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PMR board > 2011 > Flashcards

2011 Flashcards

1
Q

The primary pathology of RA is in the following structure

a. Joint capsule
b. Joint cartilage
c. Joint ligament
d. Synovial membrane

A

D

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2
Q

The muscle/tendons most commonly involved in rotator cuff tendinitis is

a. Subscapularis
b. Infraspinatus
c. Supraspinatus
d. Biceps brachii

A

C

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3
Q

In the early stage of a patient w/ Ankylosing spondylitis, the following test will be positive

a. Gaenslen
b. Laseque
c. Thomas
d. Ober

A

A

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4
Q

What are the most reliable phys signs of MTPS?

a. A rope like nodulary in the muscle and pattern of referred pain
b. Focal tenderness and pain recognition
c. Vasomotor and temperature changes
d. Limited ROM

A

A

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5
Q

Using a Computer mouse that is located too far to the side or too high on the table will cause

a. Anterior shoulder subluxation
b. Supraspinatus nerve palsy
c. Rotator cuff tendinitis
d. LBP

A

C

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6
Q

Which is the general treatment principle for knee OA?

a. Encourage a high impact aerobic home exc program
b. Avoid extreme ROM exc
c. Strengthen quad muscles
d. Avoid the use of modalities

A

C

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7
Q

When you see a patient every time he is walking always holding his thigh during the stance phase, most probably he has lesion fo the following nerve:

a. Tibial
b. Sciatic
c. Femoral
d. Common peroneal

A

C

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8
Q

The eye blindness among leprosy patients is caused by the damage of

a. Facial and optic n
b. Facial and abduscens
c. Facial and trigeminal
d. Facial and occulomotor

A

A

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9
Q

The following is NOT correct regarding the management of insensitive feet of leprosy patient

a. Soaking feet everyday
b. Apply oily substance after soaking
c. Trim and smoothen sharp edges of the soles
d. Ask patient to always wear leather shoes when walking

A

D

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10
Q

If somebody has difficulties in chewing food most probably he has problem with the following nerve

a. Facial
b. Trigeminal
c. Hypoglossus
d. Glossopharyngeal

A

B

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11
Q

Lateral winging of scapula is due to lesion in the following nerve

a. Accesory
b. Subscapular
c. Suprascapular
d. Long thoracic

A

A

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12
Q

Which of the following phys exam findings would be most cconsistent w/ a C6 radiculopathy?

a. Triceps weakness
b. Deltoid weaknes
c. Medial brachial sensory loss
d. Decreased brachioradialis reflex

A

D

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13
Q

In klumpke, the following muscle is spared

a. Flx poll longus
b. Flx dig sublimmis
c. Flx dig profundus
d. Ext carpi rad longus

A

D

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14
Q

7-8 mo child with persistence of which one primitive reflexes or postural responses would you be concerned about?

a. Placing
b. Landau
c. Parachute
d. ATNR

A

D

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15
Q

Arthrogryposis multiplex congenital most commonly is

a. Neurogenic in origin
b. Myopathic in origin
c. Associated w/ early joint fusion
d. Associated w/ mental retardation

A

C

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16
Q

Ortolani test will be (+) in

a. Congenital Lower limb deficiency
b. CTEV
c. Congenital hemisacralization
d. Congenital hip dislocation

A

D

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17
Q

An indication of good prognosis for independent ambulation for CP patient if he/she is able to do

a. Prone lying by 15 mo
b. Sitting w/ support by 24 mo
c. Sitting w/o support by 24 mo
d. Kneeling w/ assistance at 16 mo

A

C

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18
Q

Major goal of phase I cardiac rehab is

a. Stimulate the development of coronary collateral
b. Stimulate myocardial exc tolerance
c. Prevent deconditioning
d. Increase cardiac output

A

C

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19
Q

Target HR that is recommended for cardiac insufficient patients during exc is … % of max HR

a. 50
b. 50-70
c. 70-85
d. >85

A

B

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20
Q

The activity of climbing up stairs uses … METs

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

D

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21
Q

Preload of left ventricles refers to

a. Stroke volume
b. Diastolic filling
c. Ejection fraction
d. Ventricular outflow

