Exam 3: Mod 7-9 Flashcards

lets keep that A

1
Q

Both men and women experience bone loss with aging. The bones most likely to demonstrate significant loss are:
1.Cortical bones
2.Femoral neck bones
3.Cervical vertebrae
4.Pelvic bones

A

2.Femoral neck bones

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2
Q

Bisphosphonates treat or prevent osteoporosis by:
1.Inhibiting osteoclastic activity
2.Fostering bone resorption
3.Enhancing calcium uptake in the bone
4.Strengthening the osteoclastic proton pump

A

1.Inhibiting osteoclastic activity

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3
Q

Prophylactic use of bisphosphonates is recommended for patients with early osteopenia related to long-term use of which of the following drugs?
1.Selective estrogen receptor modulators
2.Aspirin
3.Glucocorticoids
4.Calcium supplements

A

3.Glucocorticoids

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4
Q

Hypoglycemia can result from the action of either insulin or an oral hypoglycemic. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:
1.“Fruity” breath odor and rapid respiration
2. Diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, and hypertension
3. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
4. Easy bruising, palpitations, cardiac dysrhythmias, and coma

A
  1. Dizziness, confusion, diaphoresis, and tachycardia
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5
Q

Lispro is an insulin analogue produced by recombinant DNA technology. Which of the following statements about this form of insulin is NOT true?
1. Optimal time of preprandial injection is 15 minutes.
2. Duration of action is increased when the dose is increased.
3. It is compatible with neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin.
4. It has no pronounced peak.

A
  1. Duration of action is increased when the dose is increased.
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6
Q

The decision may be made to switch from twice daily neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin to insulin glargine to improve glycemia control throughout the day. If this is done:
1. The initial dose of glargine is reduced by 20% to avoid hypoglycemia.
2. The initial dose of glargine is 2 to 10 units per day.
3. Patients who have been on high doses of NPH will need tests for insulin antibodies.
4. Obese patients may require more than 100 units per day.

A
  1. The initial dose of glargine is reduced by 20% to avoid hypoglycemia.
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7
Q

When blood glucose levels are difficult to control in type 2 diabetes, some form of insulin may be added to the treatment regimen to control blood glucose and limit complication risks. Which of the following statements is accurate based on research?
1. Premixed insulin analogues are better at lowering HbA1C and have less risk for hypoglycemia.
2. Premixed insulin analogues and the newer premixed insulins are associated with more weight gain than the oral antidiabetic agents.
3. Newer premixed insulins are better at lowering HbA1C and postprandial glucose levels than long-acting insulins.
4. Patients who are not controlled on oral agents and have postprandial hyperglycemia can have neutral protamine Hagedorn insulin added at bedtime.

A
  1. Newer premixed insulins are better at lowering HbA1C and postprandial glucose levels than long-acting insulins.
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8
Q

Metformin is a primary choice of drug to treat hyperglycemia in type 2 diabetes because it:
1. Substitutes for insulin usually secreted by the pancreas
2. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
3. Increases the release of insulin from beta cells
4. Decreases peripheral glucose utilization

A
  1. Decreases glycogenolysis by the liver
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9
Q

Prior to prescribing metformin, the provider should:
1. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function
2. Try the patient on insulin
3. Tell the patient to increase iodine intake
4. Have the patient stop taking any sulfonylurea to avoid dangerous drug interactions

A
  1. Draw a serum creatinine to assess renal function
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10
Q

The action of “gliptins” is different from other antidiabetic agents because they:
1. Have a low risk for hypoglycemia
2. Are not associated with weight gain
3. Close ATP-dependent potassium channels in the beta cell
4. Act on the incretin system to indirectly increase insulin production

A
  1. Act on the incretin system to indirectly increase insulin production
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11
Q

Sitagliptin has been approved for:
1. Monotherapy in once-daily doses
2. Combination therapy with metformin
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

A
  1. Both 1 and 2
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12
Q

GLP-1 agonists:
1. Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell
2. Have been approved for monotherapy
3. Speed gastric emptying to decrease appetite
4. Can be given orally once daily

A
  1. Directly bind to a receptor in the pancreatic beta cell
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13
Q

Potentially fatal granulocytopenia has been associated with treatment of hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil. Patients should be taught to report:
1. Tinnitus and decreased salivation
2. Fever and sore throat
3. Hypocalcemia and osteoporosis
4. Laryngeal edema and difficulty swallowing

A
  1. Fever and sore throat
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14
Q

Elderly patients who are started on levothyroxine for thyroid replacement should be monitored for:
1. Excessive sedation
2. Tachycardia and angina
3. Weight gain
4. Cold intolerance

A
  1. Tachycardia and angina
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15
Q

Which of the following is not an indication that growth hormone supplements should be discontinued?
1. Imaging indication of epiphyseal closure
2. Growth curve increases have plateaued
3. Complaints of mild bone pain
4. Achievement of anticipated height goals

A
  1. Complaints of mild bone pain
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16
Q

What is the role of calcium supplements when patients take bisphosphonates?
1. They must be restricted to allow the medication to work.
2. They must be taken in sufficient amounts to provide foundational elements for bone growth.
3. They must be taken at the same time as the bisphosphonates.
4. They only work with bisphosphonates if daily intake is restricted.

