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LTC-CIP > Management and Communication of the IPAC Program > Flashcards

Management and Communication of the IPAC Program Flashcards

1
Q

What are the phases of emergency preparedness?

A

-pre emergency planning: preparations for personnal and resources, emergency communication and education, training, drills, resident evac and relocation
-preparedness: outlines what should be done upon receiving an internal or external warning of emergency
-response: outlines actions administrator or disease coordinator should taken in response to emergency.
-recovery: actions that should be taken immediately after the situation.

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2
Q

what is the basis of all emergency plans in the US?

A

the incident command system (ICS)

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3
Q

what is the ICS?

A

the US Federal Emergency Management Agency (FMEA) defines the ICS as a standardized management tool for meeting the depends of small or large emergency or nonemergency situations

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4
Q

what are disaster scope types?

A
  1. pandemics
  2. bioterrorism
  3. chemical: can occur accidentally or as part of a bioterrorism event
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5
Q

describe the bioterrorism categories

A

category A: high morbidity and risk of transmissibility (anthrax)
category B: moderate morbidity and risk of transmission (Brucellosis)
category C: emerging pathogens (hantavirus)

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6
Q

when does the CMS require an IPC risk assessment?

A

annually or when plans for a change or affect the assessment results

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7
Q

describe a community wide (all hazards approach) risk assessment tool

A

FEMA’s Threat and Hazard Identification and Risk Assessment (THIRA)

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8
Q

describe a facility wide risk assessment tool that focuses solely on LTC facilities

A

The Quality Improvement Organizations (QIOs) Facility Asssessment tool (identifies what is necessary for quality patient care)

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9
Q

describe IPC program and procedure risk assessments

A

-CDC ICAR tool for LTC facilities
-APIC IPC risk assessment tool

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10
Q

define standards

A

-requirements that must be followed
-sets quantifiable measures

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11
Q

define guidelines

A

-recommendations and usually not enforced with legal penalties but can be written to comply with regulations and accrediation standards
-formed by expert consensus and current best evidence

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12
Q

what are the 3 branches of federal (national) regulations?

A
  1. legislative
  2. executive: most agencies that impact LTCFs and regulates nursing homes
  3. judicial
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13
Q

define state (provincial) regulations

A

multiple departments that parallel the functions of federal agencies (health, environment)

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14
Q

define local (municipal) regulations

A

county or city may expand upon regulation issued by a higher authority

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15
Q

describe the CDC/HICPAC recommendation categories

A

1a: strongly recommended for implementation. strongly supported by well designed studies.
1B: strongly recommended for implementation. support by some studies and strong theoretical rationale.
1C: required for implementation. Mandated by federal and/or state regulation standard.
II: suggested for implementation. supported by suggestive studies or theoretical rationale.

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16
Q

what are the CMS approved accreditation agencies?

A
  1. TJC
  2. NIOSH
  3. OSHA
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17
Q

what are some CMS responsibilities?

A

-oversees and reimburse the medicare and medicaid programs
-maintains specific requirements for an IPC program and enforce compliance with CoPs (conditions of participation) and conditions for covrages (CFCs) for their programs

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18
Q

what did the omnibus budget reconcilation act (OBRA) of 1987 mandate?

A

quality of care standards, survey and enforcement system for all CMS funded facilities

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19
Q

what are some NIOSH responsibilities?

A

-lab research on occ hazards
-tehcnical assistance and recommendations to OSHA
-decisions on PPE
-training OSH experts

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20
Q

describe fedral regulatory groups (F-tags)

A

-related to one area of the CFR
-used by the state and CMS to assess areas of compliance
-F880: IPAC
F881: ASP
F882: IP qualifications/role
F883: Influenza and pneumonia vaccines
F886: COVID-19 testing residents and staff
F887: covid immunization

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21
Q

describe CLIA (clinical laboratory improvement amendments)

A

regulates all lab testing, performed on humans except research

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22
Q

what are some FDA regulations?

A

-single use devices and reprocessing
-blood safety
-chemical germicides
-medical device act and safe medical device act

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23
Q

what responsibiltiies does the FDA have?