A

B

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22
Q

The respiratory function of patient w/ ankylosing spondylitis is characterized by

a. Diminshed chest expansion
b. Moderate dyspnea on exertion
c. Increase use of accesory muscle
d. Decrease in diaphragmatic excursion

A

A

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23
Q

For chronic lung disease various walking test w. Submax exc have all the benefits, EXCEPT

a. Detect exc tolerance
b. Detect limitation in lung function
c. Know and detect functional limitation
d. Evaluate reconditioning exc program

A

B

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24
Q

The following condition is NOT a contraindication for exc program prescribed to a diabetic patient w/ cardiovascular disease

a. Blood sugar > 300 mg%
b. Blood sugar 180-250 mg%
c. Blood sugar

A

B

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25
Q

Which type of exc training is widely accepted as the optimal way to enhance and maintain function in older adults?

a. Endurance
b. Resistance
c. Flexiblity
d. Balance

A

D

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26
Q

The following sport activity is NOT recommended for an old osteoporotic women

a. Taichi
b. Jogging
c. Walking
d. Light gymastics

A

B

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27
Q

A good initial treatment plan for neurogenic claudication secondary to spinal stenosis would include

a. Gabapentin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Lumbar bracing
d. Narcotic pain medication

A

A

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28
Q

Which activity is NOT associated w/ a reduced risk of dementia

a. Dancing
b. Bowling
c. Playing board games
d. Playing musical instruments

A

B

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29
Q

This disorder is usually seen in preadolescent athletes who participate in activities such as jumping or running. The disorder is a result of recurring micro trauma from the quads contracting

a. Ligament sprain
b. Pes anserinus bursitsi
c. Tibial plateu fracture
d. Osgood-schlatter disease

A

D

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30
Q

Ankle sprains are ubiquitous in sports and are the most common athletic injury. The most commonly injured lig is

a. Calcaneo fibular
b. Anterior talofib
c. Post talofib
d. Strong medial deltoid

A

B

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31
Q

Which of the following activities would be most difficult to return to following an ACL injury?

a. Speed cycling
b. Baseball pitching
c. Marathon running
d. Cross-country skiing

A

B

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32
Q

Which the physiologic factor in the elderly exacerbates orthostasis?

a. Decreased in arterial stiffness
b. Decreased creatinine clearance
c. Decreased peripheral resistance
d. Decreased baroreceptor response

A

D

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33
Q

The knee joint is a

a. Trochogynglymus joint
b. gynglimus joint
c. Trochoid joint
d. Pivot joint

A

A

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34
Q

In regards to movement of the scapula, the serratus anterior does which of the following

a. Rotates glenoid upward w/ shoulder ABD
b. Rotates glenoid downward w/ shoulder ABD
c. Rotates glenoid upward w/ shoulder forward flexion
d. Elevates vertebral borders of the scapula away from the chest wall

A

C

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35
Q

The following is NOT true about COPD

a. Pulmo rehab program is a central therapeutic regimen for this patient
b. COPD patients need cardiac risk evaluation before beginning an exc program
c. Patient w/ COPD require higher levels of exc training to gain benefit because of the severity of the disease
d. Exc tolerance improves from exc because of gains in aerobic fitness, respiratory muscle function, and breathing pattern

A

C

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36
Q

Children w/ tetralogi of fallot w/ assume the squatting position to relieve exc-induced dyspnea

a. Increase inspiratory capacity
b. Decrease pulmonary artery pressure
c. Increase peripheral vascular resistance and there by decreases right to left shunt
d. Reduces the energy requirements of the activity by lowering the center of gravity

A

C

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37
Q

Intrinsic muscle of hand with dual innervation

a. Abd poll brevis
b. Flex poll brevis
c. Opponens pollicis
d. Add pollicis

A

B

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38
Q

Maximal flexion of knee in gait cycle is reached in

a. Mid stance
b. Immediately after heel strike
c. Middle of swing phase
d. During acceleration in swing phase

A

C

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39
Q

Double limb stance is what % of the entire gait cycle?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 20
d. 30

A

C

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40
Q

The most common method of exc based on neurodevelopmental approach for CP is

a. Voyta
b. Kabat
c. Phelps
d. Bobath

A

D

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41
Q

The following is NOT the characteristics of CP

a. The underlying pathologic process is still active
b. The spastic type is the most common clinical picture
c. It is caused by non progressive pathology affecting the immature brain
d. The clinical manifestation is include the abnormalities in movement and posture

