M11: Psych Flashcards

ch 30, 31, 27, review of 12 (M3)

1
Q

Common mistakes practitioners make in treating anxiety disorders include:
1.Switching medications after an 8- to 12-week trial
2.Maximizing dosing of antianxiety medications
3.Encouraging exercise and relaxation therapy before starting medication
4.Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

A

4.Thinking a partial response to medication is acceptable

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2
Q

An appropriate first-line drug to try for mild to moderate generalized anxiety disorder would be:
1.Alprazolam (Xanax)
2.Diazepam (Valium)
3.Buspirone (Buspar)
4.Amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

3.Buspirone (Buspar)

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3
Q

An appropriate drug to initially treat panic disorder is:
1.Alprazolam (Xanax)
2.Diazepam (Valium)
3.Buspirone (Buspar)
4.Amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

2.Diazepam (Valium)

Very fast onset-longer 1/2 life; buspar is contraindicated w/ panic d/o. TCA-3rd line med; Xanax higher abuse potnential

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4
Q

Prior to starting antidepressants, patients should have laboratory testing to rule out:
1.Hypothyroidism
2.Anemia
3.Diabetes mellitus
4.Low estrogen levels

A

1.Hypothyroidism

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5
Q

David is a 34-year-old patient who is starting on paroxetine (Paxil) for depression. David’s
education regarding his medication would include:
1.Paroxetine may cause intermittent diarrhea.
2.He may experience sexual dysfunction beginning a month after he starts therapy.
3.He may have constipation and he should increase fluids and fiber.
4.Paroxetine has a long half-life so he may occasionally skip a dose.

A

2.He may experience sexual dysfunction beginning a month after he starts therapy.

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6
Q

Jamison has been prescribed citalopram (Celexa) to treat his depression. Education regardinghow quickly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants work would be:
1.Appetite and concentration improve in the first 1 to 2 weeks.
2.Sleep should improve almost immediately upon starting citalopram.
3.Full response to the SSRI may take 2 to 4 months after he reaches the fulltherapeutic dose.
4.His dysphoric mood will improve in 1 to 2 weeks.

A

1.Appetite and concentration improve in the first 1 to 2 weeks.

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7
Q

An appropriate drug for the treatment of depression with anxiety would be:
1.Alprazolam (Xanax)
2.Escitalopram (Lexapro)
3.Buspirone (Buspar)
4.Amitriptyline (Elavil)

A

2.Escitalopram (Lexapro)

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8
Q

An appropriate first-line drug for the treatment of depression with fatigue and low energy would be:
1. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
2. Escitalopram (Lexapro)
3. Buspirone (Buspar)
4. Amitriptyline (Elavil)

A
  1. Venlafaxine (Effexor)
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9
Q

The laboratory monitoring required when a patient is on a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is:
1. Complete blood count every 3 to 4 months
2. Therapeutic blood levels every 6 months after a steady state is achieved
3. Blood glucose every 3 to 4 months
4. There is no laboratory monitoring required

A
  1. There is no laboratory monitoring required
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10
Q

Jaycee has been on escitalopram (Lexapro) for a year and is willing to try tapering off of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor. What is the initial dosage adjustment when starting a taper off antidepressants?
1. Change dose to every other day dosing for a week
2. Reduce dose by 50% for 3 to 4 days
3. Reduce dose by 50% every other day
4. Escitalopram (Lexapro) can be stopped abruptly due to its long half-life

A
  1. Reduce dose by 50% for 3 to 4 days
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11
Q

The longer-term Xanax patient comes in and states they need a higher dose of the medication. They deny any additional, new, or accelerating triggers of their anxiety. What is the probable reason?
1. They have become tolerant of the medication, which is characterized by the need for higher and higher doses.
2. They are a drug seeker.
3. They are suicidal.
4. They only need additional counseling on lifestyle modification.