A
  1. They must be taken in sufficient amounts to provide foundational elements for bone growth.
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17
Q

Type 1 diabetes results from autoimmune destruction of the beta cells. Eighty-five to 90% of type 1diabetics have:
1.Autoantibodies to two tyrosine phosphatases
2.Mutation of the hepatic transcription factor on chromosome 12
3.A defective glucokinase molecule due to a defective gene on chromosome 7p
4.Mutation of the insulin promoter factor

A

1.Autoantibodies to two tyrosine phosphatases

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18
Q

Type 2 diabetes is a complex disorder involving:
1.Absence of insulin production by the beta cells
2.A suboptimal response of insulin-sensitive tissues in the liver
3.Increased levels of glucagon-like peptide in the postprandial period
4.Too much fat uptake in the intestine

A

2.A suboptimal response of insulin-sensitive tissues in the liver

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19
Q

Diagnostic criteria for diabetes include:
1.Fasting blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl on two occasions
2.Postprandial blood glucose greater than 140 mg/dl
3.Fasting blood glucose 100 to 125 mg/dl on two occasions
4.Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

A

4.Symptoms of diabetes plus a casual blood glucose greater than 200 mg/dl

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20
Q

Routine screening of asymptomatic adults for diabetes is appropriate for:
1.Individuals who are older than 45 and have a BMI of less than 25 kg/m2
2.Native Americans, African Americans, and Hispanics
3.Persons with HDL cholesterol greater than 100 mg/dl
4.Persons with prediabetes confirmed on at least two occasions

A

2.Native Americans, African Americans, and Hispanics

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21
Q

Screening for children who meet the following criteria should begin at age 10 and occur every 3 years thereafter:
1.BMI above the 85th percentile for age and sex
2.Family history of diabetes in first- or second-degree relative
3.Hypertension based on criteria for children
4.Any of the above

A

4.Any of the above

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22
Q

Insulin is used to treat both types of diabetes. It acts by:
1.Increasing beta cell response to low blood-glucose levels
2.Stimulating hepatic glucose production
3.Increasing peripheral glucose uptake by skeletal muscle and fat
4.Improving the circulation of free fatty acids

A

3.Increasing peripheral glucose uptake by skeletal muscle and fat

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23
Q

Insulin preparations are divided into categories based on onset, duration, and intensity of action following subcutaneous injection. Which of the following insulin preparations has the shortest onset and duration of action?
1. Lispro
2. Glulisine
3. Glargine
4. Detemir

A
  1. Glulisine
    ??
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24
Q

Sulfonylureas may be added to a treatment regimen for type 2 diabetics when lifestyle modifications and metformin are insufficient to achieve target glucose levels. Sulfonylureas have been moved to Step 2 therapy because they:
1. Increase endogenous insulin secretion
2. Have a significant risk for hypoglycemia
3. Address the insulin resistance found in type 2 diabetics
4. Improve insulin binding to receptors

A
  1. Have a significant risk for hypoglycemia
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25
Q

Control targets for patients with diabetes include:
1. HbA1C between 7 and 8
2. Fasting blood glucose levels between 100 and 120 mg/dl
3. Blood pressure less than 130/80 mm Hg
4. LDL lipids less than 130 mg/dl

A
  1. Blood pressure less than 130/80 mm Hg
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26
Q

Establishing glycemic targets is the first step in the treatment of both types of diabetes. For type 1 diabetes:
1. Tight control/intensive therapy can be given to adults who are willing to test their blood glucose at least twice daily.
2. Tight control is acceptable for older adults if they are without complications.
3. Plasma glucose levels are the same for children as adults.
4. Conventional therapy has a fasting plasma glucose target between 120 and 150

A
  1. Conventional therapy has a fasting plasma glucose target between 120 and 150
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27
Q

Treatment with insulin for type 1 diabetics:
1. Starts with a total daily dose of 0.2 to 0.4 units per kg of body weight
2. Divides the total doses into three injections based on meal size
3. Uses a total daily dose of insulin glargine given once daily with no other insulin required
4. Is based on the level of blood glucose

A
  1. Starts with a total daily dose of 0.2 to 0.4 units per kg of body weight
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28
Q

When the total daily insulin dose is split and given twice daily, which of the following rules may be followed?
1. Give two-thirds of the total dose in the morning and one-third in the evening.
2. Give 0.3 units per kg of premixed 70/30 insulin with one-third in the morning and two-thirds in the evening.
3. Give 50% of an insulin glargine dose in the morning and 50% in the evening.
4. Give long-acting insulin in the morning and short-acting insulin at bedtime.

A
  1. Give two-thirds of the total dose in the morning and one-third in the evening.
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29
Q

Studies have shown that control targets that reduce the HbA1C to less than 7% are associated with fewer long-term complications of diabetes. Patients who should have such a target include:
1. Those with long-standing diabetes
2. Older adults
3. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
4. Young children who are early in their disease

A
  1. Those with no significant cardiovascular disease
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30
Q

Prevention of conversion from prediabetes to diabetes in young children must take the highest priority and should focus on:
1. Aggressive dietary manipulation to prevent obesity
2. Fostering LDL levels less than 100 mg/dl and total cholesterol less than 170 mg/dl to prevent cardiovascular disease
3. Maintaining a blood pressure that is less than 80% based on weight and height to prevent hypertension
4. All of the above

A
  1. Fostering LDL levels less than 100 mg/dl and total cholesterol less than 170 mg/dl to prevent cardiovascular disease
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31
Q