A

A

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42
Q

Conditioning exc program is NOT result in the following

a. Decrease in metabolic activity of muscle
b. Increase in stroke volume
c. Increase in venous return
d. Decrease in pulse rate

A

A

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43
Q

The following is NOT used for lymphedema

a. Compression garment
b. Elevation
c. Massage
d. Icing

A

D

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44
Q

The following is NOT correct regarding coordination exc

a. To apply sensory input
b. To accelerate speed as tolerable
c. To perform constant repetitive movements
d. To strengthen progressively particular muscles

A

D

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45
Q

As left hemiplegic patient shows marked spasticity, semivoluntary and volitional initiated movement of involved limbs, resulting as well as flexion synergy in arm and extension synergy in legs, it means that the patient now is in Brunstrom stage

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

B

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46
Q

The following is NOT characteristics of barthel index

a. Prediction of rehab outcome
b. Good interater reliability for all subcategories
c. Assessment of progress in language and cognitive skills
d. Assignment of numerical scores and relative weight to ADL variables

A

C

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47
Q

A young healthy man 30 yo suffered acute back pain after lifting a very heavy box. Coughing/sneezing induce the pain which radiates to the left leg and foot. However no abnormality detected in bladder or bowel funciton. He is still able to walk w/ antalgic gait.
Clinically the patient is suspect suffering form
a. Herniated intervertebral disc
b. Tumor of spine
c. OA
d. Osteoporosis

A

A

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48
Q

The weakest spot in the posterior lumbar region which is not strengthened by posterior longitudinal ligament is

a. L2-3
b. L3-4
c. L4-5
d. L5-S1

A

D

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49
Q

On neurological exam, the patient in above case will reveal

a. Diminished patellar tendon reflex
b. Diminished achilles tendon reflex
c. Positive Babinsky reflex
d. Positive chaddock reflex

A

B

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50
Q

Sensory exam in that case will show hypoanesthesia or anestheia in the dermatome

a. L1-2
b. L2-3
c. L3-4
d. L5-S1

A

D

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51
Q

The following examination will confirm the diagnosis of HNP

a. Plain x-ray of spine
b. MRI of spine
c. Bone scan
d. EMG

A

B

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52
Q

The treatment of choice in above case would be

a. Bed rest
b. Diathermy
c. Pelvic traction
d. Bed rest, diathermy, pelvic traction

A

D

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53
Q

The following is the appropriate orthosis for quadriceps femoris weakness due to poliomyelitis

a. HKAFO
b. KAFO
c. AFO
d. FO

A

B

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54
Q

A patient w/ DM has painful, swollen ankle, worst w/ weight bearing. X-ray shows fragmentation of articular surface, synovial fluid is clear. The choice of orthosis is

a. AFO
b. HKAFO
c. PTB orthosis
d. Orthopedic shoes

A

C

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55
Q

In PTB socket the patient’s stump is held in how many degree knee flexion?

a. 15 deg
b. 30
c. 45
d. 60

A

A

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56
Q

A girl patient w/ idiopathic scoliosis the following is NOT the signs that the Cobb’s angle might be increasing rapidly

a. Her pubic hairs are growing
b. Her breasts are growing bigger
c. She has her menarch a month ago
d. The risser’s sign is reaching to grade 4

A

D

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57
Q

Rehab guidelines following total knee arthroplasty include

a. Use of a continuous passive motion device to improve passive knee extension
b. Joint immobilization until sutures are removed and anterior incision is healed
c. Patients are usually allowed to resume driving 6 weeks after surgery
d. Non-WB status for 1 week post op

A

C

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58
Q

According to ACR guidelines, which agent is recommended as 1st line medication in OA of the hip?

a. Viscosupplementation
b. Oral gold treatments
c. Acetaminophen
d. Prednison

A

C

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59
Q

Intermittent compression pumps is contraindicated in which condition

a. Postmastectomy lymphedema
b. Venous insufficiency
c. Arterial insufficiency
d. Amputation

A

C

60
Q

When treating supraspinatus tendonitis w/ USD, which shoulder position is most beneficial?