A
  1. They have become tolerant of the medication, which is characterized by the need for higher and higher doses.
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12
Q

What “onset of action” symptoms should be reviewed with patients who have been newly prescribed
a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
1. They will have insomnia for a week.
2. They can feel a bit of nausea, but this resolves in a week.
3. They will have an “onset seizure” but this is considered normal.
4. They will no longer dream.

A
  1. They can feel a bit of nausea, but this resolves in a week.
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13
Q

Which of the following should not be taken with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?
1. Aged blue cheese
2. Grapefruit
3. Alcohol
4. Green leafy vegetables

A
  1. Alcohol
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14
Q

Why is the consistency of taking paroxetine (Paxil) and never running out of medication more important than with most other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)?
1. It has a shorter half-life and withdrawal syndrome has a faster onset without taper.
2. It has the longest half-life and the withdrawal syndrome has a faster onset.
3. It is quasi-addictive in the dopaminergic reward system.
4. It is the most activating of SSRI medications and will cause the person to have
sudden deep sadness.

A
  1. It has a shorter half-life and withdrawal syndrome has a faster onset without taper.
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15
Q

The patient shares with the provider that he is taking his Prozac at night before going to bed. What is the best response?
1. This is a good idea because this class of medications generally makes people sleepy.
2. Have you noticed that you are having more sleep issues since you started that?
3. This a good way to remember to take your daily medications because it is near your toothbrush.
4. This is a good plan because you can eat grapefruit if there is 8–12 hours difference in the time each are ingested.

A
  1. Have you noticed that you are having more sleep issues since you started that?
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16
Q

The nurse is caring for a 7-year-old child who has difficulty concentrating and completing tasks and who cannot seem to sit still. Which diagnostic test may be ordered to assist with a diagnosis of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in this child?
1.Computerized tomography (CT) of the head
2.Electrocardiogram (ECG)
3.Electroencephalogram (EEG)
4.Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) ofthe brain

A

3.Electroencephalogram (EEG)

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17
Q

The nurse is teaching a child and a parent about taking methylphenidate (Ritalin) to treat attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
1.I should give this drug to my child at bedtime.
2.My child should avoid products containing caffeine.
3.The drug should be stopped immediately if my child develops aggression.
4.We should monitor my child’s weight since weight gain is common.

A

2.My child should avoid products containing caffeine.

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18
Q

The parent of a child who is taking amphetamine (Adderall) to treat attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) asks the provider to recommend an over-the-counter medication to treat a cold. What will the nurse tell the parent?
1.Avoid any products containing pseudoephedrine or caffeine.
2.Never give over-the-counter medications with Adderall.
3.Sudafed is a safe and effective decongestant.
4.Use any over-the-counter medication from the local pharmacy.

A

1.Avoid any products containing pseudoephedrine or caffeine.

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19
Q

The nurse is checking an 8-year-old child who has attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) into a clinic for an annual well-child visit. The child takes methylphenidate HCl (Ritalin). Which assessments are especially important for this child?
1.Heart rate, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation
2.Height, weight, and blood pressure
3.Measures of fine- and gross-motor development
4.Nausea, vomiting, and gastrointestinal upset

A

2.Height, weight, and blood pressure

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20
Q

The parent of an adolescent who has taken methylphenidate 20 mg/day for 6 months for attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) brings the child to clinic for evaluation of a recent onset of nausea, vomiting, and headaches. The parent expresses concern that the child seems less focused and more hyperactive than before. What will the nurse do next?
1. Ask the child whether the drug is being taken as prescribed.
2. Contact the provider to discuss increasing the dose to 30 mg/day.
3. Recommend taking the drug with meals to reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
4. Report signs of drug toxicity to the patient’s provider.

A
  1. Ask the child whether the drug is being taken as prescribed.
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21
Q

The nurse is teaching a parent about methylphenidate (Ritalin) to treat attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which statement by the parent indicates understanding of the teaching?
1. I should consult a pharmacist when giving my child OTC medications.
2. I will only give my child diet soft drinks while administering this medication.
3. Medication therapy means that behavioral therapy will not be necessary.
4. Weight gain is a common side effect of this medication.