A

-implements, monitors, and enfiroes standards for safety, efficacy, and labeling of all drugs and biologicals for human use
-PPE, chemical germicides on medical devices, food, blood, radiological devices

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24
Q

describe SHEA (Society for healthcare epidemiology of America) contributions

A

-educational programs, develops position papers, produces scientific journal
-partner in development of two conensus documents outlining infrastructure requirements for IPC program
-reference guide: surveillance defintions and outbreaks investigation guides

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25
Q

describe some contributors of the US Department of Health and Human Services (HHS)

A

-principal agency for protecting the health of all americans
-priority goal: HAI elimination

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26
Q

describe implemenetation science

A

the scientific study of methods/strategies to promote adoption and use of evidence based interventions and practices in real-world clinical and public health settings to improve quality of care

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27
Q

adult learners are

A

-autonomous
-self directed
-need to be treated with respect
-goal orientated
-relevancy oriented
-foundation of life experiences and knowledge

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28
Q

what are some adult learning principles?

A

-adult learning framework by Malcolm knowles
-Blooms taxonomy
-three types of learning

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29
Q

describe the adult learning principles by Malcolm Knowles

A

-feel the need to learn
-learn differently than children
-learning environment is chacrterized by physical comfort, mutural respect, trust, expression, helpfullness, freedom of expression, acceptance of differences
-align their goals with the goals of the learning experience
-share the responsibility for planning and operating the learning experience
-participate actively
-relate to and makes use of their experience
-progress towards their own goals

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30
Q

describe Blooms taxonomy from lowest to highest

A
  1. remembering
  2. understanding
  3. applying
  4. analyzing
  5. evaluating
  6. creating
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31
Q

what are the 3 types of learning?

A
  1. cognitive
  2. affective
  3. physochomoter
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32
Q

what are Gasha’s teaching styes?

A

-expert
-formal authority
-demonstrator or personal model
-facilitator
-delegator

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33
Q

define competency

A

describe worker skills, knowledge, and the mindset necessary to achieve effective job performance

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34
Q

competency based educationcan be used as a basis for what?

A

can be used as a basis for assessing training needs from a didactic approach and in support of classroom and hands on learning approach

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35
Q

what is the hawthorne effect?

A

practice improves when participants are aware they are being watched

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36
Q

define a literature review

A

the process of evaluating publications with a critical lens to determine the value of the aithors conclusions

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37
Q

what is the function of research?

A

-describe current knowledge
-determine additional areas of interest to address uncertainties

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38
Q

If the researcher assgins exposures it is an ____ study; if they do not it is an ___ study

A

experimental; observational

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39
Q

what are the types of experimental studies

A

RCT (random allocation) and non randomized controlled study (no random allocation)

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40
Q

what types of observational study has no comparison group?

A

descriptive study

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41
Q

describe cross sectional studies

A

outcome and exposure happen at the same time

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42
Q

describe case control studies

A

outcome then exposure

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43
Q

describe cohort studies

A

exposure then outcome

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44
Q

what are advantages and disadvantages of descriptive studies?

A

-advan: preliminary exploring a phenomenon; quick and easy; useful in hypothesis formulation
-disadvan: no controls comparison and risk factors cannot be estimated

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45
Q

what are some advantages and disadvntages of cross sectional studies

A

-advan: affordable and quick; describe extent of exposure; invstigate prevalence changes
-disadvan: incidence cant be determined; selection bias

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46
Q

which study design is the best to use to establish efficacy of treatment or intervention?

A

RCT

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47
Q

describe case control studies

A

look for individuals with and without the outcome then compared for exposure to one or more potential risk factors

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48
Q

what are some advantages and disadvantages of case control studies

A

-advan: quicker and cheaper than cohort espeically for rare outcomes or long latency period; useful in studying multiple risk factors
-disadvan: recall bias; selection of proper controls difficult; measure exposure rate not exposure specific incidence

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49
Q

describe the basic deign of cohort studies

A

population of individuals with and without exposure to risk factors are identified and followed to compare the incidence of the outcome in each group

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50
Q

what are some advantages and disadvanages of cohort studies?

A

-advan: exposure specific incidence can be easily measured; less bias in patient selection; useful in studying outcomes with short latency period; strongest evidence for a direct causal association
-disadvan: lost to follow-up; longer expensive to conduct long incubation period post exposure; if outcome is rare and larger study size is needed outcome determination may be biased

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51
Q

what are the 2 categories of statistics?

A
  1. descriptive
  2. inferential
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52
Q

what are descriptive statistics

A

-provide numerical information about variables
-uses number to describe the characteristics of a data set

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53
Q

what are inferential statistics

A

makes an assumption about a population based on a sample or calculates the strength of the association between causes and effect.

Does not prove or disprove anything.