The drugs recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics for use in children with diabetes (depending upon type of diabetes) are:
1. Metformin and insulin
2. Sulfonylureas and insulin glargine
3. Split-mixed dose insulin and GPL-1 agonists
4. Biguanides and insulin lispro

A
  1. Metformin and insulin
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32
Q

The drugs recommended for older adults with type 2 diabetes include:
1. Second-generation sulfonylureas
2. Metformin
3. Pioglitazone
4. Third-generation sulfonylureas

A
  1. Third-generation sulfonylureas
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33
Q

The American Heart Association states that people with diabetes have a 2- to 4-fold increase in the risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Treatments and targets that do not appear to decrease risk for micro- and macro-vascular complications include:
1. Glycemic targets between 7% and 7.5%
2. Use of insulin in type 2 diabetics
3. Control of hypertension and hyperlipidemia
4. Stopping smoking

A
  1. Glycemic targets between 7% and 7.5%
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34
Q

All diabetic patients with known cardiovascular disease should be treated with:
1. Beta blockers to prevent MIs
2. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and aspirin to reduce risk of cardiovascular events
3. Sulfonylureas to decrease cardiovascular mortality
4. Pioglitazone to decrease atherosclerotic plaque buildup

A
  1. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and aspirin to reduce risk of cardiovascular events
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35
Q

All diabetic patients with hyperlipidemia should be treated with:
1. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
2. Fibric acid derivatives
3. Nicotinic acid
4. Colestipol

A
  1. HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors
    ??
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36
Q

Both angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors and some angiotensin II receptor blockers have been approved in treating:
1. Hypertension in diabetic patients
2. Diabetic nephropathy
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

A
  1. Both 1 and 2
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37
Q

Protein restriction helps slow the progression of albuminuria, glomerular filtration rate, decline, and end stage renal disease in some patients with diabetes. It is useful for patients who:
1. Cannot tolerate angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers
2. Have uncontrolled hypertension
3. Have HbA1C levels above 7%
4. Show progression of diabetic nephropathy despite optimal glucose and blood pressure control

A
  1. Show progression of diabetic nephropathy despite optimal glucose and blood pressure control
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38
Q

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy (DAN) is the earliest and most common complication of diabetes. Symptoms associated with DAN include:
1. Resting tachycardia, exercise intolerance, and orthostatic hypotension
2. Gastroparesis, cold intolerance, and moist skin
3. Hyperglycemia, erectile dysfunction, and deficiency of free fatty acids
4. Pain, loss of sensation, and muscle weakness

A
  1. Resting tachycardia, exercise intolerance, and orthostatic hypotension
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39
Q

Allison is an 18-year-old college student with type 1 diabetes. She is on NPH twice daily and Novolog before meals. She usually walks for 40 minutes each evening as part of her exercise regimen. She is beginning a 30-minute swimming class three times a week at 1 p.m. What is important for her to do with this change in routine?
1. Delay eating the midday meal until after the swimming class.
2. Increase the morning dose of NPH insulin on days of the swimming class.
3. Adjust the morning insulin injection so that the peak occurs while swimming.
4. Check glucose level before, during, and after swimming.

A
  1. Check glucose level before, during, and after swimming.
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40
Q

Bart is a patient is a 67-year-old male with T2 DM. He is on glipizide and metformin. He presents to the clinic with confusion, sluggishness, and extreme thirst. His wife tells you Bart does not follow his meal plan or exercise regularly and hasn’t checked his BG for 1 week. A random glucose is drawn and it is 500. What is a likely diagnosis based on a preliminary assessment?
1. Diabetic keto acidosis (DKA)
2. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)
3. Infection
4. Hypoglycemia

A
  1. Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS)
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41
Q

What would one expected assessment finding be for hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome?
1. Low hemoglobin
2. Ketones in the urine
3. Deep, labored breathing
4. pH of 7.35

A
  1. Ketones in the urine
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42
Q

The nurse is teaching the patient, newly diagnosed with Graves’ disease, about the normal functioning of the thyroid gland. What hormone will the nurse tell the patient controls production and release of thyroid hormones?
1.Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
2.Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
3.Tetraiodothyronine
4.Triiodothyronine

A

2.Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

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43
Q

The nurse is providing patient teaching regarding the administration of levothyroxine (Synthroid). What is the nurse’s priority teaching point?
1. Take the medication after breakfast.
2. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
3. Remain in the upright position for 30 minutes after administering.
4. Take the medication before going to bed at night.

A
  1. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
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44
Q

The nurse instructs the patient with a new prescription to treat hyperthyroidism and includes the importance of regular lab studies to monitor for bone marrow suppression, which can be an adverse effect of this drug. What drug is the nurse teaching the patient about?
1. Methimazole (Tapazole)
2. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
3. Sodium iodide I131 (Generic)
4. Potassium iodide (Thyro-Block)

A
  1. Methimazole (Tapazole)
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45
Q

A patient is seen in the clinic and diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Potassium iodide is prescribed. The nurse reviews the patient’s medical record before administering the drug. What assessment finding would cause the nurse to alter the plan of care?
1. A daily walk of 3 miles a day
2. A low fat, low sodium diet
3. A bowel movement every 2 to 3 days
4. Digoxin 0.125 mg daily

A
  1. Digoxin 0.125 mg daily
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46
Q

A patient with Pagets disease calls the clinic and tells the nurse that she is experiencing flushing of the face and hands and a rash. The patient states that she is taking calcitonin, salmon (Calcimar) for her Pagets disease. What is the nurses best response?
1. We expected this to happen. Just ignore it and please do not worry about it.
2. You will need to see the doctor immediately. Come in as soon as possible.
3. This is a common adverse effect of your medication that will lessen with time.
4. This is a serious adverse effect. Stop taking the drug and see the doctor today.