A
  1. I should consult a pharmacist when giving my child OTC medications.
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22
Q

The parents of a 6-year-old child diagnosed with ADHD will most typically describe their child’s behavior as:
1. a learning disorder and muscle paralysis.
2. nervousness and sleeplessness.
3. hyperactivity and decreased attention span
4. hyperactivity and nervousness.

A
  1. hyperactivity and decreased attention span
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23
Q

A pediatric nurse admits a child who has a history of ADHD. The nurse is aware that ADHD may display as:
1. poor coordination and abnormal electroencephalogram (EEG).
2. abnormal EEG and decrease in intelligence.
3. minimal brain dysfunction and a marked decrease in intelligence.
4. developmental delay and poor coordination.

A
  1. poor coordination and abnormal electroencephalogram (EEG).
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24
Q

A nurse is teaching the family of a child with ADHD about her diet and medications. The child is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin) every day. In teaching about the client’s diet, it is most important that the nurse encourage the child to avoid which foods and/or drinks?
1. High-sodium foods
2. High-sugar foods and drinks
3. High-fat foods
4. Caffeinated foods and drinks

A
  1. Caffeinated foods and drinks
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25
Q

A client with ADHD is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). Based on the half-life of the drug, how often should the nurse administer the drug?
1. Daily
2. Twice a day
3. Every 8 hours
4. Every 12 hours

A
  1. Twice a day
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26
Q

The nurse is teaching a group in the community about drug abuse. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
1.Cue-induced cravings eventually disappear after long periods of abstinence by the person addicted todrugs.
2.Drug abuse and drug addiction are synonymous terms, describing dependence on drugs.
3.Drug addiction is characterized by emotional, mental, and sometimes physical dependence.
4.Drug addiction occurs when physical dependence is present.

A

3.Drug addiction is characterized by emotional, mental, and sometimes physical dependence.

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27
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for chronic alcohol intoxication. The nurse notes that the patients serum alcohol level is 0.40 mg%. The patient is awake and talkative even though this is a potentially lethal dose. The nurse recognizes this as alcohol
1.addiction.
2.dependence.
3.misuse.
4.tolerance.

A

4.tolerance.

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28
Q

What does the nurse understand must occur in order to produce withdrawal syndrome?
1.Addiction
2.Craving
3.Drug tolerance
4.Physical dependence

A

4.Physical dependence

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29
Q

The nurse is counseling a patient who wants to stop smoking. Which statement by the nurse is correct?
1. Bupropion (Zyban) is effective and does not have serious adverse effects.
2. Nicotine replacement therapies are effective and eliminate the need for behavioral therapy.
3. Varenicline (Chantix) may be used short-term for 1 to 2 months.
4. You may experience headaches and increased appetite for several months after stopping smoking.

A
  1. You may experience headaches and increased appetite for several months after stopping smoking.
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30
Q

A patient with asthma has been using a nicotine transdermal 24-hour patch for 3 weeks to quit smoking. The patient reports having difficulty sleeping. What action will the nurse take?
1. Ask the provider for a prescription for Nicotrol NS.
2. Recommend removing the patch at bedtime.
3. Suggest using an 18-hour patch instead.
4. Tell the patient to stop the patch and join a support group.

A
  1. Suggest using an 18-hour patch instead.
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31
Q

The nurse is discussing smoking cessation with a nurse colleague who smokes. Which statement indicates a readiness to quit smoking?
1. I don’t smoke around my children or inside the house.
2. I want to stop smoking, but I will need help to do it.
3. I will quit so my co-workers will stop harassing me about it.
4. If I cut down gradually, I should be able to quit.

A
  1. I want to stop smoking, but I will need help to do it.
32
Q

A patient is using the Commit lozenge 2 mg to help quit smoking and reports nausea and indigestion. The nurse will instruct the patient to perform which action?
1. Allow the lozenge to dissolve slowly over 20 to 30 minutes.
2. Chew the lozenge thoroughly before swallowing it.
3. Increase to 4 mg and use less often.
4. Take the lozenge with food and a full glass of water.

A
  1. Allow the lozenge to dissolve slowly over 20 to 30 minutes.
33
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency department by a family member. The patient reports seeing colored lights and describes feeling bugs crawling under the skin. The nurse suspects that this patient is abusing which drug?
1. Alcohol
2. Cocaine
3. LSD
4. Methamphetamine

A
  1. Cocaine
34
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who is chronically irritable and anxious and prone to violent behaviors. The patient has several teeth missing and has dental caries in the remaining teeth. The nurse suspects previous chronic use of which drug?
1. Alcohol
2. Cocaine
3. LSD
4. Methamphetamine

A
  1. Methamphetamine
35
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient who has completed detoxification for alcohol abuse who will be discharged home with a prescription for disulfiram (Antabuse). Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?
1. Even topical products containing alcohol can have serious adverse effects while I am taking this drug.
2. If I experience drowsiness or skin rash, I should discontinue this drug immediately.
3. It is safe to take a product containing alcohol one week after the last dose of disulfiram.
4. This drug acts by blocking the pleasurable effects of alcohol.

A
  1. Even topical products containing alcohol can have serious adverse effects while I am taking this drug.
36
Q

A patient who has a long history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. In addition to medications needed to treat withdrawal symptoms, the nurse will anticipate giving intravenous
1. dopamine to restore blood pressure.
2. fluid boluses to treat dehydration.
3. glucose to prevent hypoglycemia.
4. thiamine to treat nutritional deficiency.

A
  1. thiamine to treat nutritional deficiency.
37
Q

A patient arrives in the emergency department in an acute state of alcohol intoxication and reports chronic consumption of several six packs of beer every day for the past year. The nurse anticipates administering which medication or treatment?
1. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
2. Disulfiram (Antabuse)
3. Gastric lavage
4. Vasoconstrictors

A
  1. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
38
Q

A patient who is unconscious arrives in the emergency department with clammy skin and constricted pupils. The nurse assesses a respiratory rate of 8 to 10 breaths per minute. The paramedics report obvious signs of drug abuse in the patient’s home. The nurse suspects that this patient has had an overdose of which substance?
1. Alcohol
2. LSD
3. An opioid
4. Methamphetamine

A
  1. An opioid
39
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency department after ingesting an overdose of lorazepam (Ativan) several hours prior. The patient has a respiratory rate of 6 to 10 breaths per minute and is unconscious. The nurse will prepare to perform which action?
1. Administer activated charcoal.
2. Give flumazenil (Romazicon).
3. Give naloxone (Narcan).
4. Perform gastric lavage.

A
  1. Give flumazenil (Romazicon).
40
Q

A patient with a history of opioid abuse will be discharged home with buprenorphine to help prevent relapse. Which product will the nurse anticipate the provider to order?
1. Buprenex
2. Suboxone
3. Subutex
4.Vivitrol

A
  1. Buprenex-less abuse potential
41
Q

The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home with naltrexone (ReVia) after treatment for opioid addiction. What information will the nurse include in the teaching for this patient?
1. This drug will help control cravings.
2.You may take this drug once weekly.
3. ReVia blocks the pleasurable effects of opioids.
4. If you discontinue this drug abruptly, you will have withdrawal symptoms.

