Lokdip 2012 Flashcards
1
Q
a lateral T strap is required for the CP patient to control:
a. pes varus
b. pes valgus
c. pes equinus
d. pes calcaneus
A
A
2
Q
the tonic neck reflex is abN if
a. it is variable in the same infant
b. the ipsilateral extremities extend
c. if persist for more than 6 months of age
d. the contralateral extremities flexion
A
C
3
Q
the muscles that are required for ambulation using crutches are
a. shoulder depressor and biceps
b. biceps, triceps, and wrist flexions
c. shoulder depressors, triceps, wrist extensors and finger flexors
d. shoulder depressors, biceps and wrist extensors
A
C
4
Q
tilting of the pelvis occurs maximally
a. at mid stance
b. at push-off
c. during swing through
d. at heel strike
A
C
5
Q
these are the effects of treadmil training in parkinsons patients, except
a. it decreases risk of fall
b. it improves QoL
c. it reduces tremor
d. it improves gait impairment
A
C
6
Q
the most widely accepted method of recording joint ROM is
a. 180 - 0 deg system
b. 360 - 0 deg system
c. 0 - 180 deg system
d. 0 - 360 deg system
A
D
7
Q
all of the following associated conditions in the CP child should be treated by medications, except
a. seizures
b. severe scissoring
c. severe spasticity
d. hyperactivity
A
B
8
Q
all of the following associated conditions in the CP child should be treated by medications, except
a. seizures
b. severe scissoring
c. severe spasticity
d. hyperactivity
A
C
9
Q
how the patient w/ obstructive pulmonary disease overcome air trapping?
a. forcefully inhale for as long as possible
b. swing inhale until the lungs are fully expanded
c. forcefully exhale
d. exhale with lips pursed
A
D
10
Q
for which of the following symptoms of CP will bracing be most beneficial?
a. ataxia
b. spasticity
c. athetosis
d. chorea
A
B
11
Q
the characteristic spastic dyplegia of CP are as follow, except
a. sitting by 2 year was a good predictive sign of eventual ambulation
b. children who did not sit by 4 year have not achieved ambulation
c. 18 months implied poor prognosis for ambulation
d. children with diplegia have not adequate movement control of the arm and hands
A
D
12
Q
Mr. Ali, a 56 year old man suffers a R hemisphere stroke with a consequence of L hemisplegic, L neglect and L homonymus hemianopsia. He had trouble w/ swallowing. He was completely dependent for grooming, eating, or dressing. however he is able to ambulate with 1 person and a quad cane. The persistent neglect and L homonymous hemianopsia make him unable to drive and there force unable to return to work.
the following are classified at as his activity limitation or disabilities, except difficulty w/
a. grooming
b. eating
c. sociality
d. dressing
A
C
13
Q
to reduce tone in spastic muscle, all the following can be used, except
a. performing a sustained stretch of the spastic muscle
b. placing pressence on the tendon of a spastic muscle
c. performing a quick stretch to the spastic muscle
d. gentle massage of the spastic muscle
A
C
14
Q
splinting, serial casting, seating & positioning are all therapeutic technique use to decreased tone in hypertonic muscle group. These technique are based on which of the following principles:
a. a quick stretch of spastic muscle group facilitate the golgi tendon organ which inhibit the spastic muscle.
b. placing pressure on the muscle belly or a spastic muscle group fascilitate the golgi tendon organ which inhibit the spastic muscle
c. sustained stretch of spastic muscle group facilitates the golgi tendon organs which inthibit the spastic muscle
d. one of the above
A
C
15
Q
the following condition is a positive response of asymetrical tonic neck reflex:
a. when the head is turned the trunk and limb turn to the same side
b. when the head is turned the limb flex the skull side (occipital) and extend on the face side
c. flexion of the head causes flexion of forelimb and extension of hind limbs
d. when the head is turned the limbs extends on the skull side (occipital) and flexion the face side
A
B
16
Q
the following tests were done as walking prognosis test, except:
a. ATNR
b. neck righting
c. parachute reflex
d. landau reflex
A
D
17
Q
which the following is the most important characteristics of a lower extremitiy prosthesis:
a. good cosmetic appearance
b. ability to be used for stair climbing
c. stability and security
d. material energy consumption
A
C
18
Q
a 55 y-o man has severe pain on gentle touching of the arm. 6 months ago the median n was damaged during creation of arteriovenous fistula of dialysis. Which of the following tonus best describesrs this phenomenon?
a. hyperalgesia
b. allodynia
c. hyperpathology
d. hypersensitive
A
B
19
Q
the following are sign and symptoms of ligament sprain first degree, except
a. minimal, localized tenderness
b. subtle structural instability
c. no ligament instability
d. pain and swelling
A
B
20
Q
in the second degree of ligament sprain, the following are not functional implication, except:
a. immobilization indicated
b. protective bracing indicated
c. significant activity limitation
d. susceptible to recurrence
A
C
21
Q
what is the purpose of the terminal device on the functional upper limb prosthetic?