A
  1. This is a common adverse effect of your medication that will lessen with time.
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47
Q

The nurse admits an elderly patient in thyroid crisis for whom surgery is not an option. What antithyroid drug would the nurse expect will be ordered?
1. Methimazole (Tapazole)
2. Radioactive iodine (Generic)
3. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
4. Potassium iodide (Thyro-Block)

A
  1. Radioactive iodine (Generic)
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48
Q

After administering propylthiouracil (PTU), what effect would the nurse anticipate the drug will have in the patient’s body?
1. To destroy part of the thyroid gland
2. To inhibit production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland
3. To suppress the anterior pituitary glands secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
4. To suppress the hypothalamuss production of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)

A
  1. To inhibit production of thyroid hormone in the thyroid gland
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49
Q

What assessment findings would the nurse expect to see in a patient who overdosed on levothyroxine (Synthroid)?
1. Nervousness, tachycardia, tremors
2. Somnolence, bradycardia, paresthesia
3. Hyperglycemia, hypertension, edema
4. Buffalo hump, constipation, sodium loss

A
  1. Nervousness, tachycardia, tremors
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50
Q

The nurse, developing a care plan for a patient diagnosed with hypothyroidism, creates what appropriate nursing diagnosis?
1. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements
2. Ineffective thermoregulation: Excess or ineffective airway clearance
3. Decreased cardiac output
4. Ineffective airway clearance

A
  1. Decreased cardiac output
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51
Q

A patient is diagnosed with a simple goiter and asks the nurse what caused it. What is the nurses best response?
1. A goiter is the result of too much thyroxine.
2. A goiter is the result of a chloride deficiency.
3. A goiter is the result of too much TSH.
4. A goiter is the result of an iodine deficiency.

A
  1. A goiter is the result of too much TSH.
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52
Q

The patient with hypothyroidism takes levothyroxine daily and has triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4), and thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels drawn in the laboratory to check appropriateness of prescribed dosage. What results would the nurse analyze as indicating the need for a higher dosage of medication?
1. Elevated TSH, elevated T3, and reduced T4 levels
2. Reduced TSH, elevated T3 and T4 levels
3. Elevated TSH, reduced T3 and T4 levels
4. Reduced TSH, T3, and T4 levels

A
  1. Elevated TSH, reduced T3 and T4 levels
53
Q

A patient presents at the clinic with complaints of weight loss despite an increased appetite. The nurse assesses this patient for what?
1. Chronic thyroiditis
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Hyperthyroidism

A
  1. Hyperthyroidism
54
Q

What patient will the nurse assess most closely for secondary hyperparathyroidism?
1. The 12-year-old patient with hypothyroidism
2. The 68-year-old patient with chronic renal failure
3. The 35-year-old patient with diabetes mellitus
4. The 48-year-old patient with hyperthyroidism

A
  1. The 68-year-old patient with chronic renal failure
55
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with hypothyroidism. The patient also takes theophylline to control asthma symptoms. What changes will need to be made to the patient’s theophylline dose?
1. Decrease theophylline dosage immediately.
2. Increase theophylline dosage immediately.
3. Increase theophylline dose when normal thyroid function returns.
4. Decrease theophylline dose when normal thyroid function returns.

A
  1. Increase theophylline dosage immediately.
56
Q

The nurse is caring for a 57-year-old woman who is complaining about gaining so much weight after menopause and suggests that thyroid hormone replacement would help her lose weight and speed up her metabolism. What is the nurses best response?
1. Inducing a state of hyperthyroidism would result in weight loss.
2. People who are not hypothyroid should not take thyroid hormones.
3. People who take thyroid hormones without cause will end up damaging their heart.
4. The body compensates for the extra hormone by reducing the amount secreted.

A
  1. The body compensates for the extra hormone by reducing the amount secreted.
57
Q

The patient is 8 weeks pregnant and requires an antithyroid medication. The nurse identifies what drug as the drug of choice for this patient?
1. Propylthiouracil
2. Radioactive iodine
3. Alendronate
4. Methimazole

A
  1. Propylthiouracil
58
Q

The nurse tells the patient his or her serum calcium level is elevated and the patient asks what controls calcium levels in the body. What is the nurses best response?
1. Renin
2. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
3. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
4. Epoetin

A
  1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
59
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism who asks the nurse why parathyroid hormone (PTH) is important. The nurse explains that PTH performs what actions in the body? (Select all that apply.)
1. Stimulation of osteoclasts
2. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
3. Stimulation of calcitriol production
4. Increased excretion of calcium from kidneys
5. Decreased retention of vitamin D

A
  1. Stimulation of osteoclasts
  2. Increased intestinal absorption of calcium
  3. Stimulation of calcitriol production
60
Q

The nurse is caring for an asthmatic patient who was prescribed zoledronic acid. What important question should the nurse ask this patient?
1. Can you take aspirin without experiencing any bad effects?
2. Are you taking theophylline to treat your asthma?
3. Do you have a history of diarrhea?
4. Are you taking digoxin?

