M7- Reviewer Flashcards

1
Q

They prohibit an action that could cause a hazard, e.g.
smoking.

A
  • Prohibition Signs (Red)
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2
Q

They command a certain action, e.g. the use of ear
protection.

A
  • Mandatory Signs (Blue)
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3
Q

They warn against a danger or risk, e.g. toxic materials.

A
  • Warning Signs ( Yellow)
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4
Q

heavy and bulky objects such as machines, large castings
and forgings, heavy beams, and plates etc., which have to be
loaded onto vehicles, unloaded from vehicles or moved
around within the factory are defined as

A
  • Loads
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5
Q

Mechanical lifting equipment should be used for loads in
excess of

A
  • 20 kg
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6
Q

High loads or incorrect methods of lifting can result in
damage of the intervertebral discs causing considerable
pain. This is often referred to as a

A
  • ’slipped disc’
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7
Q

it is to provide suitable, and adequate personal protective
equipment and it is the employee’s responsibility to use it.

A
  • Employer’s responsibility
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8
Q

In the event of an injury that occurred at work, it is the
_________ to ensure that a record of the
injury (and subsequent treatment) is recorded in the
Accident Book.

A

employee’s responsibility

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9
Q

If sound levels reach or exceed the limit of 80 decibels (A) at
workplace, the respective workplace is regarded as

A
  • noise sector
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10
Q

If sound levels reach or exceed the limit of 85 decibels (A),
the workplace is classified as

A
  • identifiable noise sector
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11
Q

is used for all pneumatic tools like drills, rivet guns, paint
spray-guns etc.

A
  • Compressed air
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12
Q

is used to inflate, tires and shock struts.

A
  • Compressed Nitrogen
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13
Q

Compressed air is normally created by a compressor, stored
in a

A

tank and distributed via pressure lines

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14
Q

Other compressed gasses, such as nitrogen and oxygen, are
stored in

A

steel cylinders, usually on racks or trolleys.

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15
Q

is carried on aircraft for emergencies to support breathing at
high altitudes in the event of a cabin pressure loss

A
  • Pressurized oxygen
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16
Q

are easily combustible due to the carbon in their molecular
structure and their low flash and ignition point..

A

Oils and Greases

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17
Q

are mainly organic substances, which are used to dissolve,
dilute or suspend other materials in order to enable their
processing or removal.

A
  • Solvents
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18
Q

Class A

A
  • solid matter as: wood, fabric, paper
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19
Q

Class B

A
  • liquid matter, or matter that will become liquid, oils
    and grease
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20
Q

Class C

A
  • gaseous matters hydrogen, propane, petroleum
    gas etc.
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21
Q

Class D

A
  • flammable metals (magnesium, potassium,
    natrium).
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22
Q

Class F

A
  • cooking oil and fat
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23
Q

______ work by cooling the fire below the
ignition temperature.

A

Water extinguishers

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24
Q

____, when electricity
and chemicals are not present.

A

Water should only be used for Class A fires

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25
Q

_____ work by eliminating oxygen
from a fire, and by decreasing the temperature

A

Carbon dioxide extinguishers

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26
Q

It is suitable to extinguish Class A and B fires

A

Carbon Dioxide and Foam

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27
Q

These extinguishers are most effective on Class A,B, and C
fires.

A

Dry Powder

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28
Q

____ The most common fire
extinguishing agent for aircraft cabin fires is ____, a
liquefied, compressed gas that stops the spread of fire by
chemically disrupting combustion.

A

Halogenated Hydrocarbon

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29
Q

____ use an aqueous film forming foam
(AFFF) agent that builds a layer of foam when it is
discharged through the nozzle onto the surface of a burning
liquid, starving a fire by removing the oxygen.

A

Foam fire extinguishers

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30
Q

foam is suitable for

A

Classes A and B fires

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31
Q

For fires of classes D and F extinguishing agents such as ___

A

Sand

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32
Q

Use it for people when the clothes are on fire

A
  • Fire blanket
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33
Q

Due to a special use or higher fire risk some facilities are
equipped with semi-stationary and stationary fire
extinguishing devices in addition to other mentioned
equipment.

A
  • Wall Hydrant
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34
Q

is a covering law and serves the company’s internal
emergency and catastrophe protection and/or the limitation
of damages in case of emergencies.

A
  • Alarm Order
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35
Q

_____ is related to local accidents (fire and material
damage, etc.)

A

Alert phase I

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36
Q

_______ is related to crisis-type emergency situations,
whose impact extends beyond the company area, and have
consequences on e.g. air traffic. Centralized concerted
actions are necessary.

A

Alert phase II

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37
Q

defines the meter as the unit of length and the kilogram as
the unit of mass.

A
  • International System of Units (SI)
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38
Q

The difference between the basic dimension and the upper
or lower limit is called the
.

A
  • allowance or tolerance
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39
Q

is a very useful instrument for taking measurements up to
several feet

A
  • Flexible Steel Tape
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40
Q

is the most common tool for testing squareness of
components and parts.

A
  • Tri square
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41
Q

it should be so held that the graduation lines are as close as
possible to the face.

A
  • Scale Handling
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42
Q

consists of a half round dial that is graduated from 0° to
180° and is suited for measuring angles of components and
parts.

A
  • Protractor
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43
Q

are used to measure either inside or outside radii.

A
  • Radius Gauge
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44
Q
  • is made up of a number of thin steel leaves with different
    thickness that fold into a handle.
  • is generally used in assembly areas to check interface gaps
    or gaps under bolt heads or nuts.
A
  • Thickness (Feeler) Gauge
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45
Q

In the English/American unit system all temperatures are
given in degrees Fahrenheit.

A
  • Fahrenheit Unit
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46
Q

The Celsius scale is in general use wherever metric units
have become accepted, and it is used in scientific work
everywhere.

A
  • Celsius Unit
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47
Q

Kelvin temperature scale is the base unit of thermodynamic
temperature measurement in the International System (SI) of
measurement.

A
  • Kelvin Unit
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48
Q

The carbon, when
heated, can infuse the metal and cause cracking.

A

Never use a lead pencil on titanium

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49
Q

For marking of aluminium alloy use only a soft lead pencil
(except for cut-lines, when a scriber may be used).

A

True

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50
Q

working with aluminium parts and components, _____ for layout work or for marking
reference lines in areas that will not be removed

A

only a soft
lead pencil may be used

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51
Q

For marking out length, a

A

rule or steel tape is used.

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52
Q

___ are used for marking out i.e. right angle lines

A

Tri-squares

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53
Q

are used for scribing arcs and circles, for measuring between
points and for transferring dimensions. The distance
between the sharp ends of the arms is compared with the
rule.

A
  • Dividers
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54
Q

is used to mark permanent lines on component or part
surfaces.

A
  • SCRIBER
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55
Q

has a vertical beam scale fixed to a flat base. It is usually
used on a surface plate or a marking out table (the datum
beam surface).

A
  • Vernier height gauge
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56
Q

It is used to measure high current ratings.

A
  • Current Clamp Meter
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57
Q

For low resistance measurements, special measurement
devices are used. One of these devices is the

A
  • bonding meter

Current ampere: in line voltage: Across

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58
Q

is the amount of rotational force applied when tightening a
fastener.

A
  • Torque
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59
Q

show the actual torque on a mechanical scale, a dial gauge
or an electronic scale. („Measuring wrench“).

A
  • Indicating Torque Wrenches
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60
Q

are preset to the desired torque value and are starting a
signal when the torque is reached („click wrench“)

A
  • Signalling Torque Wrenches
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61
Q

control friction and wear by introducing a friction-reducing
film between moving surfaces in contact. They may be fluid,
solid or plastic.

A
  • Lubricants
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62
Q

is derived from crude oil. Crude oil consists of carbon
hydride. In the industry you differentiate between the mineral
oil products fuel and lubricant.

A
  • Mineral oil
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63
Q

are manufactured by chemical reactions, which have an
advantage concerning a constant composition and quality.

A
  • Synthetic oils
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64
Q

is a lubricant composed of oil and sometimes the oil is
thickened with soap or other thickener to make a solid or
semi−solid product

A
  • Grease
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65
Q

is the preferred general−purpose aviation grease
recommended by Boeing for applications exposed to
temperatures of less than 250oF.

A
  • BMS 3−33
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66
Q

concentrate the force from a hammer blow to the immediate
area of the punch tip.

A
  • Punches
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67
Q

is ground to an angle of approximately 60 degrees and is
used to make indentations in metal, so called punch-marks.
This helps to prevent ’wander’ when starting to drill a hole.

A
  • Center Punch
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68
Q

incorporates an adjustable spring-loaded trip mechanism,
negating the requirement for a hammer.

A
  • Automatic Center Punch
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69
Q

This is used to start when driving out a bolt or pin. Once the
taper almost fills the bolt-hole, the job should be finished
with a pin punch to prevent damage of the hole

A
  • Drift (Taper) Punch
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70
Q

have a parallel shank and are available in different diameters.

A
  • Pin Punch
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71
Q

is mostly used for separating material but also for producing
grooves and notches

A
  • Sawing
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72
Q

The ___ is the space from one tooth to the next.

A

Pitch

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73
Q

Coarse

A

for soft materials (14 teeth)

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74
Q

Medium

A

for normal materials (22 teeth)

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75
Q

Fine

A

for hard materials (32 teeth)

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76
Q

To prevent the saw blade from binding as it cuts
into the material, the slot it creates must be greater than the
blade thickness.

A

Clearance

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77
Q

The sawing movement is done with:

A

● Forward stroke under pressure.
● Return stroke without pressure.

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78
Q

is a process which removes material from metal or wood,
etc. / A finishing process to smooth a surface without
removing much material.

A
  • Filing
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79
Q

are used for flat or convex surfaces

A
  • Flat files
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80
Q

have a cross-section that is an equilateral triangle. These
files are limited to internal angles greater than 60°.

A
  • Triangular files
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81
Q

are used for filing keyways and for enlarging square or
rectangular holes

A
  • Square files
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82
Q

are used to file small inner radii.

A
  • Round files
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83
Q

-have a flat side and a side with a radius.
-used to file medium and large inner radii.

A
  • Half-round files
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84
Q

are generally used to produce a smooth surface or to file a
keen edge and for use on soft metals like lead, zinc or
aluminium.

A
  • Single-cut files
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85
Q

are used for fast metal removal and where a rough finish is
permissible

A
  • Double-cut files
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86
Q

produces an extremely rough cut and is used on very soft
materials, e. g. Wood

A
  • Rasp-cut file
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87
Q

has a curved form single-cut (often called a ’Dreadnought’)
and is used to produce a very smooth finish on soft metals
such as aluminum.

A
  • Curved-Tooth file
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88
Q

The upper side of the bench vice should be ___

A

5−8 cm (2−3
inch) below your elbow

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89
Q

When filing very soft metals (such as lead or aluminum),
___

A

pressure should be applied on both forward and backward
strokes

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90
Q

is also used for breaking edges after machining like sawing
or stamping of sheets or other parts

A
  • DRAW FILING
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91
Q

You can clean a file with a file brush by brushing ___

A

across the
file in a direction parallel to the teeth.

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92
Q

Drills are made of

A
  • chromium−vanadium−steel (CV) or high speed
    steel (HSS)
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93
Q

is the part designed to fit into the drilling machine

A
  • Shank of a drill
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94
Q

is the part between the point and the shank. It includes the
spiral flutes, the lands and the margin.

A
  • body of a drill
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95
Q

The point of a drill includes the entire cone−shaped cutting
end of the drill.

A
  • Cutting edge
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96
Q

is the peripheral portion of the body between adjacent flutes.

A
  • Land
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97
Q

Helical grooves cut or formed in the body of the drill to
provide cutting lips, to permit removal of chips and to allow
cutting fluid to reach the cutting lips.

A
  • Flutes
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98
Q

The raised part of the bevel creates a gap between the bore
wall and drill and prevents the seizure of the drill.

A
  • Margin
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99
Q

has a long shank for reaching limited−access areas. The drill
should not be used unless absolutely necessary.

A
  • Extension drill
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100
Q

have a taper called the Morse taper. The size of taper
incorporated on any particular drill depends on the drill
diameter.

A
  • Taper shank drills
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101
Q

The number of the Morse taper hole in a machine spindle will
depend on the size of the machine:

A

● Morse 1 for small machines
● Morse 4 for large machines

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102
Q

is a bench −mounted or floor-mounted machine. is driven by
an electric motor through a speed −changing mechanism;
either a belt transmission or a gear transmission.

A
  • Pillar Drill
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103
Q

The most commonly-used hand held drill motor for drilling
aircraft sheet metal is the

A
  • pneumatic or air drill
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104
Q

These tools are ordered by drill power and
speed.

A

The pistol-grip or straight drills are the most often-used
drill motors.

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105
Q

are used in environments, in which a straight-grip or a
pistol-grip drill motor can not be used due to limited space
and access or due to the workpiece geometry.

A
  • Angle Drill Motors
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106
Q

Another tool designed for use in close quarters. This tool
allows the work application in limited space areas through
an ancillary transmission.

A
  • Flat Offset Drilling Head or pork chop
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107
Q

is used only in limited−access areas where an angle drill
motor cannot be held perpendicular to the surface.

A
  • Flexible Snake Drill
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108
Q

is a simple drilling device, in which a drill is turned with
manual power through a transmission.

A
  • Hand Drill
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109
Q

To secure work when using the pillar drill a vice, clamps and
dogs are often used.

A
  • Pillar Drill Clamping
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110
Q

Most work will be secured by using a____. The main use of
the_____ is to hold the work during drilling, reaming etc.

A
  • Vice
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5
Perfectly
111
Q

are used if the part can not be clamped by a vice due to the
part’s dimensions.

A
  • Clamps and Dogs
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112
Q

is used as a block and is available in the most common drill
diameters.

A
  • Drill Stop
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113
Q

keeps the drill 90° to the skin surfaces. The guide assembly
consists of a plastic housing and special screw in type
hardened steel bushing.

A
  • hand-held drill guide
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114
Q

is designed for accurate drilling of rivet holes for nut plates
(sometimes called ’anchor-nuts’).

A
  • Nut Plate Drill Jig
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115
Q

When replacing an old skin with a new one, if there are no
pilot holes drilled in the new skin it is quite difficult to
precisely locate the holes in the structure. For this procedure
we may use.

A
  • Hole Finder sometimes called a ’back-marker’
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116
Q

The size of a drill is stamped on its shank. If the size cannot
be read, it can be determined by using

A
  • Drill Gauge
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117
Q

When holes are drilled through two sheets of material, small
burrs are formed around the edges of the holes and chips
can be pushed between the two sheets.

A
  • Deburring
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118
Q

This tool is designed to deburr holes on the back side which
you could not reach with standard deburring tools, due to
limited access.

A
  • Special Deburring Tool
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119
Q

Hand reamers mostly have a

A

cylindrical shaft with a square
end (for a tap wrench).

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120
Q

Shafts of the machine

A

− reamers are cylindrical or Morse
tapered.

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121
Q

are the spaces between the single teeth; all chips are
collected and transported in these spaces.

A
  • Chucking grooves
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122
Q

is designed with a large cutting angle, short major cutting
edges (short first cut) and short overall cutting edges.

A
  • Machine Reamer
123
Q

is designed with a small cutting angle, large major cutting
edges (large first cut) and large overall cutting edges.

A
  • Hand Reamer
124
Q

has a cylindrical beginning and is guided into the hole
through a matching bushing

A
  • Pilot Reamer
125
Q

This reamer is used very often. It is guided very well by the
first section, whose diameter is matching with the pilot hole,
and assures through the default reamer step diameter a
superior finish.

A
  • Pilot Chuck Reamer
126
Q

This reamer is used when the hole must be cut a few
thousandth of an inch for fitting purposes. Slots are cut into
the hollow center of the tool and the center opening is
machined on a slight taper

A
  • Expansion Hand Reamer
127
Q

This reamer is used to finish a taper hole (for example for a
taper shank bolt) accurately and with a smooth finish

A
  • Taper Reamer
128
Q

This reamer is threaded its entire length and fitted with
tapered slots to receive the adjustable blades.

A
  • Adjustable Hand−Reamer
129
Q

The most commonly used countersinks for a normal
fastener is

A

100 °

130
Q

For special fasteners there are countersinking tools with ______. To create countersunk for so called NACA-rivets
a special countersinking tool is necessary

A

82° and 120°

131
Q

A standard countersinking tool has

A

one, three or eight
cutting edges

132
Q

is used, if a large amount of holes have to be countersunk
with high quality and uniform depth.

A
  • Microstop Countersinking Tool
133
Q

is used to countersink inaccessible holes.

A
  • Back Countersinking Tool
134
Q

is an operation to create a flat area for e. g. a fastener head,
a locking ring or a nut. This method is also used to create a
flat surface on e. g. an uneven component surface.

A
  • Spot facing
135
Q

is the tool used to hold and turn a threading die when
producing external threads by hand.

A
  • Stock
136
Q

have three or more flutes to form cutting edges on the
internal threads and cavities for removal of chips

A
  • Dies
137
Q

are tools used to hold and turn a tap when cutting internal
threads by hand

A
  • Tap Wrench
138
Q

have three or more flutes to form cutting faces on the
external threads and channels for removal chips.

A
  • Hand Taps
139
Q

The differences of the taps are:

A
  • The taper tap has a long chamfer
  • The intermediate tap has a short chamfer.
  • The bottoming tap has a continuous thread.
140
Q

cut the thread in one go. are longer than hand taps and they
have a long chamfer.

A
  • Machine tap
141
Q

are used widely in the metal industry because of their flexible
measuring and simple construction. They can make inside or
outside as well as depth measurements

A
  • Vernier calipers/sliding gauges
142
Q

are used, if an accuracy is demanded, which can not be
reached with a vernier caliper.

A
  • Micrometer
143
Q

is a high-precision measurement tool with an accuracy of
0.01 mm. It is especially used in the mechanical engineering
section for comparison, smoothness or roundness
measuring.

A
  • Dial Indicator
144
Q

Access via Alphabetical Index

A
  • ASM or AWM
145
Q

-Access with known FIN via EQUIPMENT LIST orHOOK−UP−LIST
-Access with known Wire Number via MASTER WIRE LIST

A
  • AWL
146
Q

indicates for which aircraft the page is applicable. It is
shown at the bottom left.

A
  • Effectivity (EFF)

The first 3 digits represent the FSN of the first aircraft and
the last 3 digits the FSN of the last aircraft of an aircraft
batch, for which the pages are applicable

147
Q

The Functional Item Number is the listing criteria to
determine the Part Number of every electrical/electronic
component.

A
  • Equipment list

The letters A and B are reserved for special request by an
airline for system references

148
Q

The equipment on the A/C is identified by a unique identifier
designated

A
  • Functional Item Number (FIN).

The sequence number below 5000 are reserved for electrical
FINs and the sequence numbers equal or above 5000 are
reserved for mechanical FINs

149
Q

are identified like equipment, being grouped by route and by
type. Such grouping shall not be systematic, but only
accomplished where a priority is required

A
  • VS splices
150
Q

is identified in fictitious circuit VT by a numerical designator.

A
  • VT terminal blocks
151
Q

The panels & racks are identified in fictitious circuit VU by a
numerical designator

A
  • VU panels & racks
152
Q

is an Electric/Electronic Printed Board made by the aircraft
manufacturer.

A
  • VX

-Letters XP for AC busbars and PP for DC busbars

  • The equipment added in the aircraft by the customer shall
    be numbered from 9000 to 9999.
153
Q

is the identification criteria to determine the Part Number of
every electrical/electronic and mecanical component.

A
  • Functional Item Number

In the AWM every component is depicted very precise (that is
different to the ASM). The figures are very detailed which
makes it possible to identify every cable connection

the ASM are not very precise. Components, wiring
connections and other details are depicted simplified

154
Q

contains detailed data and procedures for electrical
installations in every aircraft of the AIRBUS Family

A
  • Electrical Standard Practices Manual (ESPM)
155
Q

is a diagram showing every component related to the
system.

A
  • Component Home Diagram
156
Q

Displays every Line Replaceable Items, complete A/C Wiring
incl. Sub−Sub System and facilitates troubleshooting at he
A/C.

A
  • Schematics
157
Q

Displays every component and wire.

A
  • Wiring Diagrams
158
Q

The ______ classify the chapter into functional Groups.

A

sections

159
Q

The _____ classify the sections into equal system
modules.

A

subsections

160
Q

The ____ classify the subsections into individual
members.

A

subjects

161
Q

are sent to the aircraft owner, to advise the owner of changes
in processes and content and to supply him with the
necessary information until the next revision

A
  • Temporary Revisions
162
Q

contains figures, which depict all parts, classified according
to ATA chapters that belong to an aircraft type via explosion
views.

A
  • Illustrated Parts Catalog (IPC)
163
Q

is the maintenance instruction for aircraft components. It
has the form of a portfolio

A
  • Component Maintenance Manual (CMM)
164
Q

The illustration shows the component parts in a disassembly
order. In a bill of material detailed parts data is given

A
  • Illustrated Parts List (IPL)
165
Q

contains information about the systematically identification,
isolation and correction of faults.

A
  • TROUBLESHOOTING MANUAL (TSM) AIRBUS
166
Q

contains procedures for the systematically identification,
isolation and correction of faults.

A
  • INTERACTIVE FAULT ISOLATION MANUAL (IFIM)
    BOEING
167
Q

contains work tasks for judging structural damages For
structural damages which appear quite often it contains
approved repairs.

A
  • Structure Repair Manual (SRM)
168
Q

is a list developed by the engineering of the aircraft
manufacturer, which contains the aircraft components or
-systems that may be defect for a certain time or a certain
area of application

A
  • Minimum Equipment List
169
Q

it describes which components of the secondary
structure/attachment parts may be missing under certain
conditions.

A
  • Configuration Deviation List
170
Q

Drawings used in the design, construction and maintenance
of engineering projects are called

A
  • Production drawing
171
Q

Drawings used in the design, construction and maintenance
of the jigs, tools and checking fixtures are called

A
  • Tool drawing
172
Q

Drawings used in the detailing or fabrication of single parts
are called

A
  • Detail Drawings
173
Q

comprised of only two parts or many, depending on the whim
of the designer. In some cases, a large assembly may
comprise several small assemblies fastened together.

A
  • Assembly Drawings
174
Q

are designed to describe exactly where on the airplane or
vehicle, or in a portion of the airplane or vehicle, certain parts
or assemblies are to be permanently affixed.

A
  • Installation drawings
175
Q

Illustrated parts lists often make use of exploded−view
drawings to show every part that is in an assembly.

A
  • Exploded−View Drawings
176
Q

does not show an exact image of an object; it is used to
illustrate a principle of operation.

A
  • Schematic drawings
177
Q

indicate such things as size of wire and parts like switches,
lamps, connectors or fuses used in the system.

A
  • Electrical wiring diagrams
178
Q

re portrayed by a thick−lined circle. Its diameter may be
shown by a note. If the hole is ’blind’ the note will include the
depth.

A
  • Drilled bores
179
Q

symbols will include an explanatory note differentiating them
from plain bores

A
  • Reamed bores
180
Q

are defined with a thick circular line for the thread crest and
a thin, broken one for the root

A
  • Threaded bores
181
Q

are required i. e. to incorporate the head of a cylindrical head
bolt. For this a concentric hole with a defined depth and
diameter to the primary hole is drilled.

A
  • Counterbores
182
Q

is effectively a shallow counterbore to provide a flat, smooth
seating for a mating part or for a fastener head or nut. It is
necessary when the casting has a rough finish or is not
square to the hole.

A
  • A spot-face
183
Q

holes accept the tapered head of a fastener and are created
by special countersinking bits with a defined angle.

A
  • Countersunk
184
Q

when the amount of fasteners is high.

A
  • Fastener symbol
185
Q

when the amount of fasteners is low

A
  • Drawing Symbols
186
Q

consists of a drawing number and certain other data
concerning the drawing and the object it represents.

A
  • Title Block
187
Q

A combination of a vertical and horizontal coordinate
indicates a

A
  • Zones
188
Q

One method used to reduce drawings’ physical size (and
thus storage space) was to photograph them and mount the
resultant slide onto a card.

A
  • Aperture Cards
189
Q

Instead of copies of each drawing being mounted in its own
individual aperture card, hundreds could be stored onto a
_______

A

photographic film (microfilm).

190
Q

The advent of computers resulted in engineering drawing
software development

A
  • Computer Aided Design (CAD)
191
Q

Boeing:

A

SWPM (Standard Wiring Practises Manual)

192
Q

Airbus:

A

ESPM (Electrical Standard Practises Manual)

193
Q

This procedure is also called ’cold welding’; the connecting
element is non−detachably connected to the wire

A
  • Crimping
194
Q

terminals and splices are a touch proof insulated connection,
with protection against vibration by means of a crimped−on
strain relief

A
  • PIDG (Pre Insulated Diamond Grip)
195
Q

is connected to a copper sleeve that also is tightly connected
to the sleeve of the terminal.

A
  • PVC − or nylon sleeve
196
Q

help to interconnect several terminals.

A
  • TERMINAL BLOCKS (maximum of 4 terminal are
    mounted on one bolt)
197
Q

are another category of splices: all wires are inserted
stripped and then are electrically connected by crimping with
the crimping tool.

A
  • CLOSED END SPLICES
198
Q

are used mainly inside the pressurized cabin, and are only
used outside of it if the clamp can withstand the
environmental conditions occurring there.

A
  • Nylon clamps (pressurized)
199
Q

Clamps are mainly used for hot areas

A
  • Metal clamps (unpressurized)
200
Q

____ should always be installed overhead

A

Clamps

201
Q

____ may not be installed onto pipes or lines carrying
fluids or gases.

A

Clamps

202
Q

is required before component connections or plug
connectors in order to avoid water penetration.

A
  • drip−off loop
203
Q

Movement that is not allowed/not permitted in a clamp

A
  • Lateral movement
204
Q

Protection sleeves with cross section larger than 10mm

A
  • Requires drain holes on the low points
205
Q

This level of inspection is made from within touching
distance unless otherwise specified.

A
  • General Visual Inspections (GVI)
206
Q

An intensive examination of a specific item, installation, or
assembly to detect damage, failure or irregularity.

A
  • Detailed Inspection (DET)
207
Q

A collective term comprising selected General Visual
Inspections and visual checks that are applied to each zone,
defined by access and area, to check system and power
plant installations and structure for security and general
condition.

A
  • Zonal Inspection
208
Q

An analytical logic procedure specifically designed to identify
applicable and effective tasks

A
  • Enhanced Zonal Analysis Procedure (EZAP)
209
Q

have the purpose to lead the feedback current into the
structure.

A
  • GROUNDINGS
210
Q

is a method to measure the conductivity of a wire. A
multimeter or ohmmeter is used for this purpose

A
  • CONTINUITY MEASUREMENT
211
Q

All these crimping tools have in common that depending on
the contact to be crimped, the____, turret or positioner
(which determines the position of the contact in the tool) are
exchangeable.

A
  • LOCATOR
212
Q

The bonding−meter works with two current− and two voltage
power lines − the so−called

A

”four wire technology”.

213
Q

are used to check the quality of insulation.

A
  • INSULATION RESISTANCE MEASUREMENT
214
Q

-For detecting and locating defects in coaxial cables or
twisted wire pair cables.

  • This tester sends an impulse into the cable to be measured.
    Any defect in this cable will cause the impulse energy to be
    partially reflected back to the tester
A
  • impulse reflectometry tester (time domain
    reflectometry TDR)
215
Q

The high frequency signals are very sensitive about damages
of the so-called ______ between the inner wire
and the shield.

A

”dielectric insulation”

216
Q

The smallest bending radius of Quadrax cable must be more
than ____.

A

50 mm

217
Q

Quadrax Contacts are installed in the size 8 cavities of
standard ARINC 600 connectors with an area of 11 Quadrax
Contacts and an area of 2 Quadrax Contacts.

A

….

218
Q

All terminals AWG 8 or larger have to be identified with a
coloured heat shrinkable sleeve.

For three−phase wiring:

A

Phase A = RED
Phase B = YELLOW
Phase C = BLUE

219
Q

Single−phase wiring and direct current lines have a ____
identification.

A

YELLOW

220
Q

For repairs in ”high temperature areas”, the temperature
class of the material must be

A

class ”D”.

221
Q

High temperature wire

A
  • 150-250 degree celsius
222
Q

Weakest part of the wire

A
  • Repair
223
Q

Use for wire repairs

A
  • Splices
224
Q

Repair procedure: first to do

A
  • The cause of damage must be eliminated
225
Q

Wire repairs may never be carried out in the

A
  • Protection sleeve/connector strain relief/bend of
    the wire/movable
226
Q

Temperature class of the wire or cable to be repaired must
be

A
  • Equal or higher and also same part number
227
Q

Maximum repair splice in one wire excluding the
manufacturer.

A
  • 3 repair splices
228
Q

Green mark on insulator

A
  • Wire part number (AIRBUS)
229
Q

Used to connect a single wire to component

A
  • Terminals
230
Q

How many unstripped wires in closed end splice?

A
  • None ( dapat stripped wires lang) 2.5 inch above
    height
231
Q

In contrast to end splices, wires with end caps are usually

A
  • Not stripped (unstripped / 1 wire per end cap)
232
Q

Maximum terminal bend

A
  • 90 degree maximum even side and 30 degree
    side with the wire
233
Q

They are measurement for the area of crimp barrels and
wires

A
  • Circular area units
234
Q

If the aircraft is can’t be disconnected from power supply (
carrying out any work)

A

-Pull circuit breaker, secure with locking collar,
attach warning tag

235
Q

Best way to avoid distraction

A
  • Make a checklist
236
Q

are carried out with an aircraft tractor, which is connected via
a tow-bar to the nose landing gear.

A
  • Towing
237
Q

Speed limits, when the door is closed and locked or
removed:

A

tractor with a tow bar, a maximum speed of 25 km/h

tractor without a tow bar, a maximum speed of 32 km/h

238
Q

Speed limits, when the passenger/crew doors are fully open
and locked and/or cargo doors open in vertical position:

A

The permitted maximum speed is 10 km/h

239
Q

The fuselage is stress free

A
  • Shoring
240
Q

if the aircraft is parked for more than 6 months but less than
2 years.

A
  • Storage
241
Q

if the aircraft is kept in an airworthy condition under flight /
ready conditions for a longer period of time.

A
  • Parking
242
Q

No Smoking’ signs should be displayed at a minimum
distance of 15m (50 ft) from fuelling equipment and aircraft
tank vents

A

..

243
Q

provides protection against the formation of frost or ice and
snow accumulation on the treated surfaces of the aircraft for
a limited period of time

A
  • Anti-Icing
244
Q

is a combination of de−icing and anti−icing procedures and
is performed in one or two steps.

A
  • De-Icing
245
Q

is a small turbine engine that supplies compressed air for
engine starting and cabin air conditioning, as well as
electrical power for various aircraft systems.

A
  • APU
246
Q

When fastening anchors and bolts always consider the

A
  • particular torque.
247
Q

It is particularly important, that the holes in the stressed
areas are free of grooves and burrs

A
  • Bolt Holes
248
Q

are only used one time, they are instantly after de-installation
destroyed.

A
  • O-Rings
249
Q

are only used once besides a few exceptions.

A
  • Gaskets
250
Q

main types of defect being inspected for are
.

A
  • corrosion and metal fatigue
251
Q

If small bulges and irregularities are inspected on an
undamaged outer paint coat near the surface it can be a sign
of filiform corrosion.

A
  • Paint Bulging
252
Q

In areas that are unsecured against mechanical damages
(e.g. cargo door) a peeled paint can be a sign of corrosion
damages since the surface protection is damaged.

A
  • Paint Peeling
253
Q

If corrosion occurs in a gap between adjacent components
the corrosion products can cause a bulging at the
components because of their higher volume

A
  • Bulging
254
Q

is used for the removal of large area corrosion on flat sheets.

A
  • Abrasive Blast Cleaning
255
Q

Primarily for work at integrally milled components and at
radii these mill cutters are used.

A
  • Rotating Files
256
Q

should be used for corrosion removal from steel/titanium
parts abrasives

A
  • silica carbide
257
Q

means an anodic treatment, a direct current chromic acid
treatment of the aluminium surface.

A
  • ANODIZING
258
Q

This treatment is called “CAA“ by the manufacturers.

A
  • CHROMIC ACID ANODIZING
259
Q

This process is comparable to anodizing, which uses sulfuric
acid:

A
  • ELOXADIZING
260
Q

Since about 1987 Airbus Industries have used .

A
  • SULPHURIC ACID ANODIZING
261
Q

All coatings that are manually painted or sprayed on
components are called

A
  • Paint Finishes
262
Q

is the complete build up of all layers of a paint finish

A
  • Paint System
263
Q

three layers paint

A

Airbus

264
Q

two-layer system paint

A

Boeing

265
Q

is the first layer to be painted on metallic structures,
especially aluminium, and it acts mainly as an adhesion
contact

A
  • Wash-Primer/FCR-Primer
266
Q

is applied to the Wash Primer or to Alodine-treated
aluminium surfaces and is the main corrosion protection
paint.

A
  • Intermediate Primer
267
Q

is relatively resistant to chemical attack

A
  • Epoxide Primer
268
Q

is applied as the last layer on previously-applied wash
primers and intermediate primers.

A
  • Top Coats
269
Q

are applied in such areas where absolute tightness of an
area have to be achieved without welding or soldering.

A
  • Sealants
270
Q

are mainly used in aircraft to seal fuel tanks and maintain
cabin pressure.

A
  • Sealing Compounds
271
Q

time of the mixed sealing compound.

A

Pot Life Time

272
Q

This time follows directly the pot life time and is10 to 20
times as long as this

A
  • Tack Free Time
273
Q

This time follows directly the pot life time and is10 to 20
times as long as this

A
  • Tack Free Time
274
Q

Is the time the sealing material needs for total curing.

A
  • Cure Time
275
Q

Is the time in which a sealing compound has the ability to
flow under the pressure of a connection during a fastening or
riveting action of two parts.

A
  • Squeeze−Out Life
276
Q

Is a thin layer of brushable sealing compound which is
brought onto the surface that has to be sealed in order to
increase adhesion to the next layer that is brought on

A
  • Pre Coat
277
Q

Is s sealing that is brought on the inner surface of a tank (e.
g. fuel tank) and is in direct contact which the fluids in the
tank

A
  • Wet Side Sealing
278
Q

Is a continuous film on metal structures which offers
corrosion protection and protection against mycelium and
bacteria which might be in the fuel.

A
  • Top Coat
279
Q

are applied at the edges of structural joints to prevent the
intrusion of moisture/fluids and to achieve a smooth change
of components.

A
  • FILLET SEAL
280
Q

are applied to fill box sections, open holes and tool holes that
occur as the result of structural design.

A
  • INJECTION SEAL
281
Q

consist of a layer of sealant sandwiched between two
fastened mating surfaces.

A
  • FAYING SURFACE SEAL
282
Q

is a variation of one of the basic sealing processes.

A
  • FASTENER SEAL
283
Q

removes aluminium swarf and other debris from areas to be
sealed.

A
  • Vacuum Cleaner
284
Q

are used for removing loose material and for preliminary
solvent cleaning to remove heavy soiling.

A
  • Brushes
285
Q

are used for preliminary and final solvent cleaning of areas to
be sealed

A
  • Cheese-Cloth
286
Q

These are used for cleaning structure prior to sealing

A
  • Solvents
287
Q

For corrosion removal on aluminium components only use

A
  • Aluminium Oxide (corundum)
288
Q

is not part of the decorative paint finish.

A
  • coating lacquer
289
Q

procedure is for hard landings at or below the maximum
design landing weight limits.

A
  • Hard Landing
290
Q

Large aircraft often have a higher maximum starting mass
than the maximum landing mass, during an emergency fuel
is dumped from the tanks via special outlets.

A
  • Overweight Landing
291
Q

Hard landing, lightning strike, bird strike found in ATA 5

A

292
Q

is intended to assure continuous serviceability of a transiting
aircraft.

A
  • Transit Check
293
Q

500 flight hours / structural A check 300
flight hours

A

Zonal A−Check

294
Q

6000 flight hours / structural C check 3000
flight hours or 18 months

A

Zonal C−Check

295
Q

Serves for the provision of general information.
Provide general information.

A
  • Service Letter
296
Q

Describe technical modifications / tests / procedures / …
and their accomplishment.

A
  • Service Bulletin
297
Q

Cleaning agents, pickling solutions, primers, lacquers,
adhesives, lubricants, etc.

A
  • Consumables
298
Q

describes a specific type of device. It is located on the
identification plate of the device.

A
  • Part Number (P/N)
299
Q

registers the individual device of a device type.

A
  • Serial Number (S/N)
300
Q

is allocated to every supplier / manufacturer

A
  • Vendor / Manufacturer Number (MFR)
301
Q

This is a preventative process in which known deterioration
of an item is limited to an acceptable level by the
maintenance actions which are carried out at periods related
to time in service

A
  • Hard Time
302
Q

This is also a preventative process but one in which the item
is inspected or tested, at specified periods, to determine
whether it can continue in service.

A
  • On-Condition
303
Q

This process is one in which information on items gained
from operational experience is collected, analyzed and
interpreted on a continuing basis as a means of
implementing corrective procedures.

A
  • Condition Monitoring
304
Q

They show escape routes

A

Emergency signs (Green)