a. To make a better appearance cosmetically
b. To provide prehension
c. To get done and doff more easily
d. To make a comfortable used
A
B
22
Q
Squatting is example of
a. Open kinetic chain exc
b. Closed kinetic chain exc
c. Mixed
d. None of the above
A
B
23
Q
Gold standard for DMD is
a. To check elbow creatine kinase level
b. To perform EMG
c. To have muscle biopsy
d. MRI of leg muscle
A
C
24
Q
The characteristic of F wave are as follow, except:
a. The F wave can be elicited by placing the recording electrode over the muscle of the extremities while supramax stimulating the appropriate nerve
b. Variably appears at approximately similar location as H reflex
c. The amplitude of F wave is higher than M response
d. The stimulus ascends the motor fiber antigromically and impact on the anterior horn cells to return orthodomically to cause muscle contraction
A
C
25
Conditioning exc program results in all of the following, except:
a. Increase in muscle strength
b. Increase in venous return
c. Decrease in metabolic activity muscle
d. Decrease in pulse rate
B
26
The FEV1 and FVC are measured using spirometry in the restrictive disease:
a. Both are reduced, often in proportion to each other
b. FEV1/FVC
A
27
The event of exc induced asthma is reduced in pool therapy
a. Bouyancy effect
b. Humidity of
c. Hydrostatic pressure
d. Viscosity of water
B
28
An opposite effect will be found in the following term between cryotherapy and thermotherapy application, except:
a. Collagen extensibility
b. Joint stiffness
c. Muscle spasm
d. Nerve conduction velocity
B
29
Massage exc as therapeutic effect thru all the following mechanics, except:
a. Mobilization of edema within soft tissue
b. Improve soft tissue blood flow
c. Stimulation of loccal opioid receptor
d. Cutaneous stimulation of autonomic nerve system
C
30
For pain to be considered chronic, it must have been present for at least:
a. 1-2 mo
b. 3-6 mo
c. 7-12 mo
d. 12-18 mo
A
31
Vital capacity is the total sum of
a. Insp cap, tidal vol, exp cap
b. Insp cap, func residual cap
c. Insp rev vol, tv, exp resid vol
d. Insp res vol, func res resp and tidal vol
C
32
Following BOTTLE blowing exc, when is the following is found as common
a. Premature ventricle
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Pneumnia
d. Rib #
A
33
Following BOTTLE blowing exc, when is the following is found as common
a. Premature ventricle
b. Pulmonary embolism
c. Pneumnia
d. Rib #
B
34
What is the purpose attitude about smoking
a. Patient should be forced to stop smoking
b. Patient should be encouraged to stop smoking and should be presented the appropriate education
B
35
Ankle sprains are ubiquitous in sports and are the most common athletic injury. The most commonly injured is
a. Calcaneo fibular lig
b. Anterior talofibular lig
c. Post talofib lig
d. Strong medial deltoid lig
B
36
Palmar and plantar grasp response is
a. Present thru out life
b. A flexion response to light touch
c. Strongest in neonatal period
d. The same as forced grasp response
B
37
All type of spina bifida have neurological, except
a. Spina bifida occulta
b. Spina bifida cystic w/ meningocele
c. Spina cystic w/ myelomeningocele
d. Spina cystic w/ urinary continence
B
38
Which muscle type contraction produce force
a. Slow concentric
b. Fast concentric
c. Fast eccentric
d. Isometric
C
39
Absolute of radius alone, llimb deficiency
a. Horizontal terminal deficit
b. Longitudinal terminal deficit
c. Intercalary transversal deficit
d. Longitudinal intercalary
B
Amelia - Complete absence of a free limb (exclusive of girdle).
Meromelia - Partial absence of a free limb (exclu- sive of girdle).
Terminal - Absence of all skeletal elements distal Deficiency to the proximal limit of the defi- ciency, along the designated axis (longitudinal or transverse).
Intercalary Deficiency - Absence of middle part(s) lying between a proximal-distal series of limb components; elements proximal to and distal to the absent part(s) are present.
Transverse - Absence extending across the width of the limb.
Longitudinal - Absence extending parallel with the long axis of the limb (forearm and/or hand, or leg and/or foot), either pre-axial, postaxial, or (as in the hand or foot) central in nature.
40
Muscle spasm
a. No treatment
b. Local application of heat
c. Vigorous exc
d. Traction is the only treatment
B
41
The most commonly employed diagnostic maneuver for thoracic outlet syndrome are as follow, except
a. Adson test
b. Yergason test
c. Shoulder depression test
d. Hyperabd test
B
42
The sign of Erb’s palsy are as follow, except:
a. Shoulder abduction
b. Endorotation of upper arm
c. Pronation of forearm
d. Elbow extension
A
43
During vigorous exc, while the participant is in a stress test, it is noted that T wave increased by 10 %, no other changes are noted. How should this be interpreted
a. Definitely abN and diagnostic for ischemic heart disease
b. Definitely AbN highly suspicious but not absolutely diagram, of ischemic heart disease
c. Mildly abN, would recommend that max effort test be performed
d. Normal
D
44
One of the following not responsible knee extensor in hemiplegic gait
a. Flexor ...
b. Biceps femoris
c. Soleus
d. Hamstring spasticity
C
45
Myastenia gravis
a. Acetyl choline receptor destro
b. Nerve cell destroyed
c. Lesi serebri
d. Lesi anterior horn
A
46
Why is an exc stress test negative in a patient who is taking propanolol, while it is positive while the patient is off the drug? Propanolol....
