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[1b] a- step 3 > ✅MAIN > Flashcards

✅MAIN Flashcards

1
Q

what is Length-Time Bias

A

[progressive benign] disease cases have LONGER lifetime duration -> they are more likely to be detected incidentally by a screening xm -> artificially inflates the “detection success” of that screening xm

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2
Q

what is the Hawthorne effect

A

when pts modify their behavior just because they know they’re being studied

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3
Q

what is lead time bias

A

occurs when, even though [pt Test A] and [pt Test B] both die 5 years after the same disease..

bc [pt Test A] test diagnosed their dz 2yrs earlier…it’ll SEEM like [pt Test A] had longer survival time when actually they’re both only 5 years

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4
Q

what is Observer bias

A

when Observers (researchers) subconsciously (or conciously :-( ) manipulate the study b/c of preconceived notions

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5
Q

what is sampling bias?

A

sampling pts in a NON-random manner -> lky to exclude certain members of the target population than others

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6
Q

how do you mitigate Observer bias

A

Blinding

(Observer bias = Observer [researcher] alters elements of the study (like over reporting a dz) either consciously or subconsciously)

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7
Q

Active TB is transmitted up to ___ months before sx even start

what’s the Mgmt for for ppl exposed to Active TB?- 2

A

3

  1. 1 of 2 [tuberculin skin or interferon gamma] screening

if #1 is…

2A.#1 NEGATIVE = 2 of 2 [tuberculin skin or interferon gamma] screening 8-10 wks later

2B. #1 POSITIVE = CXR + [acid fast sputum testing]–> if BOTH negative –> [latent ( -IP- ) TB tx], othw [ACTIVE (RIPE) TB tx]

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8
Q

Dx Celiac Disease- 3

A
  1. SMALL INTESTINAL BX = gold standard
  2. Anti-Endomysial Ab
  3. Anti-Tissue Transglutaminase Ab
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9
Q

Triad for Disseminated Gonococcal infection

A

STD

  1. Several migratory arthralgias
  2. Tenosynovitis pain along tendon sheaths
  3. Dermatitis pustular rash

pts may NOT have urinary or pelvic sx with Disseminated Gonococcal infection!

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10
Q

Describe Serology for Hepatitis B -7

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

  • unvaccinated pts acutely exposed to Hep should STILL get vaccinated in addition to the immunoglobulin*
  • CSAB = RESOLVED HEP B INFECTION*
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11
Q

Tx for Neurosyphillis

(drug) (route) x (duration)

A

PCN IV x 10-14 days

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12
Q

How do you know when a pt is fully cured from Syphilis?

A

Must be [4-fold FTA titer DEC] by 12 month mark

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13
Q

Name the specific signs of congenital syphilis - 3

A
  1. Rhinorrhea
  2. Maculopapular rash ofo the palms and soles that dequamates or becomes bullous
  3. Abnormal long bone xrays (i.e. metaphyseal lucency)
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14
Q

Describe the type of rash you’ll see with secondary syphilis

A

Diffuse Maculopapular rash starting at trunk and spreading to extremities TO INCLUDE PALMS AND SOLES

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15
Q

PCN IM is the first line tx for Syphilis.

The alternative tx to Syphilis is ____. When is it indicated to desensitize and still give PCN?-3

A
  1. Pregnancy (No DOXY for POXY)
  2. 3° CNS syphilis
  3. refractory to initial tx
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16
Q

Why is RPR not reliable when on a person first develops syphilis?

A

There is a possible false negative result early in infection - follow with FTA

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17
Q

What is the Jarisch Herxheimer Rxn?

A

acute fever right after starting syphilis tx

48H

NO TX FOR THIS!

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18
Q

what are the indications for giving Abx to pts with Anal Abscess? - 4

A
  1. Cellulitis extensively
  2. Immunosuppression (DM, HIV, CA)
  3. Valvular Heart Disease
    * 50% of Anal Abscesses –> Fistula!! Tx = I & D that mofo!*
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19
Q

List Main differences between Esophageal SQC and ADC :

  • Location
  • What each are associated with
A

[SQC = UPPER esophagus = Tobacco , EtOH]

[ADC = lower esophagus = GERD/Barrett’s]

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20
Q

What is the TRIAD PRIORITY for managing [Brain-Dead Organ Donors] ?