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54
Q

describe normal distribution

A

when the mean, median, and mode are all equal

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55
Q

which measure of central tendency determines the height of a curve?

A

mode (the most)

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56
Q

which measure of central tendency is most affected by outliers?

A

mean

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57
Q

define kurtosis

A

a measure of tailedness of distribution

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58
Q

define leptokurtic

A

tall and skinny. rapid risk and fall in cases

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59
Q

define platykurtic

A

long drawn out outbreaks

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60
Q

define skewness

A

a measure of symmetry (or asymmetry)

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61
Q

what are the types of skewness

A

-positive
-negative
-zero skew (normal)

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62
Q

when the mean and median are less than the mode, which skewness results?

A

negative or positive

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63
Q

define a confidence interval

A

the probability (confidence) that the parameter will fall between a certain value.

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64
Q

why calculate a confidence interval?

A

to compensate for the margin of error (difference between the same and the population mean) a range called the CI is calculated

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65
Q

define level of confidence

A

the certainty the researcher has that the outcome did not occur by change (usually 95%)

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66
Q

how is CI expressed?

A

as the sample mean +/- a certain value (as a value within a range)

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67
Q

which calculation describes the probability of acquiring a HAI during hospitalization

A

attack rate

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68
Q

what are the two outcomes of hypothesis testing?

A

accept or reject the null hypothesis

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69
Q

what is the null hypothesis?

A

-stated to be rejected
-intervention has no effect

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70
Q

what is the alternative hypothesis?

A

-desired result
-intervention has an affect

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71
Q

true or false. rejecting the null proves the alternative hypothesis is true

A

false

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72
Q

if chance is unlikely for the difference between the intervention and control group what would you do?

A

reject the null hypothesis

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73
Q

what is the p-value?

A

a statistical measure used to determine the likelihood that an observed outcome is the result of chance

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74
Q

a low p-value means what?

A

its good. means chance causing results is unlikely

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75
Q

what does a p-value less than <0.05 means?

A

that there is a 5% probability the rsult could have occured by chance alone

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76
Q

what is a type 1 error?

A

false positive
reject the null when it is true
concluding there is a difference when there is not

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77
Q

what is a type 2 error?

A

false negative
accpeting the null when it is falose
concluding there is no difference when there is

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78
Q

what is relative risk?

A

a measure of the strength of association used in prospective and experimental studies.

79
Q

which type of studies can RR be used for?

A

cohort

80
Q

relative risk is the probability of what?

A

developing a disease if the risk factor is present divided by the probability of developing a disease is the risk factor is not present

81
Q

what is an odds ratio?

A

the probability of having a particular risk factor if a condition or disease is present divided by the probability of having the risk factor if the disease or condition is not present

82
Q

For what types of studies is odds ratio calculated?

A

all studies with nominal data but mostly retrosecptive (case-control) and cross sectional

82
Q

define correlation (r)

A

calculates the direction and magnitude of a relationship between two variables

calculated values can range between +1 and -1

the closer r is to +1 the stronger the relationship

82
Q

what is a positive correlation?

A

when one variable increase, do does the other (i.e., longer duration of catheter=higher chance of UTI)

83
Q

what is a negative correlation)

A

when one vraiable increases, the other decreases (i.e., increased handwashing=less infections)

84
Q

what is a weak association?

A

when values are near 0

85
Q

what value is no correlation?

A

0

86
Q

describe FMEA

A

a prospective approach where teams predict failures in a process, and anticipate the consequences. A preventative approach.

87
Q

describe an RCA

A

a retrospective proces for identifying the cause of sentinel events. They avoid blame and consider humans factors and analyzes redesign for a safer system. Ishikawa (fishbone) diagrams are often used to organize the analysis.

88
Q

describe PDSA

A

quality improvement is a cyclical activity that ensures all policies and procedures have planning, implementation (D and A), and evaluation phases (s).

Evaluation (study) portion includes RCA and FMEA

89
Q

what are 3 performance indicators to achieve key outcomes?

A
  1. reproducibility
  2. leading indicators
  3. lagging indicators
90
Q

describe reproducability

A

when findings can be consistently repeated if applied to new populations (i.e., vaccines decrease illness in many populations)

91
Q

describe leading indicators

A

metrics that inform whether or not the program is performing effectively.