a. Increase artery circulation
b. Increase cardiac contractile force
c. Decrease myocardial oxygen requirement per unit of work expended
d. Increase blood pressure
C
47
Brief assessment can identify patients with new or potential problems that warrant evaluation
a. Change of weight or appetite
b. Change in memory
c. Problem w/ bowel bladder
d. A, b, c true
D
48
The most serious complication on untreated dorsal synovitis is
a. Unmanaged pain
b. Extensor tendon rupture
c. Flexor tendon rupture
d. Increased size of tenosynovial mass
B
49
Biceps rupture can be tested with
a. Ludington’s test
b. Yergason
c. Speed test
d. Drop arm test
A
50
Flexion of MCP, hyperextension PIP, flexion DIP
a. Swan neck deformity
b. Bouttoniere
c. Mallet finger
d. Bolt finger
A
51
The following are the characteristics of DMD, except
a. The disease affect males
b. Is transmitted by x-linked mode of inheritance
c. The child’s mother, his sister, and maternal aunts are potential carriers
d. EMG shows high amplitude, long duration motor unit action potential with decreased recruitment potential effort
D
52
The following are the characteristics of becker muscular dystrophy, except
a. This form is similar to DMD in terms of distribution of weakness
b. Is has later onset than DMD
c. Intelectual impairment is the most common in becker MD
d. It is more benign than DMD
e. Is also X-linked inherited disorder
C
53
Muscular dystrophy, except
a. Becher
b. Limb girdle
c. Spinal muscular atrophy
d. Fasciohumeral dystrophy
C
54
29 y o man, fell, got # at coccygeus, pain when sitting... anesthetic block injection for pain is done at
a. Anococcygeal lig
b. Pudendal nerve
c. S4-S5 nerve root
d. Superior hipogastricus plexus
C
55
Prosthetic foot should
1. Shock absorbent
2. Stable weight bearing
3. Joint stimulation
4. Muscle stimulation
A
56
Geriatric patient w/ hip # in initial recovery phase
1. Imperative to protect the # side from external and internal force
2. PROM minimally impaired
3. AROM moderately decreased
4. Oedema commonly present
E
57
Orthoses prescription
1. Prevention-correction deformity
2. Reduction of axial load
3. Relieve pain by limited motion
4. Provision effort heat, massage
A
58
RA is
1. Symmetric, polyarticular inflammatory arthritis
2. Evidence of inflammatory by history, examination and lab test
3. A characteristic of joint involvement
4. History suggest mechanical pain
A
59
Hand splinting must consider
1. ....
2. Cognition
3. Sensibility
4. Oedema
E
60
The prevention of illness and injury in sport depends on
1. Appropriate clothing
2. Equipment
3. Health facility
4. Health control
E
61
The following criteria is the purpose of orthoses prescription
1. Correct deformity
2. Substitute for lost function
3. To rest a specific body part
4. To promote for recovery weak muscle
B
62
The malformation of circumduction gait of amputee who is wearing a lower limb protheses usually caused by
1. Socket too small, residual limb can’t fully enter
2. Inadequate suspension, socket slipped down during swing
3. Amputee is reluctant to flex the knee during swing because of poor balance
4. Amputee doesn’t bother to flex the knee because prior to shift
A
63
The general characteristics in the child w/ spastic diplegia
1. Upper limb is good, minor incoordination of fingers and fine motor
2. Speech intelectual normal or slightly inappropriate
3. Lower limb muscle definitely spastic
4. Most children can walk
E
64
The main function of KAFO
1. Stabilize the knee in sagital or coronal plane
2. Reduce stress within the leg
3. Limit movement with the knee
4. Correct postural balance
E
65
Lordosis is hyperextension of lumbar vertebra causes
1. Anterior pelvic tilt
2. Tightness of posterior longitudinal ligamentum
3. Compressed vertebral posteriorly
4. Stretch thoracic extension
A
66
Lordosis is hyperextension of lumbar vertebra causes
1. Anterior pelvic tilt
2. Tightness of posterior longitudinal ligamentum
3. Compressed vertebral posteriorly
4. Stretch thoracic extension
E
67
William flexion exc for patient w/ LBP
1. Abdominal muscle strengthening
2. Hamstring stretching
3. Gluteus strengthening
4. Multifidus muscle strengthening
A
68
Common observation with observating above knee amputees from rear
1. Lateral trunk bending
2. Abducted gait
3. Circumduction
4. Sudden heel strike
A
69
Exc for improving shoulder ROM
1. Pendulum
2. Cross body reach
3. Arm overhead
4. Beach ball squeezing
B
70
Exc for improving shoulder ROM
1. Pendulum
2. Cross body reach
3. Arm overhead
4. Beach ball squeezing
A
71
Attention for geriatric patient with fall
1. Medication
2. Vision
3. Lower limb joint
4. Cardiovascular disorder
E
72
Medial stress of injuries of the elbow in throwing athletes includes
1. Ulnar nerve traction
2. Avulsion of medial epicondyle
3. Flexion muscle strain or tear
4. Olecranon osteofit formation
E
ulnar collateral ligament tears, ulnar neuritis, flexor-pronator muscle strain or tendinitis, medial epicondyle apophysitis or avulsion, valgus extension overload syndrome with olecranon osteophytes, olecranon stress fractures, osteochondritis dissecans of the capitellum, and loose bodies.