A

MUST MAINTAIN NORMAL PET w IVF / Desmopressin

Pressure

Euvolemia

Temperature (or mild hypothermia)

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21
Q

Prognosis for Rabies

A

VERY POOR ONCE HAPPY SX START! = Die within weeks

Remember! Post-Exposure Px IgG and Vaccine are ONLY HELP TO PREVENT ONSET OF SX. Once HAPPY sx starts….it’s Over

HAPPY RABIE = Sx of Rabies

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22
Q

Sx of Rabies - 5

A

HAPPY RABIE = Sx of Rabies

HYDROPHOBIA (fear of water triggering Pharyngeal spasms) = PATHOGNOMONIC FOR RABIES!

Aerophobia

Pharyngeal spasms

[Paralysis (Spastic –> Ascending flaccid)] -> respiratory failure within wks

Yankin’ Agitation

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23
Q

What Lipase level is c/f Acute Pancreatitis in kids?

A

GOE 7 x upper limit of nl for that age group

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24
Q

What Lipase level is c/f Acute Pancreatitis in Adults?

A

GOE 1,000

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25
Q

Name the most effective predictors of SEVERE Acute Pancreatitis - 5

A

HOBCO hurt the Pancreao

  1. Hematocrit > 44%
  2. Obesity
  3. BUN GOE 20
  4. older age
  5. obesity
  6. CRP > 150
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26
Q

Serum Sickness is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

3

Antibodies+ Antigens –> Compliment activation

(Ab bind to antigens -> Compliment activation -> fever, polyarthritis, Dermatitis)

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27
Q

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

2

Autoantibodies directed against the host cells

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28
Q

Contact Dermatitis is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

4

[T-CELL-mediated hypersensitivity] rxn

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29
Q

Anaphylaxis is a Type __ reaction

Describe the reaction

A

1

[IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity] rxn

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30
Q

pts with Recurrent PNA should make you think of ______ as the cause

A

Endobronchial Obstruction

Bronchogenic Carcinoma, Carcinoid Tumor

GOLD STANDARD DX = FLEX BRONCHOSCOPY

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31
Q

7 common causes of Dilated Cardiomyopathy

A

“the PIG PAID for Dilated Cardiomyopathy”

  1. Post Viral Myocarditis (Coxsackie B)
  2. Alcohol related (direct toxicity vs. nutritional deficiency)
  3. [Doxorubicin & Daunarubicin Chemo] (dose-dependent)
  4. Peripartum (late in pregnancy vs 5 mo. post partum)
  5. Genetic (affects cytoskeleton)
  6. Iron Overload: [Hereditary Hemochromatosis] or [Multiple Blood Transfusion Hemosiderosis] = Iron accumulates and interferes with metal-dependent enzyme system in myocytes
  7. Idiopathic
    * DILATED IS MOST COMMON CARDIOMYOPATHY and CAN BE ACUTE*
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32
Q

List the common causes of Restrictive Cardiomyopathy - 8

A

RAMILIES

  1. Radiation Fibrosis (includes coronaries and valves)
  2. Amyloidosis (heterogenous misfolded proteins)
  3. Sarcoidosis= [Noncaseating granuloma formation] in multiple organs 2º to [CD4 Helper T] attack on unidentified antigen
  4. Metastatic Tumor
  5. Inborn metabolism errors
  6. Endomyocardial fibrosis= Common in [African/Tropic children]
  7. [Loeffler Endomyocardial fibrosis] = (Has [Peripheral blood eosinophilia and infiltrate])
  8. Idiopathic
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33
Q

Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis dx- 3

A

Peritoneal fluid with:

  1. [Peritoneal Neutrophils GOE 250]
  2. [Peritoneal Protein < 1]
  3. [SAALG GOE 1.1]

mgt = IMMEDIATE EMPIRIC ABX + IV ALBUMIN

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34
Q

How do you prognosticate advanced Liver disease?

A

MELD “B SIC” score (90-day survival) based on BSIC!

Bilirubin

Sodium

INR

Creatinine

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35
Q

What size is concerning for a skin lesion?

How is an excisional biopsy done?

A

GOE 6 mm

Excise ENTIRE SKIN LESION with 1-3 mm margins of surrounding fat

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36
Q

Optimal BG range while pts are in the hospital?

A

140-180

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37
Q

How do you determine Tetanus Mgmt? - 3

A

WTF, Tetanus!

  1. Wound simple or Complex?
  2. TOTAL tetanus vaccine Lifetime [unknown/LOE 3]?
  3. Final/LAST one [>10y] vs [>5y] ago?
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38
Q

Lichen Planus is associated with what infectious disease?

A

Advanced Liver Disease 2/2 Hep C

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39
Q

T or F

It is NEVER acceptable to allow industry-sponsored programs to influence lecture content

A

TRUE

Physicians have to retain FULL CONTROL over psntn content

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40
Q

Dengue Fever Sx- 4

A
  1. Break Bone Fever
  2. [Thrombocytopenia w POSITIVE TOURNIQUET TEST]
  3. RetroOrbital Pain
  4. Rash
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41
Q

what are the hallmarks of Splenic Vein Thrombosis? - 2

A
  1. [isolated stomach fundal varices] -> variceal hematemesis
  2. [splenomegaly] -> anemia/thrombocytopenia

Splenic Vein Thrombosis is commonly a/w pancreatitis

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42
Q

What supplements will pts s/p RYGB (Gastric bypass Surgery) require? - 6

A

[B-1, 9, 12]

Calcium

D3 vitamin

Fe

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43
Q

Classic Sx of Sarcoidosis-8

A

CCUBBEDD

Cardiac (Restrictive Cardiomyopathy)

HYPERCalcemia

Uveitis –> Vision loss

Bilateral Hilar LAD!

Bell’s Palsy

Erythema Nodosum (SubQ Fat lesions)

[Dry cough & Dyspnea]

Diffuse interstitial fibrosis

  • elevated ACE and 1-25VitD production –> HYPERCalcemia and HYPERCalciuria*
  • Image showing b/l Hilar LAD*
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44
Q

Sarcoidosis Etx-2 (Etiology)

A

[CD4 Helper T] inappropriately respond to environmental triggers + Suppressed TRegs –> Non-Caseating Granulomas in Lung

Image showing b/l Hilar LAD

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45
Q

Sarcoidosis Tx-4

A

“Sarcoidosis is a SCAM”

Steroids

Cyclosporine

Azathioprine

MTX

Image showing b/l Hilar LAD

46
Q

Name the conditions associated with Granulomas - 6

A
  1. TB
  2. Tertiary syphillis gummas
  3. Blastomycosis
  4. Histoplasma
  5. Sarcoidosis
  6. Churg Strauss Eosinophilic Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis
47
Q

Describe Serology for Hepatitis B -7

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

  • unvaccinated pts acutely exposed to Hep should STILL get vaccinated in addition to the immunoglobulin*
  • CSAB = RESOLVED HEP B INFECTION*
48
Q

What 2 laboratory values are the best diagnostic test for Hepatitis B?

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

[SAg and CoreIgM]

49
Q

Mgmt for Hepatits B- 2

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

  1. OUTPATIENT FOLLOW UP! (most HepB resolves spontaneously)
  2. Admit IF SERIOUS DECOMPENSATION ONLY
50
Q

What 2 laboratory values are the best diagnostic test for Hepatitis B?

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

[SAg and CoreIgM]

51
Q

Describe Serology for Hepatitis B -7

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

  • unvaccinated pts acutely exposed to Hep should STILL get vaccinated in addition to the immunoglobulin*
  • CSAB = RESOLVED HEP B INFECTION*
52
Q

Hepatitis B can develop into Chronic HepB infection depending on ___

What % adults actually develop Chronic Hep infection?

A

S - SEC - SCEb - Core - CEbSAb - CSAB - SAb

< 5%

CSAB = RESOLVED HEP B INFECTION

53
Q

Which infectious disease is associated with cervical and vaginal punctate hemorrhages?

A

Trichomoniasis

54
Q

Trichomoniasis Tx

A

Metronidazole 2 grams PO x 1

55
Q

What is Confounding Bias?

A

a Confounding variable skews the assocation between the exposure and the outcome

(Randomization helps to remove confounding variables)

56
Q

What is Effect Modification?

A

Effect Modifying variable changes the magnitude or direction of the Effect the independent variable has on the dependent variable

57
Q

Why is Succinylcholine contraindicated in pts with burns, myopathies, crush injuries or denervating Dz

A

Can cause SIGNIFICANT K+ RELEASE –> VFIB in pts at high risk for Hyperkalemia

58
Q

Recall the [2 x 2 Test vs. Disease] diagram

A
59
Q

How many ATP are yielded in Aerobic vs. AnAerobic metabolism?

A

Aerobic = 32

AnAerobic = [2 + Lactate]

60
Q

Define [p-value] and its relation to Null hypothesis

A

[p-value] = Chance that study results happened randomly

[p-value] < 0.05 means you can Reject Null hypothesis since it means there’s lil chance the results happened randomly

61
Q

Why is Succinylcholine contraindicated in pts with burns, myopathies, crush injuries or denervating Dz

A

Can cause SIGNIFICANT K+ RELEASE –> VFIB in pts at high risk for Hyperkalemia

62
Q

Sensitivity

Formula(2) & meaning

A
63
Q

What is the Formula for Negative Likelihood Ratio?

Are Positive/ Negative Likelihood Ratios dependent or indepedent of a disease’s prevalence?

A

N = (1-N) / P

“Number 1 Nigga, Positivity”….

Positive LR = seNsitivity / (1 - sPecificity)

Negative LR = (1 - seNsitivity) / P

INDEPEDENT

64
Q

What is the Formula for Positive Likelihood Ratio?

Are Positive/ Negative Likelihood Ratios dependent or indepedent of a disease’s prevalence?

A

P = N / (1-P)

“Number 1 Nigga, Positivity” ….. “Positivity… Number 1 Plan”.
Negative LR = (1 - seNsitivity) / P

Positive LR = seNsitivity / (1 - sPecificity)

INDEPEDENT

65
Q

What is the Formula for Positive Likelihood Ratio?

Are Positive/ Negative Likelihood Ratios dependent or indepedent of a disease’s prevalence?

A

P = N / (1-P)

“Number 1 Nigga, Positivity” ….. “Positivity… Number 1 Plan”.
Negative LR = (1 - seNsitivity) / P

Positive LR = seNsitivity / (1 - sPecificity)

INDEPEDENT

66
Q

What is the Formula for Specificity?- 2

Definition?

A
67
Q

Criteria for Recurrent Pregnancy Loss

A

GOE 3 consecutive spontaneous abortions

68
Q

Major causes of Rhabdomyolysis - 4

A
  1. Immobilization prolonged (direct damage)
  2. Cocaine (direct damage)
  3. Physical restraints
  4. Dehydration

Muscle breakdown –> ⬆︎CPK, ⬆︎K, ⬆︎myoglobin(which causes renal damage when filtered)

69
Q

Why does compartment syndrome cause kidney damage?

A

compartment syndrome –> myoglobin release –> [myoglobin heme] is nephrotoxic

70
Q

Compartment Syndrome Dx- 2

A
  1. [Direct Pressure > 30]
  2. [delta pressure < 20-30] (diastolic BP - compartment pressure]
71
Q

When should PEP (Post Exposure Px) for incidental HIV exposure began? ; What regimen should be given? ; for how long?

A

WITHIN 72 HOURS

Triple drug regimen

28 days long!

72
Q

of weeks given for a trial of SSRI?

A

6

73
Q

An Employer hands you a signed “release of information” for a pt.

How does this affect HIPPA?

A

If given written authorization, HIPPA allows MDs to give the minimum necessary information to satisfy the employer’s request

74
Q

Dx for [avascular necrosis osteochondritis dissecans]

A

MRI

75
Q

causes of [avascular necrosis osteochondritis dissecans]- 12

A
  1. CORTICOSTEROIDS
  2. ETOH
  3. SLE
  4. Sickle Cell Disease
  5. Antiphospholipid Ab Syndrome
  6. CKD
  7. HD
  8. Trauma
  9. HIV
  10. Gaucher’s
  11. Caisson’s
  12. Renal Transplant

MRI = most sensitive dx

76
Q

Criteria for having [Decision Making Capacity]? - 4

A

Pts with [Decision Making Capacity] have to pass the LIAR test

  1. Lists Decision CLEARLY
  2. Information about Decision is understood
  3. Appreciates consequences of Decision
  4. Rationale for Decision given
77
Q

Criteria for giving out Pt medical information? - 3

A

Pt must… PDA

1st: Present (or otherwise available prior to disclosure)
2nd: Decision Making Capacity (LIAR)
3rd: Agrees to disclose information

78
Q

In PostOp Hypoxemia, how do you tell the difference between Atelectasis and Residual Anesthetic Effect?

A

Atelectasis = POD 2-5

[Residual Anesthetic Effect] (DEC central resp drive)can occur immediately

79
Q

List the main causes of hypoxemia in PostOp?- 6

A
80
Q

Why do pts with High Risk Cardiovascular conditions (i.e. valvular problems) MUST receive abx specifically against_____?

A

Enterococci (ampicillin, vancomycin)

high risk CV pts are at greater risk for infectious endocarditis 2/2 GU/GI infxn.

IF THEY ACTUALLY HAVE GI/GU INFXN, GIVE PX ABX prior to GU/GI procedure

81
Q

What is Amarousis Fugax?

A

Sudden Transient Monocular Blindness

82
Q

Which part of the Esophagus is [Esophageal SQC] located?

A

UPPER

a/w SMOKING AND EtOH

83
Q

Which part of the Esophagus is [Esophageal ADC] located?

A

LOWER

a/w Barrett’s and GERD

84
Q

1st line tx for ADHD in

[PreSchool 3-5 y/o]

[EE GOE 6 y/o]

A

[PreSchool 3-5 y/o] = CBT first!

[EE GOE 6 y/o] = Rx

85
Q

When is it appropriate to trial a different rx for ADHD? - 2

A
  1. [Continued Side Effects] after 4 wk trial
  2. [Poor clinical response] after 4 wk trial
86
Q

which medication is given for Migraine HA px?

A

Propranolol

87
Q

which medication is given for Cluster HA px?

A

Verapamil

88
Q

Describe the Character for the HA:

Migraine

Cluster (3)

Tension (2)

A

Migraine = POUND = [Pounding/One Day-3 day Duration/Unilateral/Nausea/Disabling] + photo vs. phonophobia & [flashing dots aura]

Cluster = [Excruciating, sharp & steady] (100% O2 tx)

Tension = Dull & tight

89
Q

Describe the Duration for the HA:

Migraine

Cluster

Tension

A

Migraine = POUND = [Pounding/One-3 Day Duration /Unilateral/Nausea/Disabling] + photo vs. phonophobia & [flashing dots aura]

Cluster = 15 - 90 MINUTES (100% O2 tx)

Tension = 30 min to 7 DAYS!!!! (Tammy’s Entire Work Week)

90
Q

How are migraines associated with Pregnancy?

A

Migraines commonly start 2nd trimester of Pregnancy

But also be suspicious of [Pseudotumor Cerebrii]

91
Q

Why is it common for adolescents to have irregular and anovulatory menstruation

A

immaturity of hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis –> inadequate amounts of GnRH –> low FSH and LH –> lack of ovulation –> lack of Menses

Menses normally occurs when corpus lutem (byproduct after ovulation) produces progesterone and this progesterone drops –> Menses/shedding. No ovulation –> No menses

  • Tx = Progestin-only or Combined OCPs*
  • this self-resovles 1-4 yrs after menarche*
92
Q

How does Obesity commonly cause amenorrhea?

A

Obesity –> anovulation without affecting LH/FSH levels which–> Amenorrhea

93
Q

MOD for PCOS

A

Hyperinsulinemia and Elevated LH –> ⬆︎ Androgen release from Ovarian Theca which is converted to Estrone–> Elevated Estrone which feedbacks on the hypothalamus –> ⬇︎GnRH –> ⬇︎FSH imbalance –> failure of follicle maturation and anovulation –> No progesterone –> Endometrial CA

  • tx = weight loss and clomiphene citrate*
  • Note: if pt has high levels of sex hormone binding globulin, total testosterone may be low. so clinical dx may be necessary*
94
Q

What is Mittelschmerz?

