Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

325 > Lovelace Quizzes > Flashcards

Lovelace Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the practical decision when facing the possibility of an engine failure on takeoff/climb from a runway that is shorter than the accelerate stop distance and accelerate go is not possible?

Assume the engine failure occurs at liftoff.

A

Takeoff if there are no obstacles at the end of runway and the area off the end of the runway would not create hazards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should you do if on takeoff an engine failure occurs on the initial climb where no usable runway exists and no positive single engine climb rate will be achieved?

Don’t’ takeoff.
Turn immediately for the runway behind you.
Plan for and look for a suitable off airport landing site.

A

Plan for and look for a suitable off airport landing site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What should you do if on takeoff an engine failure occurs on the initial climb where no usable runway exists and no positive single engine climb rate will be achieved?

Don’t’ takeoff.

Turn immediately for the runway behind you.

Plan for and look for a suitable off airport landing site.

A

Plan for and look for a suitable off airport landing site.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the priorities when an engine failure occurs during cruise?

1st - control the aircraft, 2nd - feather the inoperative propeller, 3rd - notify ATC.

1st - control the aircraft, 2nd - troubleshoot and attempt restart, 3rd - notify ATC.

1st - control the aircraft, 2nd - notify ATC, 3rd - troubleshoot and attempt a restart.

1st - control the aircraft, 2nd - troubleshoot and attempt restart, 3rd - if no restart feather inoperative propeller, 4th - notify ATC

A

1st - control the aircraft, 2nd - troubleshoot and attempt restart, 3rd - if no restart feather inoperative propeller, 4th - notify ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should you do if an engine failure occurs during the takeoff roll past a computed V1 speed?

Continue takeoff and climb.

Throttle back and stop.

Determine the result of engine failure and act accordingly.

If you are no more than V1 + 5 knots, throttle back and stop.

A

Continue takeoff and climb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the first priority when an engine failure occurs during climb out and you elect to continue the climb?

Maintain Directional Control.

Adjust pitch for Vyse and add full power.

Reduce drag.

Verify inoperative engine.

Identify inoperative engine.

A

Maintain Directional Control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What must a pilot be aware of when in the landing flare (throttles closed) with one engine out and its propeller feathered?

The airplane will yaw into the good engine.

The airplane will yaw into the inoperative engine.

There will be no yawing tendencies.

A

The airplane will yaw into the good engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When should you extend the landing gear during a engine out landing.

On final approach.

When you commence the descent for landing.

On base leg when you are certain the landing can be made.

A

On final approach.

When you commence the descent for landing.

On base leg when you are certain the landing can be made.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What engine instruments are the most useful in identification of an inoperative engine?

A

EGT & Fuel Flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why does the Seminole have no guaranteed single engine climb performance at liftoff?

A

It is less than 6000 lbs. and its Vso is less than 61 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does a multi-engine land rating on your Commercial Pilot Certificate allow you to do?

A

Act as P.I.C. in a multi-engine land airplane for compensation or hire.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What affect does CG have on single engine flight?

A

Aft CG will increase the amount of rudder deflection needed to maintain directional control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Under what condition is VMC the highest?

A

CG is at the most rearward allowable position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the effect of altitude on Vmca and stall speed

A

As altitude increases the indicated Vmca speed decreases and the indicated stall speed remains the same.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What effect does aircraft weight have upon VMC?

A

As weight increases Vmca decreases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you know if the airspeed is below Vmca in an engine out situation?

A

The airplane will yaw and roll into the inoperative engine despite full opposite rudde

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How should you recover from a situation where the airspeed is below Vmca with an engine inoperative?

A

Retard the throttle on the operating engine.

Reduce the pitch attitude.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does Vmc guarantee?

A

Directional control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does Vyse guarantee?

A

Best vertical performance (climb/descent) in a single engine situation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single-engine absolute ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?

A

Vyse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When would you use Vxse?

A

Obstruction clearance with one engine inoperative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the total fuel capacity of the Piper Seminole?

A

110 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many fuel pumps are there in the Seminole fuel system?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When you select “crossfeed” on one of the fuel selectors on the Piper Seminole what happens?

A

With both engines running you are drawing fuel from one tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What situation must exist in order for the electric primer system to operate on the Piper Seminole?

A

The electric fuel pumps must be on

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the proper procedure for crossfeeding fuel from the left tank to the right engine on the Piper Seminole?

A

The left fuel selector is placed in the on position and the right fuel selector is placed in the crossfeed position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the rated horsepower of the Lycoming engines of the Piper Seminole?

A

180

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What action should be taken if the cylinder head temperature is too high?

A

Open the cowl flap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the difference between turbo charging and supercharging?

A

Turbocharging is driven by exhaust air passing over the turbine.

Supercharging is driven by gears, which reduce the performance of the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How would you know if the turbocharger (compressor) system has failed in a twin engine airplane?

A

The affected engine would not be able to maintain the same M.P. as the unaffected engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Why should you idle a turbocharger engine for a few minutes before you shut it off?

A

To allow the compressor to be lubricated and cooled as the turbine wheel spools down prior to shutting off the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The nitrogen charge brings the propeller to _________ pitch _________ RPM.

A

High Pitch, Low RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Sluggish propeller control and propeller overspeed with poor RPM recovery after rapid throttle application are indications that?

A

the nitrogen charge is low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Engine oil pressure by the propeller governor is boosted to ______ PSI.

A

275

35
Q

The counterweights bring the propeller to ________ pitch _________ RPM.