73
The amount of absorbed coefficient of US depend on the
1. Intensity
2. Frequency
3. Duration
4. Tissue
C
74
Thermal absorption in SWD depends on
1. Intensity
2. Duration
3. Tissue type
4. Time depth
B
75
The walking pattern used with a walking aid will depend on the patient’s
1. Strength
2. Balance
3. Disability
4. Age
A
76
Gait balance assessment
1. Time up and go test
2. 6MWT
3. Romberg test
4. Bone mineral density monitoring
A
77
The factor that determines whether a diathermy device will increase tissue temperature is the amount of energy absorbed by the tissue. This is/are determined by
1. Intensity of the electromagnetic field
2. Duration of application
3. Tissue type
4. Tissue depth
A
78
The following statements are true about SWD
1. Capacitive plate produce more heat in the skin and superficial tissue
2. Inductive applications produce more heat in deeper tissue
3. Inductive coil applicator produce the most heat in tissue that have electrical conductive
4. To avoid burn during application, the patient’s skin must be kept moist by wrapping
E
79
Reliabilities of isokinetic dynamometer are affected by
a. Total work
b. Peak torque
c. Preactivation isometric
d. Gravity correction
D
80
The statements below are special examination to make exact ACL injury diagnosis, EXCEPT
a. Lachman test
b. Distraction test
c. Drawer test
d. Pivot shift test
B
81
Contraindication on using water as physical agent for an athlete that need strengthening exc in water is:
a. Skin graft
b. Cardiac failure
c. Epilepsi
d. All of the above
D
82
The process in taking of geriatric rehabilitation problem approach are, EXCEPT:
a. Careful clinical geriatric assessment (CGA)
b. Careful and competent functional assessment
c. Management to minimize functional status
d. Management to identify remediable problems
C
83
EN Tree:
a. Performed for a group of muscles
b. Performed only at one plane of motion
c. Isokinetic
d. Performed for several individual muscles
D
84
Which of the following is an indication to use a brace?
| a. A scoliotic curve w/ cobb angle
A
85
Which statement regarding ventricular arrhythmias and ischemic heart disease is TRUE?
a. Patient prone to arrhythmias are recommended to exc in the supine position to decrease myocardial oxygen demand
b. Approximately 50% of patients w/ a history of ventricular arrhythmias will have a ventricular arrhythmias during cardiac rehab
c. An exc stress test is used to determine target heart rate, which is set at a level below which arrhythmias are noted
d. Patient w/ good exc tolerance are less likely to experience ventricular arrhythmias during cardiac rehab than patient w/ poor exc tolerance
C
86
The following is true regarding the myoelectric hand
a. The movements are very similar w/ the normal hand
b. The price is quite cheap for most of our patient
c. Has very good cosmetic aspects
d. To operate it needs muscle contraction around the stump
D
87
The immediate post-surgical fitting w/ a pylon leg is especially directed to
a. Shape a good stump
b. Avoid the development of phantom pain
c. Accelerate the cessation of phantom sensation
d. Promote early return of proprioceptive function
D
88
A lumbrical bar on a wrist-hand orthoses
a. Is positioned on the volar aspect of the proximal phalanges
b. Is primarily used in radial nerve injuries
c. Is used to replace the absent of MCP flexion
d. Prevents MCP hyperextension w/ finger extension
D
89
The following terminal device of an upper extremity prostheses has the best function:
a. dorrance hook
b. myoelectric hand
c. cosmetic hand
d. cosmetic hand w/ movable thumb
A
90
specific therapeutic exc for knee OA
a. ROM exc in the acute stage is safe
b. Hamstring muscle need not be exercised
c. Exc using weights is best done until full extension of the knee
d. Vastus medialis needs attention because atrophy develops early
D
91
MWD may become the best heating modality for
a. Acute arthritis of the hip joint
b. Disc syndromes
c. Subacute conditions in specific small areas of muscle
d. Salphingitis
C
92
Exc for diabetic patients is beneficial because it increases:
a. Blood glucose level
b. Insulin sensitivity
c. Insulin resistance
d. Lipid blood level
B
93
Which of the following statements about CABG patients
a. Aerobic exc more effective than strengthening exc
b. Combined aerobic and strengthening exc can be equally safe as aerobic alone
c. Aerobic w/ isometric is safe
d. Anaerobic exc and strengthening can be combined for CABG patients
B
94
The component of fitness include all of the following:
a. Cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, BMI, and FEV1
b. Cardiorerp endurance, muscular strength and endurance, flexibility, body composition
c. Cardioresp endurance, flexibility, BMI, muscular strength and endurance
d. Cardioresp endurance, muscular strength, lean body mass, flexibility
B
95
Which of the following is not correct concerning the use of infrared modalities (i.e. thermotherapy or cryotherapy)?
a. They are used to produce a local and occasionally either a generalized heating or cooling of the superficial tissues
b. It is generally accepted that the infrared modalities have a maximum depth of penetration of 1 cm or less
c. The infrared modalities can elicit either increases or decreases in circulation depending on whether heat or cold is used
d. Only the use of cold can alter metabolic function in a localized area
D
96
Which of the following modalities emits a type of energy with wavelengths and frequencies that would not be classified as an electromagnetic radiation?