A
  1. Can you take aspirin without experiencing any bad effects?
61
Q

When methimazole is started for hyperthyroidism it may take ______ to see a total reversal of hyperthyroid symptoms.
1.2 to 4 weeks
2.1 to 2 months
3.3 to 4 months
4.6 to 12 months

A

4.6 to 12 months

62
Q

In addition to methimazole, a symptomatic patient with hyperthyroidism may need a prescriptionfor:
1.A calcium channel blocker
2.A beta blocker
3.Liothyronine
4.An alpha blocker

A

2.A beta blocker

63
Q

After starting a patient with Grave’s disease on an antithyroid agent such as methimazole, patient
monitoring includes TSH and free T4 every:
1.1 to 2 weeks
2.3 to 4 weeks
3.2 to 3 months
4.6 to 9 months

A

2.3 to 4 weeks

64
Q

Goals when treating hypothyroidism with thyroid replacement include:
1.Normal TSH and free T4 levels
2.Resolution of fatigue
3.Weight loss to baseline
4.All of the above

A

4.All of the above

65
Q

In hyperthyroid states, what organ system other than CV must be evaluated to establish potential adverse issues?
1. The liver
2. The nails and skin
3. The eye
4. The ear

A
  1. The eye
66
Q

Laboratory values are actually different for TSH when screening for thyroid issues and when used for medication management. Which of the follow holds true?
1. Screening TSH has a wider range of normal values 0.02-5.0; therapeutic levels need to remain above 5.0.
2. Screening values are much narrower than the acceptable range used to keep a
person stable on hormone replacement.
3. Therapeutic values are kept between 0.05 and 3.0 ideally. Screening values are considered acceptable up to 10.
4. Screening values are between 5 and 10, and therapeutic values are greater than 10.

A
  1. Therapeutic values are kept between 0.05 and 3.0 ideally. Screening values are considered acceptable up to 10.
67
Q

What happens to the typical hormone replacement dose when a woman becomes pregnant?
1. Most women need less medication.
2. Most women do not require a dose change.
3. The average woman needs more medication during pregnancy.
4. The average woman needs more medication only if carrying multiples.

A
  1. The average woman needs more medication during pregnancy.
68
Q

Steroid Taper Strategy

A

o The goal is to reduce the drug to physiological levels or to eliminate the drug altogether.
o For doses above 40 mg, the dose is reduced by 10 mg of prednisone (or its equivalent) every 1 to 3 weeks.
o Doses below 40 mg require reductions of 5 mg every 1 to 3 weeks.
o Once the physiological dose is reached (5 to 7.5 mg/d), the patient can be switched to 1 mg tablets to continue dosage reductions.
o Weekly or biweekly reductions can then be done 1 mg at a time.

69
Q

Education when prescribing androgens to male patients includes advising that:
1.Short-term use places the patient at risk for hepatocellular carcinoma.
2.Cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice may occur with low doses of androgens.
3.Gynecomastia is a rare occurrence with the use of androgens.
4.Low sperm levels only occur with long-term use of androgens.

A

2.Cholestatic hepatitis and jaundice may occur with low doses of androgens.

70
Q

Patients who are prescribed exogenous androgens need to be warned that decreased libido:
1.Is an unusual side effect of androgens and should be reported to the provider
2.Is treated with increased doses of androgens, so the patient should let the provider know if he is having problems
3.May be a sign of early prostate cancer and he should make an appointment for a prostate screening exam
4.May occur with androgen therapy

A

4.May occur with androgen therapy

71
Q

The U.S. Food and Drug Administration warns that androgens may cause:
1.Peliosis hepatis
2.Orthostatic hypotension
3.Menstrual irregularities
4.Acne

A

1.Peliosis hepatis

72
Q

Monitoring for a patient who is using androgens includes evaluation of:
1.Complete blood count and C-reactive protein levels
2.Lipid levels and liver function tests
3.Serum potassium and magnesium levels
4.Urine protein and potassium levels

A

2.Lipid levels and liver function tests

73
Q

Male patients require________before and during androgen therapy.
1.A digital prostate exam
2.A Doppler exam of testicular blood flow
3.Urine analysis for proteinuria
4.Serial orthostatic blood pressures

A

1.A digital prostate exam

74
Q

Absolute contraindications to estrogen therapy include:
1.History of any type of cancer
2.Clotting disorders
3.History of tension headaches
4.Orthostatic hypotension

A

2.Clotting disorders

75
Q

Postmenopausal women with an intact uterus should not be prescribed:
1.Estrogen/progesterone combination
2.IM medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera)
3.Estrogen alone
4. Androgens

A
  1. Estrogen alone
76
Q

Women who have migraines with an aura should not be prescribed estrogen because of:
1. The interaction between triptans and estrogen, limiting migraine therapy choices
2. An increased incidence of migraines with the use of estrogen
3. An increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
4. Patients with migraines may be prescribed estrogen without any concerns

A
  1. An increased risk of stroke occurring with estrogen use
77
Q

A 19-year-old female is a nasal Staph aureus carrier and is placed on 5 days of rifampin for treatment. Her only other medication is combined oral contraceptives. What education should she receive regarding her medications?
1. Separate the oral ingestion of the rifampin and oral contraceptive by at least an hour.
2. Both medications are best tolerated if taken on an empty stomach.
3. She should use a backup method of birth control, such as condoms, for the rest of the current pill pack.
4. If she gets nauseated with the medications, she should call the office for an antiemetic prescription.

A
  1. She should use a backup method of birth control, such as condoms, for the rest of the current pill pack.
78
Q

A 56-year-old woman is complaining of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. To treat her symptoms with the lowest adverse effects, she should be prescribed:
1. Low-dose oral estrogen
2. A low-dose estrogen/progesterone combination
3. A vaginal estradiol ring
4. Vaginal progesterone cream

A
  1. A vaginal estradiol ring
79
Q

Shana is receiving her first medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection. Shana will need to be monitored for:
1. Depression
2. Hypertension
3. Weight loss
4. Cataracts

A
  1. Depression
80
Q

When prescribing medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injections, essential education would include advising of the following potential adverse drug effects:
1. Hypertension and dysuria
2. Depression and weight gain
3. Abdominal pain and constipation
4. Orthostatic hypotension and dermatitis

A
  1. Depression and weight gain
81
Q

The medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection has a Black Box Warning due to:
1. The potential development of significant hypertension
2. Increased risk of strokes
3. Decreased bone density
4. The risk of a life-threatening rash such as Stevens-Johnson

A
  1. Decreased bone density
82
Q

Shana received her first medroxyprogesterone (Depo Provera) injection 6 weeks ago and calls the clinic with a concern that she has been having a light “period” off and on since receiving her Depo shot. What would be the management of Shana?
1. Reassurance that some spotting is normal the first few months of Depo and it should improve.
2. Schedule an appointment for an exam as this is not normal.
3. Prescribe 4 weeks of estrogen to treat the abnormal vaginal bleeding.
4. Order a pregnancy test and suggest she use a back-up method of contraception until she has her next shot.

A
  1. Reassurance that some spotting is normal the first few months of Depo and it should improve.
83
Q

William is a 62-year-old male who is requesting a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He should be screened for _______ before prescribing sildenafil.
1. Renal dysfunction
2. Unstable coronary artery disease
3. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
4. History of priapism

A
  1. Unstable coronary artery disease
84
Q

Men who are prescribed sildenafil (Viagra) need ongoing monitoring for:
1. Development of chest pain or dizziness
2. Weight gain
3. Priapism
4. Renal function

A
  1. Development of chest pain or dizziness
85
Q

Men who are prescribed an erectile dysfunction drug such as sildenafil (Viagra) should be warned about the risk for:
1. Impotence when combined with antihypertensives
2. Fatal hypotension if combined with nitrates
3. Weight gain if combined with antidepressants
4. All of the above

A
  1. Fatal hypotension if combined with nitrates
86
Q

Androgens are indicated for:
1. Symptomatic treatment for male deficiency
2. Female libido, endometriosis, and postmenopausal symptoms
3. Increased muscle mass
4. Symptomatic treatment in both sexes for cancer and HIV
5. 1, 2, and 4
6. All of the above

A
  1. 1, 2, and 4
  2. Symptomatic treatment for male deficiency
  3. Female libido, endometriosis, and postmenopausal symptoms
  4. Symptomatic treatment in both sexes for cancer and HIV
87
Q

Effects of estrogen include:
1. Regulation of the menstrual cycle
2. Maintenance of bone density by increasing bone reabsorption
3. Maintenance of the normal structure of the skin and blood vessels
4. 1 and 3
5. All of the above

A
  1. 1 and 3
  2. Regulation of the menstrual cycle
  3. Maintenance of the normal structure of the skin and blood vessels
88
Q

Absolute contraindications that clinicians must consider when initiating estrogen therapy include:
1. Undiagnosed dysfunctional uterine bleeding
2. Deep vein or arterial thromboemboli within the prior year
3. Endometriosis
4. 1 and 2
5. All of the above

A
  1. 1 and 2
  2. Undiagnosed dysfunctional uterine bleeding
  3. Deep vein or arterial thromboemboli within the prior year
89
Q

Women who are taking an oral contraceptive containing the progesterone drospirenone may require monitoring of:
1.Hemoglobin
2.Serum calcium
3.White blood count
4.Serum potassium

A
  1. Serum potassium
90
Q

The mechanism of action of oral combined contraceptives that prevents pregnancy is:
1.Estrogen prevents the luteinizing hormone surge necessary for ovulation.
2.Progestins thicken cervical mucus and slow tubal motility.
3.Estrogen thins the endometrium making implantation difficult.
4.Progestin suppresses follicle stimulating hormone release.

A

2.Progestins thicken cervical mucus and slow tubal motility.

91
Q

A contraindication to the use of combined contraceptives is:
1.Adolescence (not approved for this age)
2.A history of clotting disorder
3.Recent pregnancy
4.Being overweight

A

2.A history of clotting disorder

92
Q

Obese women may have increased risk of failure with which contraceptive method?
1.Combined oral contraceptives
2.Progestin-only oral contraceptive pill
3.Injectable progestin
4.Combined topical patch

A

4.Combined topical patch

93
Q

When discussing with a patient the different start methods used for oral combined contraceptives, the advantage of a Sunday start over the other start methods is:
1. Immediate protection against pregnancy the first week of using the pill
2. No back-up method is needed when starting
3. Menses occur during the week
4. They can start the pill on the Sunday after the office visit

A
  1. Menses occur during the week
94
Q

The topical patch combined contraceptive (Ortho Evra) is:
1. Started on the first day of the menstrual cycle
2. Recommended for women over 200 pounds
3. Not as effective as oral combined contraceptives
4. Known to have more adverse effects, such as nausea, than the oral combined contraceptives

A
  1. Started on the first day of the menstrual cycle
95
Q

Progesterone-only pills are recommended for women who:
1. Are breastfeeding
2. Have a history of migraine
3. Have a medical history that contradicts the use of estrogen
4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
96
Q

Women who are prescribed progestin-only contraception need education regarding which common adverse drug effects?
1. Increased migraine headaches
2. Increased risk of developing blood clots
3. Irregular vaginal bleeding for the first few months
4. Increased risk for hypercalcemia

A
  1. Irregular vaginal bleeding for the first few months
97
Q

An advantage of using the NuvaRing vaginal ring for contraception is:
1. It does not require fitting and is easy to insert.
2. It is inserted once a week, eliminating the need to remember to take a daily pill.
3. Patients get a level of estrogen and progestin equal to combined oral contraceptives.
4. It also provides protection against vaginal infections.

A
  1. It does not require fitting and is easy to insert.
98
Q

The goals of treatment when prescribing for sexually transmitted infections include:
1.Treatment of infection
2.Prevention of disease spread
3.Prevention of long-term sequelae from the infection
4.All of the above

A

4.All of the above

99
Q

The drug of choice for treatment of primary or secondary syphilis is:
1.Ceftriaxone IM
2.Benzathine penicillin G IM
3.Oral azithromycin
4.Oral ciprofloxacin

A

2.Benzathine penicillin G IM

100
Q

Treatment for suspected gonorrhea is:
1.Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1
2.Ceftriaxone 2 grams IM x 1
3.Ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO x 1
4.Doxycycline 100 mg bid x 7 days

A

1.Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM x 1

101
Q

When treating suspected gonorrhea in a nonpregnant patient, the patient should be concurrently treated for chlamydia with:
1.Azithromycin 1-gram PO x 1
2.Amoxicillin 500 mg PO x 1
3.Ciprofloxacin 500 mg PO x 1
4.Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM x 1

A

1.Azithromycin 1-gram PO x 1

102
Q

Ongoing monitoring is essential after treating for gonorrhea. The patient should be rescreened forgonorrhea and chlamydia in:
1.4 weeks
2.3 to 6 weeks
3.3 to 6 months
4.1 year

A

3.3 to 6 months

103
Q

Treatment for chancroid in a nonpregnant patient would be:
1. Oral azithromycin
2. IM ceftriaxone
3. Oral ciprofloxacin
4. Any of the above

A
  1. Any of the above
104
Q

Jamie was treated for chancroid. Follow-up testing after treatment of chancroid would be:
1. Syphilis and HIV testing at 3-month intervals
2. Chancroid-specific antigen test every 3 months
3. Urine testing for Haemophilus ducreyi in 3 to 6 months for test of cure
4. Annual HIV testing if engaging in high-risk sexual behavior

A
  1. Syphilis and HIV testing at 3-month intervals
105
Q

Helima presents with a complaint of vaginal discharge that, when tested, meets the criteria for bacterial vaginosis. Treatment of bacterial vaginosis in nonpregnant symptomatic women would be:
1. Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid x 7 days
2. Doxycycline 100 mg PO bid x 7 days
3. Intravaginal tinidazole daily x 5 days
4. Metronidazole 2 grams PO x 1 dose

A
  1. Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid x 7 days
106
Q

Besides prescribing antimicrobial therapy, patients with bacterial vaginosis require education regarding the fact that:
1. The most recent partners in the past 60 days should also be treated.
2. Alcohol should not be consumed during and for 1 day after metronidazole is taken.
3. Condoms should be used during intercourse if intravaginal clindamycin cream is used.
4. Co-treatment for chlamydia is necessary.

A
  1. Alcohol should not be consumed during and for 1 day after metronidazole is taken.
107
Q

Sydney presents to the clinic with vulvovaginal candidiasis. Appropriate treatment for her would be:
1. OTC intravaginal clotrimazole
2. OTC intravaginal miconazole
3. Oral fluconazole one-time dose
4. Any of the above

A
  1. Any of the above
108
Q

If a woman presents with recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, she may be treated with:
1. Weekly intravaginal butoconazole for 3 months
2. Fluconazole 150 mg PO daily x 7 doses then monthly for 6 months
3. Weekly fluconazole 150 mg PO x 6 months
4. Intravaginal tioconazole x 14 days

A
  1. Weekly fluconazole 150 mg PO x 6 months
109
Q

Sophie presents to the clinic with a malodorous vaginal discharge and is confirmed to have a Trichomonas infection. Treatment for her would include:
1. Metronidazole 2 grams PO x 1 dose
2. Topical intravaginal metronidazole daily x 7 days
3. Intravaginal clindamycin daily x 7 days
4. Azithromycin 2 grams PO x 1 dose

A
  1. Metronidazole 2 grams PO x 1 dose
110
Q

In addition to antimicrobial therapy, patients treated for Trichomonas infection should be educated regarding:
1. Necessity of treating sexual partner simultaneously
2. Abstaining from intercourse until both partners are treated
3. Need for retesting in 3 months due to high reinfection rate
4. All of the above

A
  1. All of the above
111
Q

The goals of therapy when prescribing hormone replacement therapy (HRT) include reducing:
1.Cardiovascular risk
2.Risk of stroke or other thromboembolic event
3.Breast cancer
4.Vasomotor symptoms

A

4.Vasomotor symptoms

112
Q

The optimal maximum time frame for HRT or estrogen replacement therapy (ERT) is:
1.2 years
2.5 years
3.10 years
4.15 years

A

2.5 years

113
Q

Dosage changes of conjugated equine estrogen (Premarin) are made at intervals.
1.1 to 2 weeks
2.2 to 4 weeks
3.6 to 8 weeks
4.12 weeks

A

3.6 to 8 weeks

114
Q

The advantage of vaginal estrogen preparations in the treatment of vulvovaginal atrophy and dryness is:
1.Ability to deliver higher doses of estrogen in a non-oral form
2.The vaginal cream formula provides moisture to the vaginal area
3.Relief of symptoms without increasing cardiovascular risk
4.All of the above

A

3.Relief of symptoms without increasing cardiovascular risk

115
Q

Women with an intact uterus should be treated with both estrogen and progestin due to:
1.Increased risk for endometrial cancer if estrogen alone is used
2.Combination therapy provides the best relief of menopausal vasomotor symptoms
3.Reduced risk for colon cancer with combined therapy
4.Lower risk of developing blood clots with combined therapy

A
  1. Increased risk for endometrial cancer if estrogen alone is used
116
Q

Kristine would like to start HRT to treat the significant vasomotor symptoms she is experiencingduring menopause. Education for a woman considering hormone replacement would include:
1.Explaining that HRT is totally safe if used short term
2.Telling her to ignore media hype regarding HRT
3.Discussing the advantages and risks of HRT
4.Encouraging the patient to use phytoestrogens with the HRT

A

3.Discussing the advantages and risks of HRT

117
Q

Drugs that increase the risk of osteoporosis developing include:
1. Oral combined contraceptives
2. Carbamazepine
3. Calcium channel blockers
4. High doses of vitamin D

A
  1. Carbamazepine
118
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modifiers (SERMs) treat osteoporosis by selectively:
1. Inhibiting magnesium resorption in the kidneys
2. Increasing calcium absorption from the GI tract
3. Acting on the bone to inhibit osteoblast activity
4. Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone

A
  1. Selectively acting on the estrogen receptors in the bone
119
Q

Inadequate vitamin D intake can contribute to the development of osteoporosis by:
1. Increasing calcitonin production
2. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
3. Altering calcium metabolism
4. Stimulating bone formation

A
  1. Increasing calcium absorption from the intestine
120
Q

The drug recommended as primary prevention of osteoporosis in women over age 70 years is:
1. Alendronate (Fosamax)
2. Ibandronate (Boniva)
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Raloxifene (Evista)

A
  1. Alendronate (Fosamax)
121
Q

The ongoing monitoring for patients over age 65 years taking alendronate (Fosamax) or any other bisphosphonate is:
1. Annual dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scans
2. Annual vitamin D level
3. Annual renal function evaluation
4. Electrolytes every 3 months

A
  1. Annual renal function evaluation
122
Q

What is the duration of SERM use for menopausal issues?
1. It matches the 5 years for estrogen products
2. The bone health impact allows long-term use
3. The increased risk of breast cancer encourages tapering as soon as possible
4. The abnormal lipid profile contributes to an early termination as soon as hot flashes no longer occur

A
  1. The bone health impact allows long-term use
123
Q

A nursing student asks the nurse to explain the role of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) and its role in inflammation. The nurse will explain that COX-2
1.converts arachidonic acid into a chemical mediator for inflammation.
2.directly causes vasodilation and increased capillary permeability.
3.irritates the gastric mucosa to cause gastrointestinal upset.
4.releases prostaglandins, which cause inflammation and pain in tissues.

A

1.converts arachidonic acid into a chemical mediator for inflammation.

124
Q

A nursing student asks how nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) work to suppress inflammation and reduce pain. The nurse will explain that NSAIDs
1.exert direct actions to cause relaxation of smooth muscle.
2.inhibit cyclooxygenase that is necessary for prostaglandin synthesis.
3.interfere with neuronal pathways associated with prostaglandin action.
4.suppress prostaglandin activity by blocking tissuereceptor sites.

A

2.inhibit cyclooxygenase that is necessary for prostaglandin synthesis.

125
Q

Instructions for applying a topical antibiotic or antiviral ointment include:
1.Apply thickly to the infected area, spreading the medication well past the borders of the infection.
2.If the rash worsens, apply a thicker layer of medication to settle downthe infection.
3.Wash hands before and after application of topical antimicrobials.
4.None of the above

A
  1. Wash hands before and after application of topical antimicrobials.
126
Q

First-line therapy for treating topical fungal infections such as tinea corporis (ringworm) or tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) would be:
1.OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)
2. Oral terbinafine
3.Oral griseofulvin microsize
4. Nystatin cream or ointment

A

1.OTC topical azole (clotrimazole, miconazole)

127
Q

Successful antiretroviral therapy (ART) in an HIV-positive patient is determined by:
1. Being able to stop ART therapy due to HIV virus eradication
2. Lowering HIV viral load to unmeasurable amounts
3. Individual measures of success based on their personal situation
4. Normal blood hematologic factors

A
  1. Individual measures of success based on their personal situation
128
Q

Patient factors that contribute to antiretroviral therapy (ART) failure include:
1. Being a male who has sex with males
2. HIV diagnosis in pregnancy
3. Good compliance with the ART treatment regimen
4. ART adverse effects

A
  1. ART adverse effects