A

High Pitch, Low RPM

36
Q

If the engine loses oil pressure the propeller will overspeed? T/F

A

False

37
Q

A windmilling propeller reduces single-engine climb performance by ______ FPM

A

200

38
Q

The unfeathering accumulator is designed to bring the propeller out of the feathered position and reduce wear and tear on the starter? T/F

A

True

39
Q

Feathering time on the Seminole with the accumulator installed is _____ to _____ seconds.

A

10-17

40
Q

Feathering time on the Seminole without the unfeathering accumulator installed is ____ seconds.

A

6 seconds

41
Q

The purpose of the anti-feathering pins is to prevent?

A

Feathering on the ground.

42
Q

When attempting to clear a close-in obstacle after takeoff, with the gear down at maximum gross weight, which speed should be maintained?

A

82 (Vxse)

43
Q

Use of GPSS mode is authorized with VLOC displayed on the PFD? T/F

A

False

44
Q

After boarding your passengers, one of them asks if it is okay to smoke in the back seat of the aircraft. Does the no smoking placard in the cockpit apply to rear passengers?

A

Yes

45
Q

What is maneuvering speed at 3,500lbs (typical training weight)?

A

129kias

46
Q

While flying in “rough air”, the POH recommends a maximum speed of __________.

A

Va

47
Q

The limit load factor of 3.8G is both a positive and negative value.

A

False

48
Q

What is the maximum oil pressure for takeoff?

A

115PSI

49
Q

The Seminole as equipped at UND is certified for use under FAR part 135. T/F

A

True

50
Q

If 4 adults are loaded into the aircraft, may a child under the age of 2 be held on a lap without a seat belt?

A

No

51
Q

The aircraft may be flown under VFR conditions without the MFD.

A

False

52
Q

Single engine stalls can produce an altitude loss of more than _________ ft and _____ degrees of pitch.

A

300ft / 30 degrees

53
Q

. The maximum speed for opening the storm window is ________.

A

129kias

54
Q

The Seminole can burn 100 / 100LL.

A

True

55
Q

During emergency procedures, checklist should be followed as a substitute for judgment and common sense.

A

False

56
Q

Using partial carburetor heat is recommended during climb out if ice is suspected to reduce the loss of power associated with full carburetor heat. T/F

A

False

57
Q

The fuel cross feed position may be used during takeoff and landing. T/F

A

False

58
Q

The use of fuel cross feed is limited to _____________ only.

A

level cruise flight

59
Q

The gear warning mute switch is capable of muting the gear warning horn if the flaps are extended beyond the 10 degrees with the gear up.
T/F

A

False

60
Q

If conducting a gear up landing, the approach should be flown with ________ flaps.

A

Zero

61
Q

The LOW BUS annunciator indicates less than _____ VDC on the ________BUS.

A

12.5 / TIE

62
Q

The magnetic compass will have an error of more than ________ degrees with the alternators inoperative.

A

10

63
Q

After a complete engine failure, the pilot has ________ seconds to activate the standby attitude indicator or it will shut off.

A

60

64
Q

If the cabin door becomes unlatched during flight, the pilot should slow to _________kias before attempting to close the door.

A

82

65
Q

During the engine securing procedure, the pilot must select the FEATHER position before the engine RPM reaches _______, otherwise the propeller anti-feathering pin will engage.

A

950 RPM

66
Q

Maximum power can be used on the engine with the cowl flap in the OPEN position without risk of an engine over temp at ______ degrees F at sea level.

A

100

67
Q

After conducting an air start, it is necessary to decrease the propeller RPM slightly to prevent a propeller overspeed. T/F

A

True

68
Q

If an engine fire persist the pilot should _____________.

A

Maintain the maximum allowable speed with the gear up (202 or 169) while diverting to the nearest possible airport.

69
Q

After a loss of fuel pressure, if the electric pump is activated but fuel pressure is not restored, this most likely indicates _________.

A

A fuel leak, but leave the fuel pump on and attempt an air start

70
Q

Which checking the PITOT heat on the ground, limit its operation to _______ minutes.

A

3 Minutes

71
Q

When starting the engine at +20F and below, operate the first engine for no less than ____ minutes at a maximum RPM of _______.

A

5 / 1,500

72
Q

When starting below +10F, the propeller should be manually rotated through 10 blades before attempting to start the engine. T/F

A

True

73
Q

The standby attitude indicator will operate for up to _______ minutes if properly charged.

A

60

74
Q

According to the POH fast taxi turns should be avoided prior to takeoff to _________.

A

prevent fuel starvation

75
Q

When conducting a maximum performance climb, power should not be reduced to 75% at 500FT AGL.

T/F

A

True

76
Q

To prevent starter damage, the maximum cranking period should be limited to __________ followed by a rest period.

A

10 seconds

77
Q

While operating on a single alternator, the pilot should limit the maximum alternator output to _____ amps to ensure adequate charging of the battery.

A

50

78
Q

When conducting a cross-wind landing, the pilot should maintain a crab angle, and transition to a side slip when ___________.

A

Ready to flare

79
Q

Interpolation and extrapolation are approved while conducting preflight performance calculations.
T/F

A

False

80
Q

When calculating your cruise performance, the Seminole will burn ____GPH fuel at best economy (PEAK EGT) while using 75% power.

A

19.2

81
Q

In the Seminole, you can maximize the aircraft endurance by flying at a ___________ pressure altitude.

A

Minimum

82
Q

In zero wind, the Seminole will have a greater range at a ______ pressure altitude.

A

High

83
Q

Piper service bulletins are ___________ in nature.

A

Mandatory (not usually in the world of aviation but piper bulletins are)

84
Q

The oil cooler winterization place should be installed any time the ambient temperature is ____F or less.

A

50

325 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions