Male Genitourinary tract Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key three zones of the prostate gland?

A

Peripheral zone - 70%
Transition zone -5%
Central zone - 25% - around ejaculatory duct

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2
Q

What region of the prostate gland enlarges the most with age?

A

Transitional zone (BPHP)

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3
Q

Which region of the prostate gland is most commonly affected in cancer?

A

Peripheral zone

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4
Q

What is the key function of the postate function?

A

Male male repoductive
Role in seminal fluid production - 30 weeks
If a fibro-muscular stroma around the prostate for muscular contraction during ejecaulation
Stoma contains emissions of seminal fluid prior to ejaculation

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5
Q

What drives the response of the prosatate?

A

Testosterone crosses the cell membrane and is reduced by 5-alpha reductase to DHT.
DHT is more potent -> binds to androgen receptors (which displaces from HSP).
(Note testosterone can also bind directly but is less potent)
Dimerises and phosphorylates-> acts as transcription factor on androgen response element
Leads to increased prostate growth, survival and inc PSA.

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6
Q

Androgen receptor is a major therapeutic target in what prostate diseases?

A

BPH
Prostate Cancer

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7
Q

What are the key parts of the androgen receptor?

A

N-terminal domain - contains Activator of function domain (regulated by other proteins to reg transcription)
DNA binding domain
Ligand binding domain

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8
Q

What is the function of the 5-alpha reductase enzyme?

A

Reduces testosterone to its more potent form DiHydro Testosterone (DHT).

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9
Q

What are the key symptoms of prostate disease?

A

Decreased urinary flow - in older men 60yrs> - inc frequency, dec stream, dec volume

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10
Q

How does prostate disease lead to decreased urinary flow?

A

Enlargement of the prostate
- compression of the intraprostatic urethra
- impaired urine flow
- increased risk or UTI
- acute retention of urine requiring urgent relief by catheterisation

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11
Q

What are the key epidemiology and morphology features of prostatisis?

A

Inflammation/infection of the prostate gland
Common
Anywhere in the gland
Morphology - Inflammatory infiltrate

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12
Q

What are the key epidemiology and morphology features of BPH?

A

75% of M over 70yrs
Occurs in the periurethral transition zone
Morphology : nodular hyperlasia of glands and stroma

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13
Q

What is the key epidemiology and morphology of prostatic carcinoma?

A

Commonest male cancer - peak 60-75
Occurs in the peripheral zone
Morphology - infiltrating adenocarcinoma

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14
Q

Where does prostatic cancer metastasise to?

A

Lymph nodes
Bone
Liver
Lung

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15
Q

What is the normal histology of the prostate gland?

A

Stroma with glands
Glands are lined by simple columnar or pseudostratified columnar epithelium
Stoma may have thick smooth muscle to aid expulsion from glands.

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16
Q

What are the histological features of prostatitis?

A

Increased size of cytoplasm of glandular cells
Increased inflammatory cells in the stroma

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17
Q

What are the histological features of BPH?

A

Increased cytoplasm of glandular cells
Overlapping of glands - without clear stroma between them.

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18
Q

How does the incidence of BPH vary with age?

A

20% in 40yrs (typically asymptomatic from autopsy)
70% in 60yrs
90% in 80yrs.
S curve increase with age

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19
Q

What is the medical treatment for BPH?

A

Finasteride
Binds to 5-alpha reductase inhibitor - prevents the conversion of testosterone to DHT
Reduces (NOT stop) activity at androgen receptors.

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20
Q

What are the surgical treatments for BHP?

A

Retroscope into urethra

TURP (trans-urethral resection of the prostate) - wire loop heated by electric current

HoLEP - Holmium Laser Enucleation of the Prostate -> new not widespread

Caution: risk of bleeding

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21
Q

What are the key risk factors for prostate cancer?

A

Age = main
Genetics - FH, particularly in 1stDR <50yrs
Rave - 3x African/Carribbean, lower is Japan/China
Diet - red meat increased, soya = protective.

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22
Q

What can PSA levels be effected by?

A

Prostate biospy
DRE
Ejaculation
BPH
Prostatitis
Intense exercise

(high risk of false positives)

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22
Q

What is the key diagnostic test of prostate cancer?

A

PSA blood test - AR regulated gene produced by prostatic ductal epithelium - normal upper limit 3-4ng/ml.

Digital rectal exam - for nodularity, enlargement, rigidity, masses.

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23
Q

What are the limitations of PSA blood test?

A

Non specific to prostate cancer
20% of patient will be missed
66% raised PSA and not prostate cancer
Some prostate cancers grow very slowly -> overdiagnoses

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24
Q

What second line investigation from positive DRE and PSA is done for suspected prostate cancer?

A

Trans rectal ultra sonography biopsy
Is very invasive -> frustrating for patients with false-positive PSA tests.

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25
Q

What scale is used to stratify prostate cancer?

A

Gleason Pattern Scale
Adding the two most typical grades to calculate the Gleason score

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26
Q

What is theWhat are the different stages of a Gleason Grade in prostate cancer?

A

1 - small unfirm glands
2 - more stroma between glands
3 - infiltartion of cells from glands at margin
4 - irregular massess of neoplastic cells with few glands
5 - lack of or occasional glands, sheets of cells

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27
Q

What are the key features of bony mets from prostate gland?

A

Direct - stromal invasion into pelvic side wall
Lymphatics - to sacral, iliac and paro-aortic
Bloods to bone (pelvis, lumboscaral femur)

Mets are osteosclerotic NOT osteonecrotic -> difficult to treat and painful

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28
Q

What are the different treatment approaches for prostate cancer?

A

Watchful waiting - may not progress, to frail for treatment, avoid side effects of drugs/surg.

29
Q

What are the surgical treatment for prostate cancer?

A

Radical Prostatectomy
Major operation - must be deemed fit for surgery
Keyhole or robot-assisted

Orchiectomy - remove testes -> reduce androgen production

30
Q

What are some potential complications of a radical prostatectomy?

A

Infertility
Erectile dysfunction
Impotence
Urinary incontinence

31
Q

What are the key chemotherapy Zoladex used in prostate cancer?

A

LRHR agonist (chemical castration) = Zoladex/Gosalerine
LRHR is released from hypothalamus -> activates PG to release LH -> targets testis to release testosterone.
Increase LRHR signs leads to desensitization to signal -> leads to suppression.
This reduces the testosterone and DHT available to bind to AR.

32
Q

How does Casodex/Bicalutamide treat prostate cancer?

A

Potent AR inhibitor -> binds to AR -> AR can move into nucleus but not longer able to activate gene expression
This leads to tumour shrinkage.
Requires 50-200mg daily

33
Q

What is the caution with the use of Casodex use in prostate cancer?

A

With long term use 2-3yrs becomes an agonist of AR -> leads to increased growth
Independent of AR cells populations develop -> become primary population as dependent cells killed off -> survival advantageous.

34
Q

How does the androgen receptor become Casodex resistant?

A

Promiscus /outlaw - Ligand binding domain mutation
Allows other hormoens to bind to AR - multiple potential agonists (oestrogens, progesterone, glucocorticoids and casodex)
Mutations - T877A

Hypersensitivity - increased number of androgen receptors.

35
Q

What treatment is used for replases of prostate cancer?

A

Taxanes/Docetaxal -> targets cell division nad microtubules
Common in combination with prednisolone for relief of bone pain, inflammation and nausea.

36
Q

What are the next generation antiandrogens? (Enzalutamide)

A

Reserved for patients with mestastasis, CRPC disease.
Inc survival 4 months
Stops testosterone binding to andorgen receptor, also stop migration into the nucleus.
Still some resistance

37
Q

How does Abiraterone Acetate (zytiga) treat prostate cancer?

A

Prevents testosterone biosynthesis
Inhibits CYP17 -> prevents conversion of progestens to andorgens
However can lead to mineralocorticoid excess, decrease cortisol hence high ACTH
Must be treated with prednisolone/dexamethasone to lower ACTH

38
Q

What is the site of sperm production?

A

Seminferous tubules in the testes
Spermatagonia -> along the basement membrane of the germinal epithelium.
Supported by sertoli cells and leydig cells.

39
Q

What is the function of sertoli cells?

A

Epithelial supporting cells of the seminiferous tubules
Are tall simple columnar, from BM to lumen
Surround germ cells -> provide nutrients, and phagocytose excess cytoplasm

40
Q

What is the function og leydig cells?

A

Support spermatogenesis in the testes
Local production of testosterone in response to LH

41
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Development lesion -> undescended testicles seen in 5% newborn.
Small seminiferous tubules as high temp = low sperm = replaced by sertoli cells = inc cancer risk
Usually resolve or surgical descend pre puberty

42
Q

What is the key pathology of hydrocele?

A

Intrascrotal swelling of serous fluid in tunica vaginalis

Acute -rapid production due to damage/infection and inflammation
Congenital
Secondary inflammation - infection, underlying testis or epididymis lesion, tumours

43
Q

What is a haematocele?

A

Intrscrotal haemorrhage in the tunica vaginalis
Cause - trauma, neoplasm
Minor - anti-inflams, antibiotics, ice pack
Major - emergency surgery

44
Q

What is a variocele?

A

Enlargement of blood vessels to the testes (more common in left)
1 in 7 men
Primary -> no underlying cause
Secondary -> venous obstruction such as kidney tumour causing back pressure
Risk - may raised intrascrotal temp causing subfertility

45
Q

What is orchitis?

A

Inflammation of the testes

46
Q

What is mumps orchitis?

A

Acute infection (paramyoxivirus) in children
Adults
Vascular dilation and oedema with lymphocyte infiltrate
Risk of ischaemia and necrosis of seminiferous tubules
Rare = sub fertility

47
Q

What is idiopathic granulomatous orchitis?

A

Chronic of unknown cause
Firm testicular enlargement
Managed with pain relief

48
Q

What is STI orchitis?

A

Syphyllis - treponema pallidum (rare)
Gonorrhea, chlamydia
Causes inflammation of the testis.

49
Q

What are the key features of a testicular torsion?

A

Most common in males under 25yrs
Twisting of cord cuts off blood supply and prevents venous drainage
Medical emergency - 6hrs to save the testicle.
Can be sudden without trauma.

50
Q

What are the common causes of testicular atrophy?

A

Progressive atherosclerotic narrowin of blood supply in old age
End stage orchitis
Cryptorchidism
Hypopituitarism
Malnurihsed
Irridiation
Prolonged administration of anti-androgens
Alcoholism
Kleinfelter syndrome

51
Q

What is the epidemiology of testicular tumours?

A

Most common cancer in young men
Highly treatable if detected early

52
Q

What are the different classifications of testicular tumours?

A
  1. Germ cell tumours
  2. Sex cord-stromal tumours
53
Q

What are the different types of germ cell tumours in the testes?

A

Seminomatous tumours - (spermatocytic) seminoma - more immature cells

Non-seminamatous - embryonal, yolk sac, choriocarcinoma, teratoma - more mature cells, further differentiated into sperm

54
Q

What are the different types of sex cord stromal tumours?

A

Leydig cell tumours
Sertoli cell tumour

55
Q

What are the main risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

Undescended tests
Kleinfelter syndrome (XXY)
Genetic - FH and polymorphism Xq27
Race - caucasian
Enviro -

56
Q

What are the key symptoms of testicular cancer?

A

Painless unilateral enlargement of the testis
Secondary hydrocele
Symptoms from mets (bone and lungs)
Retroperitoneal mass
Gynaecomastia

57
Q

What are the locations of the testicular tumours?

58
Q

What are the key features of a seminoma?

A

Most common germ cell tumour
Peak 30-50yrs
Enlarged tests - Homogenous white solid tumour replaces testes mass
10% secrete hCG
25% c-KIT activating mutation

59
Q

What are the histological features of a seminoma of the testes?

A

Large neoplastic cells
Vacuolated cytoplasm
Stroma has variable lymphocytic infiltrate
Positive cor c-KIT expression

60
Q

What are the key features of an embryonal carcinoma?

A

Most common in 20-30yrs
Very aggressice
Pleomorphic epithelial cells
Hyperchromatic nuclei
Necrosis is very common
Very pluripotent in nature - can de-differentiation
Stain positive for Oct4
Negative for c-KIT expression

61
Q

What are the features of yolk sac tumour?

A

Most common testicular tumour in infants and child up to 3yrs
Painless
Low risk of metastases
Responds very well to chemotherapy

62
Q

What are the features of teratomas?

A

Group of complex testicular tumours with various cellular and organoid components from more than one germ layer.
Infants and children ->2nd most common
Rare in adults.

63
Q

What is the pathology of a teratoma?

A

Epithelial lined cystic structures
Glands, cartilage, muscle, immature strome
gut, muscle like etc
Lots of different cell differentiations lines

Gross - cystic and haemorrhagic

64
Q

What are the features of mixed testicular tumors?
Common types

A

60% are moxed
Teratoma and embryonal
Yolk sac, seminoma, embryonal
Embryonal with teratoma
Prognosis based on most progressive

65
Q

What are the key features of Leydig tumours?

A

Produce androgens and oestrogens
20-60yrs
Benign - 10% invasive

66
Q

What are the key features of sertoli tumour?

A

Hormonally silent
Small nodules
10% are invasive most are benign

67
Q

What are the different stages of testicular cancer?

A

Stage 1 - in testes only
Stage 1s - raised markers in blood after surgery
Stage 2 - spread to nearby lymph or pelvis
Stage 3 - spread to lymph nodes or other organs

68
Q

What is the key treatment for tesitcular cancer?

A

Surgical removal of testicle
Seminomas - + single chome and short radio
Non-seminomous - follow up, short chemo
Stage2/3 - 3/4 chemo and surg for mets

69
Q

What is the typical chemotherapy regime used for testicular cancer?

A

IV central line at day clinic
Bleomycin
Bleomycin, Etoposide, Cisplatin (BEP)