I.e., process measures (increased HH compliance is indicative of decreased ARO transmission)

92
Q

describe lagging indicators

A

metrics that alert to a failure in the IPAC program, the existence of a hazard

i.e. outcome measures (increased ARO diagnoses-poor hand hygiene) and hospitalizations (indicative of increased transmission of infectious agents)

93
Q

what is a culture of safety?

A

the fostering of a space where staff feel supported in reporting errors or near misses, even when committed by themselves, knowing leadership will take a non-punitive approach to reporting the incident.

94
Q

what is the key to enabling a culture of safety?

A

stratifying how errors/risks are perceived

95
Q

what are human engineering factors related to the culture of safety?

A

slips: an external failure in a plan due to reduced intentionality.
lapse: an internal failure occuring from lapse of memory

96
Q

what are some requirements for a culture of safety?

A

open door policy (no blame and shame)
cross shift/cross department communications
track changes in patient safety over time

97
Q

what does product evluation begin with?

A

evaluation of a need

98
Q

what are some examples of product and process evaluation?

A

cost benefit analysis
eficacy studies
standardization of products and processes

99
Q

what is a cost benefit asessment?

A

-determining what products are worth additional costs-
-Product Evaluation Committee is responsible for reviewing, evaluating, and selecting products for use

100
Q

describe efficacy studies

A

-cost effective for facility and resident
-decisions are data driving by leverging clinical, quality, and organizational data and including post implementation review

101
Q

describe standardization of products and processes

A

-saves resources by eliminating duplication
-standardization improves inventory control , allows efficient use of space (less products stocked), less staff training, fewer errors

102
Q

what are some leadership styles?

A

-directive leaders
-authoritative leaders
-transformational leaders
-servant leaders
-participative leaders

103
Q

what are directive leaders

A

-coercive management
-power from top
-followers delegated tasks
-collaboration not encouraged
-consistent but inflexible

104
Q

what are transformational leaders

A

-most important for ipac
-inspire being open, honest, new ideas
-feedback by empoweering staff to have a higher purpose
-aligning team with organizational needs so that changes are more likely to succeed
-higher productivity

105
Q

describe authoritative leaders

A

hierarchal with power from top
-clearly explain roles as they relate to the organizations vision
-leader leads by example
-good ideas not valued unless they come from the top

106
Q

describe servant leaders

A

-algin staff to organizations mission, vision, and values
-support HCP by being their servant so they are enabled not blocked
-fosters a culture of trust, empowerment, and equity

107
Q

describe participative leaders

A

-democratic in team consensus, compromising and collaborative
-voice given to all team members, building trust and empathy
-empty (seeking others perspectives) is essential for innovation
-needs to feel free to think independently and take risks

108
Q

what are 3 areas of professional development?

A

-continuous education
-certification
-licensure

109
Q

what is certification?

A

a standardized measure for healthcare workers to demonstrate competency required for individuals practicing IPAC

110
Q

describe licensure

A

government recognition that an individual meets the minimum requirements to practice (CNAO-RN)

111
Q

Define association

A

as one variable changes, there is a resultant change in the quantity or quality of another variable
-established via observational studies
-chance, random error, bias
-indirect or confounding

112
Q

define causation

A

evidence indicates that one factor is clearly shown to increase the probability of the occurence of a disease
-established with Hills criteria or RCT

113
Q

what is a ratio?

A

one value divded by another value (RR or OR)

114
Q

what is a proportion?

A

numerator is a subset of denominator (attack rate, %)

115
Q

what is a rate>

A

numerator is a subset of denominator for a time interval (incidence or prevalence rate)

116
Q

what does a rate measure?

A

the probability of occurence in a population of an event at a given time

117
Q

what are some measures of dispersion

A

-variance
-stanard deviation
-range

118
Q

define percentile

A

relative position of a value within a data set

119
Q

define measure

A

a valid and reliable indicator used to monitor

120
Q

define valid

A

the extent to which a measure accurately refelcts the construct it is intended to measure

121
Q

define reliable

A

the ability of the indicator to accurately and consistently identify the events it was designed to identify across multiple healthcare settings

122
Q

what are the 3 ways performance measures can be calculated

A

rate, variable, ratio

123
Q

define risk adjustment or stratification

A

a statistical process for reducing, removing, or clarifying influences of confounding factors that differ among comparison groups

mostly used for outcome measures

124
Q

what is the first thing you must determine when evaluting performance measures

A

how the data will be used

125
Q

what are some methods of determining educational needs of the learner population?

A

-interest finder surveys
-test development
-focus group discussion
-learner self assessment
-personal interviews
-job analysis and performance review
-review of internal repors
-observational studies

126
Q

define goals

A

the itnent of the circiculum which provide a diretion for planning

127
Q

define objectives

A

define learner outcomes in measureable terms and use action verbs

128
Q

what training method is used when large numbers of staff need to be educated in a short period of time?

A

train the trainer

129
Q

which learning method is used to bridge the gap between theiry and actual practice?

A

case studies

130
Q

define expert teaching style

A

ICP used their knowledge to inform learners and challenge them to be well prepared. Intimidating to learner

131
Q

define formal authority teaching style

A

ICP in charge of learners knowledge acquisition. Not concerned with relationships but focuses on content to be delivered

132
Q

define demonstrator or personal model teaching style

A

coaches, demonstrates, and encourages a more active learning style

133
Q

define facilitator teaching style

A

learner-centred, active learning encouraged. Accountability for learning is placed on the learner

134
Q

define delegator teaching style

A

ICP is a consultant and learners direct learning project

135
Q

what are characteristics of an assessment

A

-emphasis on taching process and progress
-focus on teacher or student activity
-critiques, interviews, surveys, reviews
-improve teaching and learning process
-formative

136
Q

what are characteristics of an evaluation

A

-emphasis on mastery of competency
-focus on student or techer performance
-tests, demonstrations, projects
-purpose is to assign a grade
-summative

137
Q

the gap between what HCP know and what they do can be defined as

A

positive deviance

138
Q

what is posirive deviance?

A

individuals whose uncommon behaviours enable them to find better solutions than their peers while having same access to resources. Asset-based and problem solving

139
Q

what are smart networks?

A

networks with large core of voerlapping clusters or individuals from different units within an organization

140
Q

what do members of smart networks do?

A

collaborate to eliminate barriers to IPAC and discover ways to ensure adherence

141
Q

what are 5 network maps?

A

-initial
-current
-innovation
-project
-potential

142
Q

what are the metrics by Valdis Krebs used to measure network health?

A

-awareness
-connector
-integration

143
Q

what is a formative evaluation?

A

conducting during planning of education session to provide immedaite feedback and allow changes to be made

144
Q

what is a summative evaluation?

A

-occurs after the program is completed to determine impact and effectiveness

145
Q

data gathering tools such as checklists and questionnaires are an example of what method of determining educational needs?

A

interest-finder surveys

146
Q

learning needs assessed in small groups with members assisting each other to clarify needs are an example of what method of determining educational needs?

A

focus group discussion

147
Q

learner developing a self-achievement model and comparing present situation to the standard are an example of what method of determining educational needs?

A

learner self-assessment

148
Q

what are boolean operators?

A

AND, OR, NOT

149
Q

AND

A

narrow search. finds apges with all terms used

150
Q

OR broadens search

A

finds pagges with at least one search term. connects two or more similar concepts

151
Q

NOT

A

excludes pages with the second term

152
Q

what do quotation marks do

A

return pages with exact matches

153
Q

which component of research studys places the problem in the context of past knowledge

A

literature review

154
Q

true or false. authors tend to cite views that support their own

A

true

155
Q

what does study deign depend on?

A
  1. available data or participants
  2. frequency of exposures and outcomes in the same population
  3. populations available for study
156
Q

why are cohort studies considered the gold standard?

A

because events can be recorded as they occur

157
Q

cohort data reflects what?

A

the cause-effect temporal sequence of events

158
Q

which type of study is generally used for hyptohesis generation?

A

cross sectional

159
Q

describe the Err is Human

A

-developed by the institute of Medicine in 1996 to improve nation’s healthcare quality
-focused on number of Americans who die each year because of medical errors
-6 aims of care: safety, effectiveness, patient centredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity

160
Q

describe a strategic plan and its steps

A

determines the direction an organization will go in the future and what the organization must do to reach the goal, mission, or vision.
steps: analysis of the organization, forming conclusions about what to do for issues, action planning

161
Q

what is a gap analysis?

A

a technique used to compare best with current practices and determines steps to take to move from current to desired future state

162
Q

what is an RCA and how is information collected?

A

-takes a retrospective look at adverse outcomes and determines what and why it happened and what prevention can be done.’
-collect info from documents, interviews, and field observations

163
Q

what are some RCA limitations?

A

-team must delve deep into adverse cause of problem to determine process change
-expensive, time consuming, labor intensive
-team members may requires training before participating in the rca

164
Q

True or false. Fishbone or Ishikawa diagram is used for RCA?

A

True

165
Q

describe FMEA

A

-a proactive, preventive approach to identify potential opportunities for error
-identify problems before they occur

166
Q

whych QI initiate points out what the organization should plan for, and how to use resources and guide efforts within a formal framework

A

SWOT

167
Q

what is multivoting?

A

-prioriitze a large list of topics to a final selecion for performance improvement
-team members vote, rank selection in order of priority, votes are tallied and they decide on which project they will work on
-can occur multiple times

168
Q

what are goal directed checklists?

A

-used in aviation
-follow simple steps to eliminate hazards

169
Q

describe run charts

A

-used to identify how processes change over time
-allow for mean to be determine and show changes in the mean
-demonstrate special cause variation when a steady pattern of observations falls above or below the mean in an equal pattern

170
Q

describe affinity diagrams

A

-gather large amounts of language data and creatively group the data based on lines of natural relationships
-data are usually collected from brainstorming or customer surveys

171
Q

describe pareto charts

A

-series of vertical charts arranged and sorted in descending order of height from left to right with a cumulative percent line on the y-axis
-allow team to identify where effrots produce the greateset value, plying that 80% of benefits will stem from 20% of causes

172
Q

what is the primary focus of the 6 signma and lean approach?

A

-minimize process variation which produces defects
-concentrate on precision and accuracy that leads to defect free products and services

173
Q

what strategies does the siz signma lean aproach utilize?

A

-value stream mapping
-transactional mapping
-just in time training

174
Q

six signma uses DMAIC format to create a data-driven quality strategy for improving processes. what does DMAIC stand for?

A

-define
-measure
-analyze
-improve
-control

175
Q

descibr each step of PDSA

A

P: identifying program responsibilities, gap anaylsis or process mapping
D: execute plan/implement strategies, conduct surveillance, communication, staff education
S: analysis of actions, RCA, FMEA, data display like benchmarking
A: instituting strategies and measuring the effect of the action on the project

176
Q

describe HICPAC

A

-gudiance to CDC and others on IPAC practices, sruveillance, HAIs, antmicrobial resistance
-periodically updates guidelines
-guidelines developed in collaboration with affilated professional organizations

177
Q

OSHA may enforce IPAC issues under what?

A

the Genreal Duty Clause of the Occupational Health and Safety Act

178
Q

what are 4 pricniple functions of an IPAC program?

A
  1. develop and recommended policies and procedures
  2. education HCP, patients, caregivers
  3. directl intervene to prevent transmission andinfections
  4. obtain and manage critical data include infection surveillance
179
Q

what is the difference between cost benefit and cost effectiveness?

A

effectiveness looks at the outcome of care (lives saved, diseases prevented) cost benefit looks at outcomes in terms of cost (including malpractice claims, protecting employees from injury)

180
Q

define mortality

A

a measure of the frequency of death in a population during a specified time (usually a year)

181
Q

what does crude mortality measure

A

the proportion of the population dying each year from all causes

182
Q

what does the cause specific mortality rate measure

A

mortality from a specified cause for a population

183
Q

what is the k value for crude mortality rate?

A

1,000

184
Q

what is the k value when calculating cause specific mortality rate?

A

100,000

185
Q

what is the standardized infection ratio

A

a summary measure that compares HAI rates over time among one or more groups of patients to that of a standard population

186
Q

what is the SIR formula?

A

observed number of infections/expected number of infections

187
Q

SIR is ____ specific and based on what?

A

procedure specific and based on specific patient risk factors

188
Q

how is the SIR interpreted?

A

SIR =1: rates are same as expected
SIE>1: facility rates are higher than NHSN benchmark
SIR <1: facility rates are better than the NSHN benchmark

189
Q

how can the risk ratio (relative risk) be interpreted?

A

-RR=1 no signficant assocation
RR>1: positive assocation (worse outcome)
RR<1: negative assication (protective effect)

190
Q

how can correlation values be interpreted?

A

the closer r is to +1 the stronger the relationship
a positive correlation exists when as one variable increases, so does the other (longer catheter is in place=greater UTI risk)
negative correlation is as one variable increases the other decreases
As r approaches 0, the less the association between two variables
with a value of 0 there is no correlation

191
Q

if the p value is equal to or greater than the significance level, what would you do with the null hypothesis?

A

fail to reject

LTC-CIP (9 decks)

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