is required on an investigation hold impound sheet?

A

Reason and unit responsible.

Do not put “see narrative”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What units can use confidential informants?

A
Human Trafficking
MCTF
Narcotics
Gun Violence Reduction Team
Investigation Support Unit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the age limit for CIs?

A

No one under 16.

16/17 requires A/Chief approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How often does APRS audit CI files?

A

Twice yearly, at least 120 days apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What gets a CI paid?

A
Information
Evidence
Contraband
Actual Expenses
Introductions to other CIs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the procedure to pay a CI?

A

Complete task
Justification for payment of funds
Entry into CI activity report
Vouchers / receipts / unit logs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Who do I notify if I disclose CI identity for a public safety emergency?

A

Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are some potential disqualifiers for CWs?

A

Violence
DV
Assault on LEO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What ways can Miranda be documented?

A

Rights form
Officer statement
Recording Device
Custodial interview (recorded)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

When is reasonable suspicion de facto present for strip searches?

A

Violent offense
Escape, burglary, deadly weapon
Possession of controlled substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

When do you automatically call for aid?

A
Type 3
Canine Bite
UoF with breathing difficulty
Less Lethal (TASER, 40mm, OC)
Greater than type 1 and
   Pregnant
   Pre-adolescent
   Elderly
   Frail / disabled
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

When are canine prohibited?

A

Admin warrants / DOC warrants
Impaired or crisis absent listed offenses
Demo management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Stationary Tire Deflation force matrix:

A
No contact:  de minimis
Contact with stationary veh, Type 1
Injury, Type 2
Bad injury, Type 3
Motorcycle, Deadly Force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the preferred 40 mm target?

A

Buttocks, Thigh, Calf, Large muscles.

Avoid head, neck, genitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Who maintains the OC supply?

A

QM overall
Stationmasters: MK3, 4, 9
Ops LT: MK 21, 46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What type 2 injuries should FIT screen?

A

Minor joint dislocation

Tooth injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

When may a sergeant request a higher level of force investigation?

A
Factors:
Resistance (fight)
Handcuffed
Vulnerable
Bad information
Policy / Law
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How long does the fit captain have to present an investigation to a/chief of professional standards bureau?

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How is a type 2 investigation routed?

A

SGT, Admin LT, LT
Captain
FRU
FRB, if necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What kinds of type 2 get referred to FRB?

A
Serious Policy Violations
FIT screenings for type 3
Less Lethal
Canine
Crowd Management
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Who is on the FRB?

A
1 Training
3 Patrol
1 APRS
1 Investigation
1 from anywhere else
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is required of FRB members?

A

18 month term

8 hours of training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Who is the FRB chair?

A

Force Review Captain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is eligible for a 60 day expedited summary review (FIT)?

A

Firearm Discharge / No cause for concern for public safety

Discharge at an animal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What additional voting members are added to FRB during crowd control events?

A

LT or Captain chosen by A/Chief Professional Standards

82
Q

What is required officer equipment?

A
Vest
Belt
Flashlight
Handcuffs
Timepiece
Traffic Vet
Hat, Bat, Gasmask
83
Q

Who decides reimbursement for non-listed damaged items?

A

Executive Director of Administration

84
Q

These units get a gear reimbursement:

A

SWAT / K9 / ACT
HARBOR, Mounted, traffic
Bikes

85
Q

You have to surrender your firearm if you fail to do this?

A

Fail to qualify within the 60 day remedial training windows

86
Q

Who is on the FQRB?

A

Chair appointed by chief.
Guild Rep
ETS Rep

87
Q

When will the FQRB meet?

A

within 14 days of an appeal request

88
Q

Who do you appeal to if you fail a 2nd qual with PSP / PRP?

A

Your own Bureau Chief

89
Q

WHo maintains holding cell / security video?

A

ITD

90
Q

When may holding cell video be reviewed, in general?

A

Criminal Investigation,
Dept Investigation,
OPA, complaints,
EIS, civil claims

91
Q

Can a supervisor review holding cell videos to monitor officer performance?

A

Only when articulable and approved by captain.

92
Q

What must be completed prior to placing a detainee into a holding cell?

A

Inventory search

Inspect holding cell

93
Q

A juvenile cannot be detained in a holding cell for over _ hours.

A

6

94
Q

This information must be passed on to the next agency if transferring a prisoner:

A

If they are at risk for sexual assault.

95
Q

How long does the admin retain detainee log sheets?

A

2 years plus current year

96
Q

What crimes require guards, unless a Watch LT determines otherwise?

A

Felony, Felony Warrant, Repeat DUI, DV

97
Q

When is marijuana submitted as evidence?

A

Quantity over 1 ounce
16 ounce infused product
72 ounces liquid

98
Q

Who determines staffing?

A

Watch LT

99
Q

What are the database hours?

A

0700-0300

100
Q

KC IO channel list

A

02-08 - all police
06-07 - SPD
09-15 - all fire

101
Q

Criminal record releases are handled by these units:

A

Records File Unit and Data Center

102
Q

What step is taken when a criminal history record (felony, misd, charges pending) is discovered for an employee?

A

ALL: TAC Notifies WSP Information Security Officer
Felony: Denied ACCESS
Misd: SPD Decides to limit ACCESS
Pending: nobody knows

103
Q

Who the Captain of Compliance notify when their audits find ACCESS violations?

A

COO, Employee, Supervisor

104
Q

When are directives issued?

A

3rd Wednesday, monthly

105
Q

How long are directives in effect?

A

Current year plus 1

106
Q

Who handles records requests from other city departments, other LEA, and insurance companies?

A

Crime Records Unit

107
Q

Who generally handles records requests for reports, clearance letters, administrative criminal background checks?

A

Public Request Unit

108
Q

Who generally is responsible for PDR?

A

Legal Unit

109
Q

How are original letters formatted?

A

Dept Stationary, Block Text, Mixed punctuation

110
Q

Does a SGT need to go to a collision that occurs outside the city?

A

No, if approved by LT

Damage is minor

111
Q

What constitutes an emergency response?

A

Police Vehicle

Substantially outside normal traffic pattern

112
Q

Pursuits are ok for these crimes

A

Violent Offense / Sex Offense
AND
PC of imminent threat
Escape is worse than the danger posed by the pursuit

113
Q

What happens when eluding ends in collision, regardless of pursuit?

A

SGT responds
Blue Team still required
TCIS / Patrol Chief notified

114
Q

Who authorizes overnight use of vehicles?

A

Captain for up to 30 days
LT can temp authorize
Over 30 days? Tell the COO

115
Q

Who can issue a mobilization alert?

A

Lieutenant

116
Q

Does a mobilization alert change patrol operation?

A

Yes, limit on views, priority calls.

117
Q

Serious Incident Plan, in summary

A

Officer: Arrive, make safe, give aid, investigate.
SGT: Request follow up, secure scene.
LT: Take over. Media. Priority calls.

118
Q

Officer Injury / Fatality, in summary

A
Officer: Broadcast, Aid, Perimeter
SGT1:  Perimeter, Req follow up, ensure notification to family
SGT2:  Hospital
LT:  Media control, priority calls
Commander:  Dept notifications
119
Q

These units are always TF regardless of duty day:

A
ACT/CPT
SWAT
K9
Traffic
Wagons
120
Q

Who has the authority to direct less lethal at crowd events absent exigent circumstances?

A

Incident commander

121
Q

How is an AAR conducted on a multi-day event?

A

Post Event Briefing Forms

Chief Designee writes AAR

122
Q

These crimes are not eligible for CBO:

A
DUI / traffic 
Felonies / follow up
Prostitution / Sexual Exploitation
Juveniles
Retail Theft
123
Q

Sergeant screen with homicide when:

A
Homicide / Serious assault
Suspicious, abuse, neglect
Under 18, including suicides
On duty police
Found bones
Industrial accident
124
Q

Who is notified for fire deaths?

A

ABS

125
Q

When should SAU be called out?

A
Stranger rape with scene
serious injury rape
Custody rapes (kcj, day care, etc)
126
Q

How much money seized for a narcotics callout?

A

10k

127
Q

Who/what determines jurisdiction in custodial interference

A

Child legal residence

KCPAO final say

128
Q

Malicious harassment identifiers, misdemeanors:

A
Parents
Politics
Homeless
Age
Married
129
Q

When is an EMPA ok for a voluntary disapperance?

A

Mental Disability
Age, Health, Or adverse weather
Unable to return without assistance

130
Q

What follow up takes over for AMBER alert?

A

Homicide if stranger

DV if known

131
Q

How many days supply of medical marijuana is allowed?

A

60 days
24 ounces
15 plants

132
Q

What is the age limit for a vulnerable adult?

A

60+

133
Q

What can qualify as a vulnerable adult under 60?

A

Incapacitated
Developmentally disabled
Care from specific institutions (hospice, etc)

134
Q

Who should you report vulnerable / elder abuse to?

A

In a home: Residential Care Services (RCS)

Otherwise APS

135
Q

Consult general investigations about stolen cars in these situations:

A

Comp knows who has vehicle
Comp’s child took car
Rental car company

136
Q

What warrant bail amount will send an officer to an RTP call?

A

$750

137
Q

When should you take a child into protective custody?

A

PC child abused / neglected

CPS asks you to

138
Q

When does patrol handle animals?

A

Vicious - notify animal control
Theft
Killing of animals

139
Q

Animal control has authority over __ and __ animals

A

Injured and Impounded

140
Q

Describe the fire and emergency doors in the SR99 tunnel

A

16 doors

650 feet

141
Q

When do you submit Report of Breath/Blood test to data?

A

.08 3 of 4 tests
.02 under 21
.04 commercial vehicle
Refusal

142
Q

How long do you have to complete DUI paperwork with a booked suspect?

A

24 hours prior to court date

143
Q

Who responds to serious assaults on officers?

A

Homicide

Type 1 / Type 2 force used? FIT

144
Q

What are the notifications for an assault on officer.

A

Watch LT advises duty captain, who advises bureau chief

145
Q

What goes in a sexual assault report?

A

Penetration
ID of suspect
Forcible compulsion.

146
Q

who gets notified if an employee is arrested for DV?

A

Chief / Chief
Captain / Captain
PAU
OPA

147
Q

What is collected from an arrested SPD officer for DV?

A

Badge, Gun, ID card

148
Q

What constitutes a felony order violation?

A

Assault, Reckless Endangerment

Two Prior Convictions

149
Q

Who notifies next of kin in an employee death?

A

Watch LT

150
Q

Where do you note malfunctions to ICV / BWV?

A

CAD
Notify supervisor
ITD if problem

151
Q

This is a community / regional partnership that works the dept on crisis stuff.

A

Crisis Intervention Committee

152
Q

CFT Intercept Continuum:

A
Harmless
Indication
Urgent
Imminent
Escalating
ESCALATING
Non criminal
Services
Refer
Voluntary / case manager
ITA
DCR
DCR
Criminal
U
C
C
CSC / MHC
Arrest / MHC
Arrest
153
Q

Diversion eligibility:

A

Misd, vucsa under 3 grams
No violence no sex offense 10 years
No level 2/3 sex offenders

154
Q

Five options for a crisis misd.

A
I&R route to CRU
CSC referral
I&R request MHC
Jail with MHC
ITA, request MHC
155
Q

When is a first aid call a report?

A

Injury or illness was from a crime.
Involves City Property
CPR, AED, Naloxone

156
Q

What are the six paragraphs of an OPs order?

A

Mission / Situation
Concept / Command Control
Task Org / Coordinating Instructions

157
Q

When do you not serve a paper ticket that has been written?

A

When booked into jail.

158
Q

What pre-planning considerations should be made for hostage/barricade?

A

CCCC

Containment, Cover, Concealment, Communication

159
Q

What are often negotiable in a hostage scenario?

A

Food
Meds
Money
Media

160
Q

What is not negotiable in a hostage situation?

A

Weapons
Exchange of hostages
Transportation (usually)

161
Q

What are not negotiable, but are useful for law enforcement?

A

Relatives, Shrinks, Priests, etc

162
Q

Outer perimeter sergeant has these additional responsibilities

A
Access control, 
situation board,
roster,
event log
intel dissemination
Logistics
163
Q

When should you get a DUI officer?

A

Felony, TCIS callout, Officer Involved Collision

164
Q

STATE V PECK

A

AUTOMATIC STANDING
You can challenge search and seizure even when you have no privacy interest IF possession is element of crime and defendant in possession at time of search.

Inventory searches on stolen vehicles are a little different because you are sorting out who owns what.

Unlocked innocuous containers cool to search.
Less innocuous (purse, bag), not so much.

Justices Split

165
Q

What are the most investigated unconstitutional items?

A

UoF
Racial Bias
Unlawful Stops, Searches, Arrests
Interaction with Mental Illness

166
Q

What is the mandate of police?

A

Serve as guardians of constitution, protect rights of people

167
Q

Blacks vs Whites: Did ferguson raise important issues to be discussed?

A

B: 80% yes
W: 27% yes

168
Q

What percentage of black people had no confidence in the ferguson investigation?

A

75%

33% for whites

169
Q

Strategies to discuss race in department:

A

Begin discussion with small, diverse working group of employees and express
Define topics as starting points
Begin dialogues within profession
Engage entire community
Modify training to change culture
Introduce fair and impartial policing training

170
Q

What are the five emotional intelligent skills?

A
Self Awareness
Self Regulation
Motivation
Empathy
Social Skill
171
Q

Which leadership style may allow poor performance to go uncorrected and rarely offers advice?

A

Affiliative

172
Q

Which leadership style builds flexibility and responsibility, but may have endless meetings and feel leaderless?

A

Democratic

173
Q

EI performance indicators / results

A

87% in top 1/3 for salary bonus

Outperform revenue targets 15-20%

174
Q

What are the six factors for working climate?

A
Standards
Flexibility 
Responsibility
Rewards
Clarity
Commitment
175
Q

What is the biggest influence of company bottom lime performance?

A

Leader’s mood

176
Q

What are the social strengths and weaknesses?

A
Teamwork
Developing others
Influence others
Inspiration 
Attunement
Empathy 
Org awareness
177
Q

What did the CFS2 debt collection do to collect more debts?

A

Helped people make more money, get jobs, etc

Result: 3 years in industry, rates were 2 times better than comp

178
Q

What should be done before rolling out behavioral solution?

A

Mindset check.
Outward mindset
Think of others
Be accountable

179
Q

What can be a mobilizing factor for people / organizations?

A

Collective goals

180
Q

Outward Mindset for Individual (diagram)

A

Managers, Reports, Peers, Customers

181
Q

Outward Mindset for Organization (Diagram)

A

Owners, Workforce, Customers, Partners

182
Q

Outward Mindset Full Pathway

A

Start with the outward mindset
Don’t wait for others to change
Mobilize yourself / others toward a common goal
Allow people (and yourself) to be fully responsible
Eliminate unnecessary distinctions between yourself and others
Rethink systems and processes to turn them outward
Implement an outward mindset gameplan, even just for a few minutes a day

183
Q

What is percentage split for who pays the guild president?

A

City pays 78

Guild pays 22

184
Q

The guild pays for a leave of absence for guild duty. The city will allow this much time

A

10 consecutive days

No more than 120 total

185
Q

Can you use accrued leave for unpaid suspension?

A

7 or less days? yes you can.

8 or more? No you cant

186
Q

How long does the chief have to notify you of a hearing after a sustained finding?

A

10 days

187
Q

After the investigations file has been provided to the guild, when will the hearing day be?

A

30 days

188
Q

Who can attend the discipline hearing?

A

Officer, Lawyer, Guild Rep, Friend (dept employee)

Chief, chief
OPA, IG
HR, Attorney

189
Q

How long to send a frontline to OPA?

A

28 days

190
Q

How long to get rehired and pick up where you left off?

A

2 years

191
Q

What 4 training topics are covered every other year?

A

Diversity
EVOC
DT
New Technology

192
Q

What units can be shifted to avoid OT use?

A

ACT/CPT
SWAT/K9
Mounted, traffic, motors
Intel, gangs

193
Q

How much notice must be provided to change a shift for training?

A

7 days

194
Q

How long are you given to correct issues that could lead to performance transfer?

A

30-90 days.

195
Q

Who approves performance transfers?

A

Bureau commander, HR Director

196
Q

What is the path for challenges to performance appraisal?

A

Supervisor
Supervisor’s commander
HR Director

197
Q

Who reviews Performance Appraisal challenges if it goes to HR?

A

PAS Review board
3 guild
3 dept

198
Q

What is the incentive sick leave schedule?

A

No sick: 16 hours sick leave next year
2 sick: 12 hours sick next year
4 sick: 8 hours next year

199
Q

How to submit a discipline grievance at step 3?

A

Submit to HR director / Labor Relations

Within 30 days of city action

200
Q

Can an acting sergeant be assigned to OPA?

A

Yes, for 3 months, only for intake and assistance

201
Q

How much does long term disability pay?

A

60% of salary, max 4k per month

202
Q

What are the lateral qualifications?

A
24 months service continuous w/i 36 months
Academy grad
Civil Service Exam 80%
4 week post blea
8 week fto