a. Arm ABD and internally rotated
b. Arm abd and ext rot
c. Arm add and ext rot
d. Position of comfort

A

A

61
Q

The original gate theory of Milzack and wall explained the pain modulation phenomenon in which of the following ways?

a. Postsynaptic inhibition of pain transmission occurs via posterior column fibers
b. Stimulation of thermoreceptors causes a decrease in the conduction rate of unmyelinated C fibers
c. Large A myelinated fibers enter the spinal cord through a circuitous anterior route to cause presynaptic inhiition of pain neurons
d. Neurons within the substantia gelatinosa cause presynaptic inhibition of 1st order neurons to 2nd order pain afferents in the dorsal born

A

D

62
Q

ASIA impairment scale B is

a. Incomplete, motor fx is preserved below NL, and more than half of key muscles below NL have muscle grade less than 3
b. Incomplete, motor fx is preserved below NL, and at least half of key muscles below NL have muscle grade greater than or equal to 3 less
c. Incomplete, sensory but no motor fx is preserved below NL, and includes the sacral segments S4-5
d. Complete

A

C

63
Q

A 21 yo man is evaluated in SCI clinic 12 months after a C2 complete SCI requiring full time mechanical ventilation. You recommend

a. Agresive diaphragmatic strengthening exc
b. Avoiding a breath control system for his power WC
c. Initiating a weaning protocol by slowly decreasing tidal vol
d. An electrodiagnostic study to evaluate for a phrenic nerve pacemaker

A

D

64
Q

What is the highest neurologic level at which a person w/ complete SCI might be capable of unassisted, independent transfer skills w/ or w/o equipment?

a. C2
b. C4
c. C6
d. C8

A

C

65
Q

The smallest unit of muscle contraction is

a. Motor unit
b. Sarcomere
c. Actin, myosin
d. Intrafusal fibers

A

B

66
Q

The following is NOT correct regarding the purpose of EMG/NCV exam

a. To know the fx of motor unit
b. To know the nerve conduction velocity
c. To know the level of motor unit pathology
d. To know the etiology of motor unit pathology

A

D

67
Q

A C6 quadriplegic can be expected to be able to

a. Pick up a heavy object w/o a splint
b. Push up while sitting in a WC
c. Ambulate w/ crutches and braces
d. Dress independently

A

D

68
Q

The intermittent catheterization in paraplegic patients is the method of choice for bladder management because it is

a. Very affordable now by most of SCI patients
b. Very simple method now in modern medicine
c. Very much accepted by most patients
d. Very good to minimize infections

A

D

69
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding blood supply to spinal cord?

a. The mid-thoracic region is most vulnerable to ischemia
b. 2 anterior spinal arteries are brances of the vertebral artery
c. The great spinal artery of Adamkiewicks supplies the lumbar and sacral cord
d. The watershed zone is at C6-7 which causes most cervical lesions to be complete

A

A

70
Q

The annulospiral ending is the primary afferent fiber coming from the

a. Nuclear bag
b. Nuclear chain
c. Intrafusal fibers
d. Extrafusal fibers

A

A

71
Q

The following factor is NOT influence strength of muscle contraction

a. The muscle volume
b. The amount of calcium and ATP
c. The amount of actin and myosin
d. The number of motor units which are active

A

A

72
Q

A child w/ congenital transverse radial limb deficiency should have initial prostetic fitting at what stage?

a. at the time of 1st sitting independently
b. at the time of starting kindergarten
c. as ASAP after birth
d. at the time of initially walking

A

A

73
Q

the following is NOT the characteristic of DMD

a. it is transmitted by X-linked mode of inheritance
b. measurement of serum creatinine kinase is the most reliable test
c. the child’s mother, his sisters and meternal aunts are potential carriers
d. EMG shows high amplitude, long duration MUAP w/ decrease recruitment pattern on effort

A

B, D

74
Q

The following primitive reflex is NOT positive in a healthy baby of 8 mo

a. Palmar grasp
b. Plantar grasp
c. Placing reflex
d. Parachute reflex

A

A

75
Q

An indication of good prognosis for independent ambulation for CP patient if he/she is able to do:

a. Sitting w/o support at 24 mo
b. Kneeling w/ assistance at 16 mo
c. Sitting w/ support at 24 mo
d. Prone lying at age 15 mo

A

A

76
Q

Chronaxy is

a. Half the rheobase
b. Time a twice rheobase
c. The minimal deviation of current to cause a minimal contraction
d. the minimum time required to obtain minimal muscle contraction by a stimulus

A

D

77
Q

in SWD, if the electrodes are placed side by side on the same aspect of the body, provided they have adequate distance, is called

a. coplanar method
b. cross-fire method
c. monoplanar method
d. contraplanar method

A

A

78
Q

the following is NOT indication of biofeedback therapeutic

a. to inhibit spasticity
b. to strengthen muscle
c. muscle reeducation in UMN dysfunction
d. pelvic floor muscle reeducation in women w/ incontinence or pelvic pain

A

B

79
Q

for patient w/ congestive heart disease, which of the following statements is accurate?

a. Most of the important resulting from regular exc is within the myocardium
b. Exc capacity is improved because of peripheral adaptation
c. These patient can never expect improved phys fitness
d. Complete bed rest is prescribed for these patients

A

B

80
Q

Which of these risk factors is most associated w/ higher incidence of Deep Vein thrombosis in adults w/ a troke?

a. Male sex
b. Increased age
c. Smoking history
d. Increased motor weakness

A

D

81
Q

Dressing the upper part of body in a patient w/ one-side nonfunctional UE implies that

a. The involved extremity should be dressed 1st
b. The garment should be pulled over the head 1st
c. The uninvolved extremity should be dressed 1st
d. Only garments w/ complete opening in front should be used

A

A

82
Q

In the left hemiplegic patient whom his or her left hand is edematous and his/her left shoulder is painful requires

  1. A short course of 30 mg prednisone daily
  2. Elevate his/her left UE
  3. A low dose of amitriptyline
  4. TENS
A

E

83
Q

The statements below is the feature of Wallenberg syndrome

  1. Ipsilateral ataxxia
  2. Horner’s syndrome
  3. Contralateral loss of pain and temp
  4. Ipsilateral loss of pain and temp
A

A

84
Q

Some physical findings below must be assessed in patients w/ neurogenic bladder

  1. Sacral sensation
  2. Cognitive impairments are an important test
  3. Hand function for SCI patients who are the perform self catherization
  4. Bulbocavernosus reflex to test in the integrity of the pudendal nerve and S2-S4 segments
A

E

85
Q

The following is predictor for poor prognosis fo Bell’s palsy

  1. Dryness of eyes
  2. DM
  3. HT
  4. Pregnancy
A

E

86
Q

What is the primary role for methotrexate in treatment of RA?

  1. Cure the disease
  2. Reserve already present joint deformity
  3. Provide analgesia and anti inflammation
  4. Slow or prevent joint destruction and loss of fx
A

D

87
Q

1st line treatment of plantar fascitis

  1. Heel cup to cushion and lift the heel
  2. Anti-inflammatory agents
  3. Stretching program
  4. Lidocaine injection
A

A

88
Q

The benefits of postural drainage for patient w/ COPD are

  1. Decrease work of breathing
  2. Increase work of breathing
  3. Improve ventilation
  4. Decrease ventilation
A

B

89
Q

The aim of chest PT in asthmatic patient is

  1. Relieve bronchospasm
  2. Aids removal of secrets
  3. Coordinate respiratory movements
  4. Assist relaxation and gain control of breathing
A

E

90
Q

The following are contraindications of postural drainage

  1. Severe hypertension
  2. Cystic fibrosis
  3. Hemoptysis
  4. Lung absces
A

B

91
Q

For child w/ CP, the orthosis should be used on LE when the child

  1. Non ambulatory but tends to keep the leg in extension and the feet in plantar flexion
  2. Begins to pull to stand on toes
  3. Stands flat but walks on toes
  4. Fixed contractures of the foot
A

A

92
Q

Early treatments of CTEV

  1. Dennis-brown splint
  2. Outflare orthopedic shoes
  3. Surgical soft tissue release
  4. Stretching and serial plaster correction
A

D

93
Q

Leg length discrepancy in children can result from several disorders. A disorder that would result in a discreapancy by lengthening the extremity would be