a. Electrical stimulating currents
b. SWD and MWD
c. Low power LASER
d. Ultrasound
D
97
Therapeutic ultrasound
a. Is classified as acoustic rather than electromagnetic energy
b. Is generally used for more superficial heating
c. Is capable of enhancing healing at the cellular level as a result of its thermal physiologic effects
d. Is the modality of choice for minimizing increases in cellular metabolism
A
98
What is the primary purpose for using a conventional TENS treatment
a. Pain modulation through stimulation of cutaneous sensory nerves
b. Producing muscle contraction and relaxation or tetany
c. Facilitating soft tissue and bone healing
d. Producing a net movement of ions
A
99
Which method of paraffin bath heats the subcutaneous area to a greater degree?
a. Dipping method
b. Continuous method
c. Wrap method
d. Paint on method
B
100
Cryotherapy is contraindicated for patients with
a. Inability to provide biofeedback about tissue temperature
b. Raynaud’s phenomenon
c. Arteriosclerosis
d. All of the above
D
101
In SWD treatment if the electrodes are placed side by side on the same aspect of the body, provided they have adequate distance, is called
a. Contraplanar method
b. Coplanar method
c. Cross-fire method
d. Monopolar method
B
102
The elderly obesity patient came to the obesity clinic and hopefully to reduced her body weight. She had the complications such as hypertension, type 2 DM and waist circumference 90 cm. The major goal for this patient was
a. Muscle mass maintenance
b. Reduced risk factors
c. Good QoL
d. Physical function improvement
C
103
The correct statement of circumference measurement, Except:
a. Cut of for determining the subjects with IMT > 25 kg/m2, men > 36 cm, women > 33 cm
b. Has significant association with IMT, waist circumference, etc
c. An index of upper body subcutaneous adipose tissue distribution
d. Upper body obesity is more strongly associated with glucose intolerance than is lower body obesity
A
104
The objective assessment of physical activity for the obesity patient is by using
a. Self report survey or checklist
b. Physical activity level (PAL)
c. Daily physical activity in 24 hours
d. Interviewer-administered questionnaire
B
105
The management of most sport injuries is based on, except
a. Minimize the extent of initial damage
b. Reduce associated pain and inflammation
c. Limit healing of damaged tissue
d. Restore flexiblity, strength, proprioception and overall fitness during the healing phase
C
106
You are performing urodynamic studies on an individual with a T10 ASIA class A spinal cord injury sustained 2 years previously. He performs intermittent catherization every 6 hours and reports no episodes of urinary incontinence between catherization. You find that the filling pressure of leak point pressure in 20 cm of water. At this time, you recommend:
a. Oxybutirin
b. Initiation of crede manuever
c. Continuation of current bladder program
d. Urecholine (bethanechol)
C
107
The role of inhalation therapy in PMR is mainly to
a. Assist pulmonary and thoracal expansion
b. Release dyspneu due to bronchial spasm
c. Get relaxed respiratory muscles particularly diaphragm
d. Assist secret mobilization of the respiratory tract
D
108
Which one is the most important and the most beneficial of breathing control training for COPD:
a. Diaphragm breathing
b. Expiratory pursed lip
c. Combination of diaphragm breathing and expiratory pursed lip
d. Combination of relaxed deep breathing and expiratory pursed lip with 3-5 seconds holding inspiration
B
109
The best example of a dynamic orthoses is
a. Dorsal with hand orthosis w/ extension force in radial nerve injury
b. Thermoplastic AFO in severe foot drop
c. Wrist hand orthoses in 15 degree extension for carpal tunnel syndrome
d. A C-bar in median nerve injury
A
110
The following is true regarding the Myoelectric hand
a. Movements are very similar w/ the normal hand
b. Price is quite cheap for most of our patients
c. Has very good cosmetic aspects
d. To operate it needs muscle contraction around the stump
D
111
Bone healing occurs in three distinct stages. Which of the following is true w/ respect to the overall process?
a. Remodelling is a long-term process that is inhibited by mechanical stresses placed on the bone
b. Soft callus formation around the repair site is associated w/ the remodelling stage of healing
c. Anti-inflammatory of cytotoxic medications affect the final strength of the reparative tissue
d. Exposed skin cells, bone and muscle provide the secondary nutrients of this early process
C
112
Which of the following cardiovascular factors contributes to orthostatic hypotension in the immobilized patients?
a. Sympathethic response is inadequate
b. Increased venous return cause prolonged systolic filling
c. Rapid HR prevent optimal systolic filling
d. Normal stroke volume is maintained despite lowered BP
A
113
The function of counter in an orthopaedic shoe is
a. To stabilize the ankle mortise
b. To hold the calcaneus firmly
c. To maintain the medial arch of the foot
d. To promote better gait
B
114
The statement below is true for the stages of swallowing, except
a. The oral stage includes propulsion of bolus into the pharynx by the tongue
b. The oral preparatory stage includes initiation of the swallow response
c. In esophageal stage bolus moved thru esophagus into stomach by peristalsis
d. The pharyngeal stage there is elevation and anterior movement of the larynx
B
115
This statement are beneficial effect of heat therapeutic modalities to the wound healing, except
a. Increase enzymatic activity
b. Stimulation of fibroblant proliferation
c. Improve phagocytic activity of inflammatory cell
d. Vasoconstriction and reduces for edema to develop
D
116
Bactericidal effects to the wound healing are greatest for shorter wave length of ultraviolet
a. UVC (180-250 nm)
b. UVC (500-600 nm)
c. UVC (600-800 nm)
d. UVC (800-1000 nm)
A
117
One of the statement below are not the contraindication on using traction
a. Ligamentous instability
b. Vertebrobasilar atherosclerosis disease
c. Metastatic bone disease
d. Radicular pain
D
118
The correct statements of Autonomic dysreflexia is
a. A noxious stimulus below the lesion level in persons with injuries generally above T10
b. Results in a parasympathetic discharge from the splanchnic outflow
c. Because of the ability of supraspinal inhibitory signals to modulate the exagerated sympathethic response that is brought on by a noxious stimulus
d. The most common causes are bladder and bowel distension
C
119
After successful reduction of a shoulder dislocation, in what position should the shoulder be immobilized?