A
  1. ReVia blocks the pleasurable effects of opioids.
42
Q

Sympathetic Antagonist

A

AKA: adrenergic antagonist

Blocks sympathetic response

43
Q

Adrenergic Agonist

A

Stimulate, activate, helper

Stimulate deep sympathetic response

44
Q

Cholinergic drugs

A

Acetylcholine (ACTH)
agonist-stimulates parasympathetic response (parasympathomimetic)
antagonists:
Parasympatholytic, anticholinergic, or antimuscarinic

45
Q

Sarah, a 42-year-old female, requests a prescription for an anorexiant to treat her obesity. A trial of phentermine is prescribed. Prescribing precautions include:
1.Understanding that obesity is a contraindication to prescribing phentermine
2.Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for 6 months
3.Patients should be monitored for postural hypotension
4.Renal function should be monitored closely while on anorexiants

A

2.Anorexiants may cause tolerance and should only be prescribed for 6 months

46
Q

Before prescribing phentermine to Sarah, a thorough drug history should be taken includingassessing for the use of serotonergic agents such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)and St John’s wort due to:
1.Additive respiratory depression risk
2.Additive effects affecting liver function
3.The risk of serotonin syndrome
4.The risk of altered cognitive functioning

A

3.The risk of serotonin syndrome

47
Q

Antonia is a 3-year-old child who has a history of status epilepticus. Along with her routine antiseizure medication, she should also have a home prescription for________ to be used for an episode of status epilepticus.
1.IV phenobarbital
2.Rectal diazepam (Diastat)
3.IV phenytoin (Dilantin)
4.Oral carbamazepine (Tegretol)

A

2.Rectal diazepam (Diastat)

48
Q

Rabi is being prescribed phenytoin for seizures. Monitoring includes assessing:
1.For phenytoin hypersensitivity syndrome 3 to 8 weeks after starting treatment
2.For pedal edema throughout therapy
3.Heart rate at each visit and consider altering therapy if heart rate is less than60 bpm
4.For vision changes, such as red-green blindness, at least annually

A

1.For phenytoin hypersensitivity syndrome 3 to 8 weeks after starting treatment

49
Q

Dwayne has recently started on carbamazepine to treat seizures. He comes to see you and you notethat while his carbamazepine levels had been in the therapeutic range, they are now low. Thepossible cause for the low carbamazepine levels include:
1.Dwayne hasn’t been taking his carbamazepine because it causes insomnia.
2.Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.
3.Dwayne was not originally prescribed the correct amount of carbamazepine.
4.Carbamazepine is probably not the right antiseizure medication for Dwayne.

A

2.Carbamazepine auto-induces metabolism, leading to lower levels in spite of good compliance.

50
Q

Carbamazepine has a Black Box Warning due to life-threatening:
1.Renal toxicity, leading to renal failure
2.Hepatotoxicity, leading to liver failure
3.Dermatologic reaction, including Steven’s Johnson and toxic epidermal necrolysis
4.Cardiac effects, including supraventricular tachycardia

A

3.Dermatologic reaction, including Steven’s Johnson and toxic epidermal necrolysis

51
Q

Long-term monitoring of patients who are taking carbamazepine includes:
1. Routine troponin levels to assess for cardiac damage
2. Annual eye examinations to assess for cataract development
3. Monthly pregnancy tests for all women of childbearing age
4. Complete blood count every 3 to 4 months

A
  1. Complete blood count every 3 to 4 months
52
Q

The tricyclic antidepressants should be prescribed cautiously in patients with:
1. Eczema
2. Asthma
3. Diabetes
4. Heart disease

A
  1. Heart disease
53
Q

A 66-year-old male was prescribed phenelzine (Nardil) while in an acute psychiatric unit for recalcitrant depression. The NP managing his primary health care needs to understand the following regarding phenelzine and other monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs):
1. He should not be prescribed any serotonergic drug such as sumatriptan (Imitrex)
2. MAOIs interact with many common foods, including yogurt, sour cream, and soy sauce
3. Symptoms of hypertensive crisis (headache, tachycardia, sweating) require immediate treatment
4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
54
Q

Taylor is a 10-year-old child diagnosed with major depression. The appropriate first-line antidepressant for children is:
1. Fluoxetine
2. Fluvoxamine
3. Sertraline
4. Escitalopram

A
  1. Fluoxetine
55
Q

Suzanne is started on paroxetine (Paxil), a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), for depression. Education regarding her antidepressant includes:
1. SSRIs may take 2 to 6 weeks before she will have maximum drug effects.
2. Red-green color blindness may occur and should be reported.
3. If she experiences dry mouth or heart rates greater than 80, she should stop taking the drug immediately.
4. She should eat lots of food high in fiber to prevent constipation.