  1. Poliomyelitis
  2. Legg-perthes disease
  3. A growth plate injury
  4. A vascular malformation
A

A

94
Q

What is special test/sign positive for ACL injury

  1. Homan test
  2. Mc murray test
  3. Sagging knee
  4. Anterior drawer test
A

C

95
Q

Test to diagnose knee meniscal tear

  1. Lachman test
  2. Mc murray test
  3. Pivot shift test
  4. Apley’s compression test
A

C

96
Q

The management of acute ACL injury is

  1. Rest
  2. Massage
  3. Cryotherapy
  4. POP immobilization
A

B

97
Q

Risk factor for falls in elderly people is

  1. Environment related
  2. Use of sedative hypnotics
  3. Inappropriate use of gait devices
  4. Weakness, balance or joint problem
A

E

98
Q

Changes in biologic functions in response to aging is

  1. Decrease VO2max
  2. Decrease serum lipid
  3. Increase thrombosis
  4. Increase cardicac output
A

B

99
Q

The benefit of phys activity in elderly includes

  1. Slowing of disease progression
  2. Promotion of the person’s health
  3. Prolong functional independence
  4. Prevention of aortic aneurysm rupture
A

A

100
Q

Reflection of ultrasound

  1. Occurs mainly at interfaces of tissues w/ different acoustic impedances
  2. Is great at the interface of soft issue and metallic implants
  3. Is minimal at interfaces of layer and sof tissue
  4. Is great at interface of soft tissue and bone
A

E

101
Q

The following is true about iontophoresis

  1. Medication used for iontphoresis must be soluble in water
  2. Iontophoresis should not be used in patient w/ pacemaker
  3. Hot and cold packs should not be applied during treatment
  4. Tissue penetration of medication may reach up to 2 cm
A

A

102
Q

Difficulty in performing opposition of the thumb against index and 3rd fingers can caused by weakness of

  1. Abd poll brevis
  2. 1st lumbrical
  3. Opponens poll
  4. Add poll
A

A

103
Q

The following waves are considered abN in needle EMG exam

  1. Positive sharp waves
  2. Fasciculation
  3. Fibrilation
  4. Biphasic waves
A

A

104
Q

A basketball athlete had injured after he jump and landed on his right foot in the internally rotated position. He heard ‘pop’ and felt painful on his right knee. He ceased from this game because he cannot walk and got an edema suddenly. What is the possible diagnosis?

  1. ACL rupture
  2. PCL rupture
  3. Meniscal torn
  4. Quadriceps muscle rupture
A

B

105
Q

The effects of UV radiation are

  1. Biological
  2. Reduce muscle spasm
  3. Photochemical
  4. Increases pain threshold
A

B

106
Q

Good characteristics of orthopaedic shoes

  1. Soft shank
  2. High toe box
  3. Very high heel
  4. Material genuine leather
A

C

107
Q

The SACH foot has the following characteristic

  1. No toe break
  2. Solid ankle joint
  3. Very expensive price
  4. Quite good functionally
A

C

108
Q

The prescription of exc for the patient w/ simple recurrent LBP should achieve at least

  1. Improved Low back flexibility
  2. Improved posture w/ minimized lumbar lordosis
  3. Improved body mechanics in all activities and exc
  4. Improved strength of abdominal and hip extensor muscle
A

E

109
Q

A circumducted gait pattern in a patient w/ an above-knee amputation is likely caused by

  1. In adequate friction in the prosthetic knee unit
  2. An externally rotated prothetic knee unit
  3. A Silesian suspension belt that too tight
  4. Inadequate socket suspension
A

D

110
Q

Part of William’s exc for LBP

  1. Hip flexor muscles strengthening
  2. Abdominal muscle strengthening
  3. Hamstring muscle strengthening
  4. Hamstring muscle stretching
A

C

111
Q

The following is the gold standard for diagnosis of osteoporosis

  1. US densitometry
  2. CT scan
  3. MRI
  4. DEXA
A

D

112
Q

Management of acute state of sport injury

  1. Icing
  2. Elevation
  3. Bandaging
  4. Passive ROM
A

A

113
Q

Some of gait characteristics of normal aging include

  1. Relatiely move time is spent in stance phase
  2. Slower walking speed
  3. Shorter stride length
  4. Wider base of gait
A