a. 20 deg of abduction and 15 deg of internal rotation
b. 20 deg of abduction and neutral rotation
c. 20 deg of abduction and 30 deg of external rotation
d. Forward elevation to 90 deg and internal rotation of 20 deg
C
120
The patient came to the sport injury rehab dept. w/ CC pain on the lateral knee dextra. He was a soccer professional athlete. The important anamnesis include
a. The severity of injury
b. The mechanism of injury
c. The special test
d. The supportive finding
B
121
A child with a congenital transverse radial limb deficiency should have in initial prosthesis fit at what developmental stage?
a. At the time of starting kindergarten
b. As soon as possible after birth
c. At the time of first sitting independently
d. At the time of initially walking
C
122
The major disadvantage of knee disarticulation amputation is
a. Tendency for bony regrowth of the residual limb
b. Less stability in ambulation compared with transfemoral amputation
c. Prostheses is cosmetically unfavorable
d. Skin is more fragile than w/ transtibial amputation
C
123
When considering a knee disarticulation vs a transfemoral amputation, when is the statement considered true?
a. A transfemoral amputation provides better sitting balance
b. Functional outcomes are often poorer in trauma-related knee disarticulation
c. In a pediatric patient it is better to perform a transtibial amputation
d. A knee disarticulation results in a more cosmetic result
B
124
Which of the following is an indication to brace a curve?
| a. Scoliotic curve w/ cobb angle
A
125
The four cardinal features of parkinson disease are resting tremor, bradykinesia, rigidity and postural instability. One of the statement below are not true
a. Slowness of movement may result a reduction on performing ADL
b. Stage one of Hoehn and Yahr stage is on both side
c. Rigidity is not velocity dependent
d. Shuffling or dragging the leg is some gait characteristics in parkinson
B
126
Shoulder pain are common after stroke episodes that bad to hemiparesis
a. Is usually due to reflex sympathetic dystrophy
b. Is usually due to central pain/thalamic syndrome
c. Requires injection w/ steroids for effective management
d. Is usually due to subluxation and should initially be treated w/ mechanical supports/slings
D
127
American college of rheumatology classification criteria for SLE include all of the following except
a. Malar rash
b. Photosensitivity
c. Raynaud’s phenomenon
d. Arthritis
A
128
Which of the following is the correct description of yergason’s test?
a. The examiner provides resistance against supination of the forearm w/ the elbow flexed at 90 deg
b. The examiner provides resistance against supination of the forearm w/ the elbow in extension
c. The examiner provides resistance against pronation of the forearm w/ the elbow flexed at 90 deg
d. The examiner provides resistance against pronation of the forearm w/ the elbow in extension
C
129
What is the classic mechanism of injury for a traumatic anterior dislocation?
a. The individual falls on the outstretched internally rotated and abducted arm
b. The individual falls on the outstretched internally rotated and abducted arm
c. The individual falls on the outstretched externally rotated and abducted arm
d. The individual falls on the outstretched externally rotated and abducted arm
C
130
Which statement is true?
a. Dyskinetic CP is further specified by body region involved (monoplegia, diplegia, triplegia, quadriplegia, and hemiplegia)
b. Deterioration of function can occur if the lesion causes CP progresses
c. Most patients exhibit LMN signs
d. Lack of basic functional skills is the key predictor of reduced life expectancy
D
131
Patients with athetotic CP are likely to have
a. Communication disorder
b. More mild hearing deficits than patients w/ spastic CP
c. Immobility of the neck secondary to degenerative disease
d. Mental retardation
A
132
When treating patients w/ CP, consider
a. AFOs only in nonambulatory patients for positioning and contracture prevention
b. Bracing to prevent progressive deformity of scoliosis
c. Vocational rehab for job training and placement
d. Limited strengthening as it has been shown to increase spasticity
C
133
The nerve most commonly injured w/ posterior or posterolateral approach for total hip replacement is the
a. Femoral
b. Obturator
c. Superior gluteal
d. Sciatic
D
134
Which of the following is a general treatment principle for knee OA?
a. Avoid extreme ROM exc
b. Strengthen the quad muscles
c. Encourage a high impact aerobic home exc program
d. Avoid the use of modalities
B
135
Rehab guidelines following total knee arthroplasty include
a. Non-WB status for 1 week following surgery
b. Use of a CPM device to improve passive knee extension
c. Joint immobilization until sutures are removed and anterior incision is healed
d. Patients are usually allowed to resume driving 6 weeks after surgery
D
136
The conditions below are true for chest pain on acute or chronic respiratory disorder, except
a. Inflammation on pleura parietalis
b. Tracheitis that feel as burning pain on the central part of thorax
c. Musculoskeletal pain caused by inflammation or pain because of WSD
d. Anginal pain
D
137
For chronic lung disease various walking test w/ submax exc have all the benefit below, except
a. To detect exc intolerance
b. To know and detect functional limitation
c. To detect limitation in lung function
d. To evaluate reconditioning exc program
C
138
Breathing control treatment that is important for obstructive pulmonary disease is
a. Diaphragm breathing
b. Pursed lip breathing
c. Combination of A and B
d. Combination of segmental breathing and B
B
139
The risk of exc induced bronchospasm in COPD mostly caused by
a. Low intensity continues exc
b. Moderate intensity interval exc for long period
c. 24-46 deg celcius room temp. w/ high humidity
d. Continue exc w/ graded high intensity
A
140
The following statement are true for parafin bath, except
a. A mixture between paraffin wax and mineral oil
b. The temp is preserved between 47.0-54.4 deg celcius
c. There are 3 methods to apply it, deep and wrap, deep and immerse, and brushing
d. In deep and immerse method, part of the body that has been covered by wax then wrapped by a plastic and towel
D
141
Ultrasonic effect is primarily due to
a. Slowing of the rate of diffusion of ions accros the biologic membranes
b. Elevation of temp from absorption of energy
c. Alternation in conduction velocity in the peripheral nerve
d. Change in the permeability of the membrane potential
B
142
Distribution of laser penetration can be done by the following mechanism, except
a. Reflection and refraction
b. Transmission
c. Absorption
d. Straight
D
143
One of the statements below are not the feature of Wallenbery’s syndrome
a. Contralateral loss of pain and temp
b. Ipsilateral ataxia
c. Horner’s synd.
d. Ipsilateral paralysis of soft palate
D
144
Splints usage may help to do all of the following, except
a. Prevent shortening of the finger
b. Prevent extensor muscles from overstretching
c. Facilitate recovery of the radial nerve
d. Prevent joint contractures
C
145
The usual sensory distribution of the median nerve is
a. Medial 2 digits of hand
b. Lateral 3,5 digits of hand
c. Thumb, index finger, long finger
d. Area over the carpal bones on the volar aspect of the hand
B
146
Erb’s palsy is Lesion on C5-C6 brachial plexus related to
a. Delivery problems
b. Bracial plexitis
c. Thoracic outlet syndrome
d. Any trauma
A
147
Sustained, repetitive twisting movement of variable speed, anywhere in the body is
a. Spasticity
b. Chorea
c. Ballismus
d. Athetoid
D
148
Management of pes planus grade 1 at age less than 1 yo is done by
a. Observation
b. Arch support
c. Thomas heel
d. Chukka type shoes
A
149
Initial treatment for bicipital tendinitis may include all of the following except
a. Anti-inflamatory medications
b. Therapeutic modalities
c. Avoidance of activities that provoke pain
d. Aggressive strengthening of the shoulder stabilizers
D
150
The phase of treatment for rotator cuff tendonitis include all the following, except
a. Pain control and decreased inflammation
b. Immobilization
c. Restoration of ROM
d. Normalization of strength and dynamic muscle control
B
151
In regards to movement of scapula, the serratus anterior does which of the following
a. Rotates the glenoid upward w/ shoulder abduction
b. Rotates the glenoid downward w/ shoulder abduction
c. Rotates the glenoid upward w/ shoulder forward flexion
d. Elevates the vertebral borders of scapula away from the chest wall
C
152
Identify the procedure that is most efficacious in the treatment of the Quervain’s tenosynovitis
a. Surgery
b. Steroid injection
c. Iontophoresis
d. Splinting
B
153
Therapeutic intervention for non operative treatment for hand osteoarthritis can include all of the following except
a. Aggresive strengthening
b. Splinting to rest involved joints
c. Instruction in joint protection
d. Thermal modalities
A
154
During an acute exacerbation of hand rheumatoid arthritis, all the following are appropriate interventions, except
a. Ice
b. ROM exc
c. Resistance training such as weight lifting
d. Anti-inflamatory agents
C
155
Which of the following sensations required the parietal lobe for final perception?