A
  1. SSRIs may take 2 to 6 weeks before she will have maximum drug effects.
56
Q

Cecilia presents with depression associated with complaints of fatigue, sleeping all the time, and lack of motivation. An appropriate initial antidepressant for her would be:
1. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
2. Paroxetine (Paxil)
3. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
4. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

A
  1. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
57
Q

Jake, a 45-year-old patient with schizophrenia, was recently hospitalized for acute psychosis due to medication noncompliance. He was treated with IM long-acting haloperidol. Besides monitoring his schizophrenia symptoms, the patient should be assessed by his primary care provider:
1. For excessive weight loss
2. With the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
3. Monthly for tolerance to the haloperidol
4. Only by the mental health provider, as most NPs in primary care do not care for mentally ill patients

A
  1. With the Abnormal Involuntary Movement Scale (AIMS) for extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
58
Q

Anticholinergic agents, such as benztropine (Cogentin), may be given with a phenothiazine to:
1. Reduce the chance of tardive dyskinesia
2. Potentiate the effects of the drug
3. Reduce the tolerance that tends to occur
4. Increase central nervous system (CNS) depression

A
  1. Potentiate the effects of the drug
59
Q

Patients who are prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa) should be monitored for:
1. Insomnia
2. Weight gain
3. Hypertension
4. Galactorrhea

A
  1. Insomnia
60
Q

A 19-year-old male was started on risperidone. Monitoring for risperidone includes observing for common side effects, including:
1. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
2. Excessive weight gain
3. Hypertension
4. Potentially fatal agranulocytosis

A
  1. Bradykinesia, akathisia, and agitation
61
Q

In choosing a benzo diazepam to treat anxiety the prescriber needs to be aware of the possibility of dependence. The benzo diazepam with the greatest likelihood of rapidly developing dependence is:
1. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
2. Clonazepam (Klonopin)
3. Alprazolam (Xanax)
4. Oxazepam (Serax)

A
  1. Alprazolam (Xanax)
62
Q

A patient with anxiety and depression may respond to:
1. Duloxetine (Cymbalta)
2. Fluoxetine (Prozac)
3. Oxazepam (Serax)
4. Buspirone (Buspar) and an SSRI combined

A
  1. Buspirone (Buspar) and an SSRI combined
63
Q

When prescribing temazepam (Restoril) for insomnia, patient education includes:
1. Take temazepam nightly approximately 15 minutes before bedtime.
2. Temazepam should not be used more than three times a week for less than 3 months.
3. Drinking 1 ounce of alcohol will cause additive effects and the patient will sleep better.
4. Exercise for at least 30 minutes within 2 hours of bedtime to enhance the effects of temazepam.

A
  1. Temazepam should not be used more than three times a week for less than 3 months.
64
Q

Patients should be instructed regarding the rapid onset of zolpidem (Ambien) because:
1. Zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed.
2. Zolpidem may cause dry mouth and constipation.
3. Patients may need to double the dose for effectiveness.
4. They should stop drinking alcohol at least 30 minutes before taking zolpidem.

A
  1. Zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed.
65
Q

One major drug used to treat bipolar disease is lithium. Because lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, it is important to recognize symptoms of toxicity, such as:
1. Orthostatic hypotension
2. Agitation and irritability
3. Drowsiness and nausea
4. Painful urination and abdominal distention

A
  1. Drowsiness and nausea
66
Q

Tom is taking lithium for bipolar disorder. He should be taught to:
1. Take his lithium with food
2. Eat a diet with consistent levels of salt (sodium)
3. Drink at least 2 quarts of water if he is in a hot environment
4. Monitor blood glucose levels

A
  1. Eat a diet with consistent levels of salt (sodium)
67
Q

Jack, age 8, has attention deficit disorder (ADD) and is prescribed methylphenidate (Ritalin). He and his parents should be educated about the side effects of methylphenidate, which are:
1. Slurred speech and insomnia
2. Bradycardia and confusion
3. Dizziness and orthostatic hypotension
4. Insomnia and decreased appetite

A
  1. Insomnia and decreased appetite
68
Q

Monitoring for a child on methylphenidate for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) includes:
1. ADHD symptoms
2. Routine height and weight checks
3. Amount of methylphenidate being used
4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
69
Q

When prescribing Adderall (amphetamine and dextroamphetamine) to adults with ADHD the nurse practitioner will need to monitor:
1. Blood pressure
2. Blood glucose levels
3. Urine ketone levels
4. Liver function

A
  1. Blood pressure
70
Q
  1. John has clonidine, a centrally acting adrenergic blocker, prescribed for his hypertension. He should:
    a. Not miss a dose or stop taking the drug because of potential rebound hypertension
    b. Increase fiber in the diet to treat any diarrhea that may occur
    c. Reduce fluid intake to less than 2 liters per day to prevent fluid retention
    d. Avoid sitting for long periods, as this can lead to deep vein thrombosis
A
  1. Not miss a dose or stop taking the drug because of potential rebound hypertension
71
Q
  1. Clonidine has several off-label uses, including:
    a. Alcohol and nicotine withdrawal
    b. Post-herpetic neuralgia
    c. Both 1 and 2
    d. Neither 1 nor 2
A

3 Both 1 and 2

72
Q
  1. Anticholinesterase inhibitors are used to treat:
  2. Peptic ulcer disease
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Both 1 and 2
  5. Neither 1 nor 2
A
  1. Myasthenia gravis
73
Q

Nicotine has a variety of effects on nicotinic receptors throughout the body. Which of the
following is NOT an effect of nicotine?
1. Vasodilation and decreased heart rate
2. Increased secretion of gastric acid and motility of the GI smooth muscle
3. Release of dopamine at the pleasure center
4. Stimulation of the locus coeruleus

A
  1. Vasodilation and decreased heart rate
74
Q

Nicotine gum products are:
1. Chewed to release the nicotine and then swallowed for a systemic effect
2. “Parked” in the buccal area of the mouth to produce a constant amount of nicotine
release
3. Bound to exchange resins so the nicotine is only released during chewing
4. Approximately the same in nicotine content as smoking two cigarettes

A
  1. Bound to exchange resins so the nicotine is only released during chewing
75
Q

Cholinergic blockers are used to:
1. Counteract the extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) effects of phenothiazines
2. Control tremors and relax smooth muscle in Parkinson’s disease
3. Inhibit the muscarinic action of ACh on bladder muscle
4. All of the above

A

Counteract the extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) effects of phenothiazines
Control tremors and relax smooth muscle in Parkinson’s disease
Inhibit the muscarinic action of ACh on bladder muscle
4. All of the above

76
Q

Several classes of drugs have interactions with cholinergic blockers. Which of the following is
true about these interactions?
1. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract
long enough to produce an action.
2. Additive antimuscarinic effects may occur with antihistamines.
3. Cholinergic blockers may decrease the sedative effects of hypnotics.
4. Cholinergic blockers are contraindicated with antipsychotics.

A
  1. Drugs with a narrow therapeutic range given orally may not stay in the GI tract
77
Q
  1. Activation of central alpha2 receptors results in inhibition of cardio acceleration and
    centers in the brain.
  2. Vasodilation
  3. Vasoconstriction
  4. Cardiovascular
  5. Respiratory
A
  1. Vasoconstriction