E

114
Q

Ankle mortis

  1. Consist of tibia, fibula, and talus
  2. Talus functions as a hinge joint
  3. Its motion is 20 deg dorsoflexion
  4. Consist of talus and calcaneus
A

A

115
Q

Muscle tension is monitored by

  1. Muscle spindle
  2. Motor endplate
  3. Extrafusal fibers
  4. GTO
A

D

116
Q

Muscle spindle

  1. It is innervated by gamma motorneuron
  2. Its main funciton is to monitor the muscle tone
  3. It will be stimulated if there’s sudden elongation of the muscle
  4. The fastest primary afferent fibers are coming from the nuclear bag
A

E

117
Q

Congenital muscular torticollis caused by

  1. Deformation from intrauterine positioning
  2. Hemivertebrae
  3. Fibrotic contracture of sternocleidomastoid
  4. Ipsilateral plagiocephaly
A

B

118
Q

Common causes for floppiness at birth

  1. Cerebral dysfunction
  2. Prader-Willis syndrome
  3. SMA type I
  4. Congenital myotonic dystrophy
A

E

119
Q

Exc for cardiac disease patient should be discontinued in the following condition if

  1. Systolic BP decreased 20 mmHg
  2. Chest pain
  3. Dyspnea
  4. Joint stiffness
A

A

120
Q

Indications for postural drainage as a form of chest PT to enhance the flow of mucus out of airways, except

  1. Emphysema
  2. Bronchiectasis
  3. Chronic bronchitis
  4. Polycystic lung disease
A

E

121
Q

Among these activities, that might be especially stressful for cardiac disease patient?

  1. Leg raises
  2. Walking (2.0 mph)
  3. Watching TV
  4. Bridging exc on a mat
A

D

122
Q

Effects of exc in elderly, include

  1. Improved cardiopulmonary function
  2. Maintained or increased bone mass
  3. Improved mobility and function
  4. Decrease orthostatic tolerance
A

A

123
Q

What is the predisposing factors for bursitis of hip

  1. Hip trauma
  2. Hemiparesis
  3. LBp
  4. LLD
A

E

124
Q

LBP which is common among pregnant women is caused by

  1. Increased in lumbar lordosis
  2. Ligamentous laxity
  3. Postural changes
  4. Weight gain
A

E

125
Q

The following clinical manifestation is very frequent occured in a stroke affecting in the right brain hemisphere

  1. Right sided neglect
  2. Visual memory deficits
  3. Wernicke’s aphasia
  4. Superficial and deep sensory deficits
A

C

126
Q

A stroke involving the vertebra-basilar system may give the following manifestation

  1. Ataxia
  2. Cortical blindness
  3. Hemiplegia alternans facialis
  4. Unihibited neurogenic bladder
A

B

127
Q

A stroke involving the vertebra-basilar system may give the following manifestation

  1. Ataxia
  2. Cortical blindness
  3. Hemiplegia alternans facialis
  4. Unihibited neurogenic bladder
A

E

128
Q

The most common behavioral and personality changes seen following TBI are

  1. Attention deficit rigidity
  2. Visual perceptual deficit
  3. Spatial dysfunction
  4. Memory deficit
A

E

129
Q

The purpose of bracing in CP patient is

  1. To control movements that interfere functions
  2. To promote better balance
  3. To prevent contractures
  4. To correct contractures
A

E

130
Q

In hemiplegic patien, the function of a double upright AFO w/ posterior stop, dual action adjustable ankle joint and extended steel shank is for

a. Help weak plantar flexors
b. Correct knee stability during heel strike
c. Improve medial and lateral stability of ankle
d. Overcome moderate spasticity of plantar flexors

A

D

131
Q

A patient w/ complete C5 injury w/ only 2/5 deltoid strenth and nothing else, will benefit more or best from

a. Wrist driven flexor hinge wrist hand orthosis
b. Balanced forearm orthosis and wrist hand orthosis
c. Cable driven flexor hinge orthosis w/ figure of 8 harness
d. Spring operated ratches passive prehension wrist hand orthosis

A

B

132
Q

The most appropriate Wheelchair for a T1 paraplegia AIS A is

a. Regular wheelchair
b. Mouth-operated WC
c. Regular WC w/ higher backrest
d. WC w/ vertical bars on the handrims

A

C

133
Q

the following deformities are typical in an advance case of RA

  1. Boutonierre
  2. Piano-key sign
  3. Ulnar deviation
  4. DIP joint subluxation
A

A

134
Q

These conditions might lead to thoracic outlet syndrome

  1. Cervical rib
  2. # of the clavicle
  3. Hypertrophy of scalenus anterior
  4. Hypertrophy of pectoralis major
A

A

135
Q

The most likely combination of musculoskeletal imbalances associated w/

a. Weak gluteus medius/tight tensor fascia lata
b. Weak gastroc-soleus/tight posterior tibialis
c. Weak lower abdominals/tight psoas
d. Weak quads/tight hamstring

A

A

136
Q

Mechanism of BOTOX A in treating spasticity is

a. Blocking muscle spindle
b. Blocking nerve fibers
c. Blocking release of Ach
d. Blocking release of Ca ions

A

C

137
Q

Pulmonary embolism which may occur in a prolonged immobilization patient mostly due to

a. Development of atrial fibrillation
b. Decreasing total lung capacity
c. Decreasing lung vital capacity
d. Development of deep venous thrombosis

A

D

138
Q

A 12 yo basketball pitcher presents w/ new onset medial epicondylar pain. A typical phys exam finding on the throwing arm side in early ‘little league elbow’ is

a. Loss of terminal elbow extension
b. Decreased biceps brachii strength
c. Increased shoulder internal rotation
d. Decreased sensation to light touch in an ulnar nerve distribution

A

A

139
Q

A 29 yo cross-country runner experiences new-onset pain in the region of the 1st metatarsal. Exam reveals tenderness medial to the 1st metatarsal head worsened by passive great toe extension. The LEAST likely cause of her sesamoid injury is

a. Early hallux rigidus
b. Excessive pronation
c. Excessive supination
d. Gastroc-coleus tightness

A

C

140
Q

A 55 yo runner presents w/ pain in the region of achilles tendon. This is the 3rd such episode over the past 4 years. The achilles tendon appears swollen. Appropriate initial management would include

a. Cortisone injection of achilles tendon
b. Local anesthetic injection of achilles tendon sheath
c. Use of a small heel lift w/ initiation of gastro-soleus stretches as tolerated
d. Immobilization in an ankle plantar-flexed position w/ limited WB

A

C

141
Q

Exc program in adult patients w/ hereditary neuromuscular disorder

a. Should use high resistance eccentric exc
b. Are most effective when weakness is rapidly progressive
c. Are inefective if muscle strength is less than 75 % of normal
d. May increase maximal aerobic capacity and exc endurance

A

D

142
Q

Which of the following is true regarding pain in the elderly person?

a. Pain can commonly be localized to a single site
b. Elderly persons do not feel pain as much as younger people
c. Approximately one third of elderly individuals have chronic joint pain and arthritis
d. Pain results in less functional impairment in the elderly compared w/ younger population

A

C

143
Q

The interdisciplinary approach to geriatric patient care empasizes

a. Team communication when problem occur
b. Concentration on specific clinical problem
c. The physician as the leader and director of the team
d. Common patient and team goals rather than discipline-specific goal

A

D

144
Q

A 55 yo woman w/ breast cancer has a solitary metastatic lesion at left rib. Among the following, the 1st line pain medication in this setting is

a. Ibuprofen
b. Amitriptyline
c. Acetaminophen
d. Morphinesulfate

A

A

145
Q

A CT quadriplegic patient should NOT be expected to perform the following activites independently

a. Sliding board transfer
b. WC to car tranfer
c. Floor-to-WC transfer
d. Wc-to tub bench transfer

A

C

146
Q

A 35 yo jogger experience new-onset a traumatic pain along the lateral aspect of knee. Pain is reproduced and accentuated when the examiner presses proximal to the joint line and simultaneously brings the knee in and out of 20 to 30 knee flexion. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Lateral plica syndrome
b. Lateral meniscus strain
c. Iliotibial band syndrome
d. Distal femur stress #

A

C

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