a. Graphestesia
b. Pain
c. Vibratory sense
d. Position sense
D
156
A patient appears to have good strength in the hand and can use it for gross activities automatically but cannot perform skilled movement. This form of disability is called
a. Constructional apraxia
b. Kinetic apraxia (motor apraxia)
c. Ideational apraxia
d. Ideamotor apraxia
B
157
A C6 quadriplegic can be expected to be able to
a. Ambulate w/ crutches and braces
b. Push up while sitting in a wheelchair
c. Pick up a heavy object w/o a splint
d. Dress independently
D
158
Internuclear opthalmoplegia is most commonly seen in
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Cerebrovascular accident
c. Brain tumor
d. GBS
A
159
Brown-sequard synd. Is characteristic by all the following, except
a. Ipsilateral spastic paralysis below the level of lesion
b. Is caused by fracture-dislocation of L3
c. Contralateral loss of pain and temp sense below the level of lesion
d. Ipsilateral loss of proprioception sense below level of lesion
B
160
All the following are components of exc for elderly person, except
a. Intensity
b. Load
c. Duration
d. Frequency and mode
B
161
Lesion of the following nerve roots will lead to a classical winging of scapula
a. C4, C5, C6 roots
b. C5, C6, C7 roots
c. C6, C7, C8 roots
d. C7, C8, T1 roots
B
162
All the following primitive reflexes are positive in a healthy 8 mo baby, except
a. Placing reflex
b. Parachute reflex
c. Palmar grasp
d. Plantar grasp
C
163
The milwaukee brace for scoliosis produces all the following forces to correct the spinal curvature, except
a. Upward-directed force
b. Downward-directed force
c. Medial-directed force
d. Lateral-directed force
D
164
The following statement is NOT TRUE regarding the ‘cock-up hand splint’
a. It covers proximally up to the anterior part of the forearm
b. The distal end is not covering the MCP joints
c. The wrist is positioned at the angle of 150 dorsiflexion
d. It maintains the fingers movements optimally
C
165
Part of the orthopaedic shoe which stabilize the sub-talar joint is called
a. Shank
b. Quarter
c. Counter
d. Heel
C
166
Maximal HR during exc that is recommended for cardiac insufficient patient is
a. 50-60 % max HR
b. 60-80 % max HR
c. 80-90 % max HR
d. 90-100 % max HR
B
167
A patient with DM has painful, swollen ankle, worst w/ weightbearing, xray shows fragmentation of articular surface, synovial fluid is clar. The choice orthoses is
a. AFO
b. Patellar tendon bearing orthoses
c. The loss of vibration sense
d. History of previous foot ulceration
D
168
One of the pitfalls of EMG exam is that w/ EMG machine we can get the following results
a. The level f location of motor unit pathology
b. The severity of pathology
c. The motor and sensory conduction velocities
d. The etiology of motor unit abnormalities
D
169
All the following are the characteristics of MUAP, except
a. Under voluntary control
b. The shape is mostly triphasic
c. The maximal amplitude is 3 mV
d. It can be detected when the needle is inserted to the muscle
D
170
Electrical stimulation of a denervated muscle is most likely to be performed by isolated current impulse of
a. Rectangular type
b. Sinusoidal type
c. Homofaradic type
d. Exponential type
e. Modulated type
D
171
The definition of chronaxy is
a. Time a twice the rheobase
b. Half the rheobase
c. The minimum time required to obtain a minimal muscle contraction by a stimulus
d. The minimal deviation of current to cause a minimal contraction
e. All of the above
C
172
The following statements are true for simple skin moving massage in patient w/ lymphedema, except
a. Stimulates skin lymphatics to contract
b. Increasing superficial lymphatic drainage
c. Areas affected by cancer should be massaged
d. Relatives can be taught to massage the skin
C
173
The primary analgetics to control cancer pain
a. Corticosteroid and non opiod
b. Non opioid and opioid
c. Opioid and muscle relaxants
d. Non opioid and antidepressants
B
174
The purpose of bracing in CP patient is
a. To control movements that interfere functions
b. To prevent/correct contractures
c. To promote better balance
d. All of the above
D
175
Conservatibe treatment of acute LBP includes all the following, except
a. Rest
b. Analgetics
c. Gentle active exc of the limbs
d. William’s flexion exc
D
176
The following intrinsic muscle of the hand that has dual innervation
a. Flexor pollicis brevis
b. Abd poll brev
c. Opponens poll
d. Add poll
A
177
All the following statements are true regarding the carpal tunnel, except
a. A very narrow tunnel
b. Covered by the transverse carpal ligaments
c. The base is made by the metacarpal bones
d. The median nerve is the only nerve passing thru this tunnel
C
178
The boutenierre deformity in a RA hand is typicall located in the following joint
a. Radiocarpal
b. Carpometacarpals
c. MCPs
d. PIPs
D
179
The following is not the early pathological feature of OA
a. Joint cartilage cracks
b. Swelling of the joint cartilage
c. Increased joint cartilage water content
d. Loosening of collagen framework
A
180
In degenerative joint disease of the spine
a. Vertigo and visual disturbance may occur
b. Anterior spurs are the most common cause of symptoms
c. Radicular pain is rare
d. Ankylosing between the vertebrae never occurs
A
181
According to ACR guidelines, which agent is recommended as first line medication in OA of the hip?
a. Prednison
b. Viscosupplementation
c. Oral gold treatments
d. Acetaminophen
D
182
The following test will be probably positive in the early stage of ankylosing spondylitis
a. Schober test
b. Gaenslen test
c. Tinels test
d. Patrick test
B
183
The following deformities are typical in an advance case of RA, except
a. Piano sign
b. Boutonierre
c. Ulnar deviation
d. DIP joint subluxation
D
184
If the following nerve is injured, the patient will not be able to ambulate w/ an axillary crutches
a. Upper subscapular
b. Lower subscapular
c. Axillary
d. Thoracodorsal
D
185
A girl patient w/ idiopathic scoliosis the following are the signs that the Cobb angle might be increasing rapidity, except
a. She has her menarch a month ago
b. Her breast are growing bigger
c. Her pubic hairs are growing
d. The risser’s sign in reaching to grade 4
D
