Macrolides, Clindamycin, Streptogramins Flashcards

1
Q

Prototype drug of macrolides

A

Erythromycin

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2
Q

Are semisynthetic derivatives of erythromycin

A

Clarithromycin and azithromycin

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3
Q

Are a group of closely related compounds characterized by a macrocyclic lactone ring (14 to 16 atoms) to which deoxy sugars are attached

A

Macrolides

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4
Q

General structure: macrolide ring and 2 sugar moieties desosamine and cladinose attached to a 14 atom lactone ring

Poorly soluble in water but dissolves readily in organic solvents

A

Erythromycin

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5
Q

Is a combination of two streptogramins - _____, a streptogramin B and _____, a streptogramin A in a 30:70 ratio

A

Quinupristin - dalfopristin

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6
Q

Shares the same ribosomal binding site as the macrolides and clindamycin and thus inhibit protein synthesis in an identical manner

A

Streptogramins

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7
Q

Quinupristin-dalfopristin is rapidly bactericidal for most susceptible organisms except ______, which is killed slowly

A

Enterococcus faecium

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8
Q

Streptogramin has resistance to _______ due to modification of quinupristin binding site and enzymatic inactivation of dalfopristin, or efflux

A

E. Faecalis

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9
Q

Quinupristin-dalfopristin is active against

A

Gram positive cocci including
multidrug resistant strains of streptococci, penicillin resistant strains of S pneumoniae, methicillin susceptible and resistant strains of stap and E. faecium

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10
Q

Quinupristin-dalfopristin is eliminated by what route?

A

Fecal route

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11
Q

True or false: dose adjustment is not necessary in Quinupristin-dalfopristin for cases of renal failure, peritoneal dialysis or hemodialysis

A

True

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12
Q

True or false: Quinupristin-dalfopristin significantly inhibit CYP3a4 which metabolizes warfarin, diazepam, cisapride, cyclosporine etc

A

True (dosage reduction of cyclosporin may be necessary)

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13
Q

Clinical use of Quinupristin-dalfopristin

A

Treatment of infections caused by staphylococci or by vancomycin resistant strains of E faecium

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14
Q

Principal toxicities of Quinupristin-dalfopristin

A

Infusion related events such as pain at infusion site and arthralgia-myalgia syndrome

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15
Q

Is a chlorine subsituted derivative of lincomycin, an antibiotic that is elaborated by Streptomyces lincolnensis

A

Clindamycin

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16
Q

Like erythromycin, it inhibits protein synthesis by interfering with the formation of initiation complexes and with aminoacyl translocation reactions

A

Clindamycin

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17
Q

The binding site for clindamycin is on the ____ subunit of the bacterial ribosome identical with erythromycin

A

50S subunit

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18
Q

Clindamycin, 0.5-5 mcg/ml inhibits the ff:

A

Streptococci, staphylococci and pneumococci

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19
Q

Organisms resistant to clindamycin:

A

Enterococci and gram negative aerobic organism

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20
Q

Usually susceptible to clindamycin:

A

Bacteroides sp and other anaerobes (+ and -)

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21
Q

Resistance to clindamycin, which generally confers cross resistance to macrolides, is due to:

A
  1. Mutation of ribosomal receptor site
  2. Modification of the receptor by a constitutively expressed methylase
  3. Enzymatic inactivation of clindamycin
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22
Q

True or false: clindamycin is about 90% protein bound

A

True

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23
Q

Clindamycin penetrates well into most tissues except for _____ and ______.

A

Brain and CSF

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24
Q

Clindamycin is metabolized by the _______, and both active drug and active metabolites are excreted in _____ and ______.