A

Mittelschmerz = “Middle of the cycle” uL pelvic pain that occurs when blood released from rupture of follicle during ovulation irritates peritoneum

order: LH surge –> 36 hrs will pass –> Ovulation

95
Q

Benign [Pregnancy Induced Pruritus] Tx- 3

A
  1. Oatmeal baths
  2. UV light
  3. Antihistamines
96
Q

How does [Pregnancy Induced Pruritus] present?- 2

A
  1. Benign Abdominal pruritus during pregnancy
  2. NO RASH associated
97
Q

Pemphigoid Gestationis occurs during the __ or __ trimester

Dx?- 2

Tx?- 3

A

2nd OR 3rd

Clinical , Biopsy

Tx = Steroids, Antihistamines, Delivery

98
Q

Pemphigoid Gestationis occurs during the __ or __ trimester

CP- 3

A

2nd OR 3rd

[prodromal Pruritus] -> [Periumbilical papules + plaques that spare mucus membranes] -> [Bullae Eruption]

99
Q

Clinical Manifestation of Multiple Sclerosis (9)

A

Charcot classic triad of MS is a [SLUM SiiiN] !

Sensory sx (think BL Trigeminal Neuralgia)

Lhermittes sign = “electric tingling” down spine into arm & legs when chin is touched to chest

Uhthoff phenomenon (sx ⬆︎ during heat)

Motor sx

Scanning Speech

[Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia (MIOS)] / Intention Tremor / Incontinence

Neuritis Optic - (uL eye pain + vision loss + Marcus Gunn afferent pupillary defect) = ALSO RISK FACTOR

100
Q

Dx for Multiple Sclerosis - 5

A
  1. Clinical (SLUM SiiiN)
  2. T2 MRI: [Periventricular white matter demyelinating plaques with lipid laden macrophages]
  3. T1 MRI Black holes
  4. CSF Oligoclonal IgG bands
  5. Visual conduction velocity test

Sx will be disseminated in time and space

101
Q

Which drugs are used to treat Multiple Sclerosis maintenance?-3

A

Maintenance:

1. [β-interferon]

2. [Glatiramer acetate]

  1. Natalizumab

1st: High Dose IV Methylprednisolone = Exacerbation

2nd: (Refractory): Plasmapharesis

102
Q

Which drugs are used to treat Multiple Sclerosis Exacerbation?-2 ;

Which are used for maintenance?-3

A

1st: High Dose IV Methylprednisolone

2nd: (Refractory): Plasmapharesis

Maintenance:

  1. β-interferon
  2. Glatiramer acetate
  3. Natalizumab
103
Q

Why are Multiple Sclerosis pts at risk for BL Trigeminal Neuralgia

A

Demyelination may occur at Trigeminal nucleus –> BILATERAL neuralgia

Sx will be disseminated in space and time

104
Q

Which 3 Neuro Diseases Cross the Corpus Callosum?

A
  1. Gliomas (AGE - i.e. Glioblastoma)
  2. Multiple Sclerosis
  3. CNS Lymphoma
105
Q

Pt has advancing foot crossing over opposite foot similar to closing scissor blades

What causes Scissors Gait?

A

UMN (Corticospinal Tract spasticity) lesions

Spasticity causes Scissors Gait

106
Q

The most common enzyme deficiency for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is ______

cp?-3

A

21 hydroxylase

  1. Virilization (acne, premature adrenarche/pubarche)
  2. Loss of Aldosterone
  3. Loss of Cortisol
107
Q

The most common enzyme deficiency for Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is ______

Which lab value is diagnostic for this deficiency?

A

21 hydroxylase

⬆︎17 HydroxyPROGESTERONE

108
Q

how long does Jarisch Herxheimer Rxn last?

A

48H

109
Q

Tx

for

Jarisch Herxheimer Rxn?

A

NO TX !

110
Q

[________white lacy lesion] is caused by Lichen Planus, and Lichen Planus is caused by ____

A

[Wickham Striae] ; [Hep C Advanced Liver Disease]

111
Q

3 Main causes of Spinal Cord Compression

A
  1. DJD Disc Herniation (Smoking risk factor)
  2. [Epidural Staph a. Abscess (think IV drug user vs DM)]
  3. Tumor (Prostate/Renal/Lung/Breast/Multiple Myeloma mets)

Dx = MRI, Positive Straight Leg, Classic S/S

DJD=Degenerative Joint Disease

112
Q

Sciatica tx ; dx?

A

“Having Sciatica makes you break LAWS”

NSAIDs + APAP = 1st line as Sciatica sx are self limited

Dx = CLINICAL (Only use MRI for confirmation of disc herniation if sensory/motor deficit, cauda equina syndrome sx or epidural abscess r/o)

[1b] a- step 3 (16 decks)

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