A

Liver
Bile
Urine

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25
True or false: clindamycin penetrates well into abscesses and is actively taken up and concentrated by phagocytic cells
True
26
Clinical use of clindamycin
Treatment of skin and soft tissue infections caused by strep and staph Active against community acquired strains of MRSA
27
True or false: clindamycin is also indicated for the treatment of infections caused by bacteroides sp and other anaerobes
True
28
Drugs used to treat penetrating wounds of the abdomen and gut; infections originating in the female genital tract (eg PID, septic abortion) and lung abscess
Clindamycin + aminoglycoside or cephalosporin
29
Clindamycin is now recommended rather than erythromycin for prophylaxis of ______ in pts with specific valvular dse who are undergoing _____ procedures and have allergy to penicillin
Endocarditis | Dental procedures
30
Is an effective alternative to Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole for moderate to moderately severe P. jiroveci pneumonia in AIDS pts
Clindamycin + primaquine
31
Indicated for AIDS related toxoplasmosis of the brain
Clindamycin + pyrimethamome
32
Administration of clindamycin is a risk factor for diarrhea and colitis due to ______
C. Difficile
33
True or false: the antibacterial action of erythromycin and other macrolides may be excitatory or bacteriostatic, particularly at higher concentrations for susceptible organisms.
False. Inhibitory or bactericidal
34
True or false: erythromycin's activity is enhanced at acidic pH.
False. Alkaline pH
35
Inhibits protein synthesis occurring via binding to the 50S ribosomal RNA. The binding site is near the peptidyltransferase center and peptide chain elongation is prevented by blocking of the polypeptide exit tunnel
Erythromycin
36
True or false: in clindamycin, peptidyl-tRNA is dissociated from the ribosome.
False. Erythromycin
37
Erythromycin is active against susceptible strains of:
Gram positive organisms ( pneumococci, strep, staph and corynebacteria) Gram negative organisms (Neisseria sp, Bordetella pertussis, Bartonella sp, Rickettsia sp.
38
True or false: T. Pallidum and Campylobacter sp. are susceptible to erythromycin.
True
39
True or false: H. influenzae is less susceptible to erythromycin
True
40
Resistance to erythromycin is usually ________-encoded?
Plasmid-encoded
41
_____ and _____ are the most important resistance mechanisms in gram positive organisms
Efflux and Methylase production
42
Constitutive methylase production confers resistance to structurally unrelated but mechanistically similar compounds such as clindamycin and streptogramin B called ______, which share the same ribosomal binding site
Macrolide-lincosamide-streptogramin B or MLS type B
43
Erythromycin base is destroyed by _________ and must be be administered with ______ coating
Stomach acid, enteric coating
44
True or false: food does not interfere with absorption while taking erythromycin
False
45
_____ and ____ are fairly acid resistant and somewhat better absorbed
Stearates and esters
46
Is the best absorbed oral preparation for erythromycin
Erythromycin estolate (lauryl salt of propionyl ester of erythromycin)
47
True or false: dialysis can removed erythromycin
False. Large amount is excreted in the bile and lost in feces and only 5% excreted in the urine
48
True or false. Erythromycin is distributed widely except to the brain and CSF
True
49
True or false: erythromycin is taken up by PMN leukocytes and macrophages
True
50
True or false: erythromycin does nit traverse the placenta and reaches the fetus
False
51
Traditional drug of choice in corynebacterial infections ( diphtheria, sepsis, erythrasma) and in respiratory, neonatal, ocular or genital chlamydial infections
Erythromycin
52
True or false. Macrolide resistance is increasing in pneumococci and M. pneumoniae
True
53
True or false. Erythromycin resistance in staph and in strains of Group A strep has made macrolides less attractive as first line agents for treatment of pharyngitis and skin and soft tissue infections
True
54
Although ________ is the best absorbed salt, it imposes the greatest risk of adverse reactions
Erythromycin estolate
55
Oral erythromycin is sometimes combined with ______ or ________ for preoperative preparation of the colon
Oral neomycin or kanamycin
56
__________ is the most common reason for discontinuing erythromycin and substituting another antibiotics
Gastrointestinal intolerance
57
Erythromycin estolate can produce _______, probably as a hypersensitivity reaction
Acute cholestatic hepatitis
58
True or false: most pts can recover from acute cholestatic hepatitis, but it recurs if the drug is readministered
True
59
Erythromycin metabolites inhibit CYP P450 enzymes and thus increase serum concentrations of:
``` Theophylline Warfarin Cyclosporine Methylprednisolone Oral digoxin (increase bioavailability) ```
60
Is derived from erythromycin by addition of a methyl group and has improved acid stability and oral absorption compared with erythromycin
Clarithromycin
61
Clarithromycin is similar with erythromycin with respect to antibacterial activity except it is more active against:
Mycobacterium avium complex
62
Clarithromycin also has activity against:
M. leprae T. gondii H. influenzae
63
True or false: clarithromycin has a longer half life (6 hr) compared with erythromycin which permits twice daily dosing
True
64
Clarithromycin is metabolized in the _____. The major metabolite is ______.
Liver | 14 hydroxyclarithromycin
65
True or false: clarithromycin is eliminated in the urine
True
66
True or false: in clarithromycin, dosage requirement is not needed for patients with creatinine clearances of less than 30 ml/min
False. Dosage reduction is recommended
67
What is the advantage of giving clarithromycin compared with erythromycin?
Lower incidence of GI intolerance and less frequent dosing
68
Is a 15 atom lactone macrolide ring compound, is derived from erythromycin by addition of a methylated nitrogen into the lactone ring
Azithromycin
69
Azithromycin is: a A. active against: B. slightly less active than erythromycin and clarithromycin against: C. Slightly more active against: D. Highly effective against:
A. M. avium complex and T. gondii B. Staph and strep C. H. influenzae D. Chlamydia sp.
70
Azithromycin may prolong ________ due to an effect on potassium ion channels
QT interval ( prolongation of the QT interval can lead to torsades de pointes arrythmia
71
True or false: recent studies have suggested that azithromycin may be associated with a small increased risk of cardiac death
True
72
True or false: azithromycin is slowly released from tissues ( half life 2-4 days ) to produce an elimination half life approching 3 days
True
73
Has unique properties that permit once daily dosing and shortening of the duration of treatment in many cases
Azithromycin
74
When should azithromycin be administered:
1 hr before or 2 hrs after meals
75
True or false: azithromycin is rapidly absorbed and well tolerated orally
True
76
True or false: Because azithromycin has a 15 member lactone ring, it does not inactivate CYP P450 enzymes and therefore free of drug interactions
True
77
Are semisynthetic 14 membered ring macrolides, differing from erythromycin by substitution of a 3 keto group for neutral sugar L-cladinose
Ketolides
78
E.g of ketolides approved for limited clinical use
Telithromycin
79
Telithromycin is now indicated only for the treatment of ______ in the USA
Community acquired bacterial pneumonia
80
Telithromycin was removed as an indication for respiratory tract infections due to:
It can result in hepatitis and liver failure
81
Telithromycin is also contraindicated in pts with _________
Myasthenia gravis ( it may exacerbate this condition)