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PMR board > 2012 > Flashcards

2012 Flashcards

1
Q

The primary afferent fibers coming from the nuclear chain of the muscle spindle have the following conduction velocity … m/sec

a. 20-40
b. 40-60
c. 60-80
d. 80-100

A

C

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2
Q

One effects of baclofen as muscle relaxant is via the mechanism of

a. To inhibit calcium ions release
b. To inhibit acetylcholine
c. To stimulate glutamate
d. To stimulate GABA

A

D

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3
Q

In neuropraxia the following finding can be detected during EMG/NCV studies

a. Positive sharp waves
b. Fasiculations waves
c. Fibrillations waves
d. Conduction block at certain level of nerve

A

D

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4
Q

Which statement below is true according patellofemoral pain syndrome?

a. The pain often be felt while running or jogging
b. Also referred to as posteromedial knee pain syndrome
c. Should always be associated w/ laxity of ligament around the knee
d. Is characterized by pain at front or middle edge of the knee or under the knee cap

A

D

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5
Q

Injury to the rotator cuff muscles and tendons of the shoulder is often occurs in?

a. Tennis player
b. Discus thrower
c. Boxing athletes
d. Rowing athletes

A

B

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6
Q

A young basketball athlete age 18, injured his right ankle while playing in a competition 1 week ago. His x-ray showed no fracture. His physician diagnosed as lateral ankle sprain. VAS score decreased in intensity from 8/10 to 6/10, but the pain increases w/ weight bearing and certain demonstrated movements. No warmth of skin of anterolateral aspect of right ankle, slight ecchymosis and swelling are noted. His anterior drawer test is positive, and his talar tilt test is negative.
What is the classification of injury in severity, and what stage of healing is this patient in?
a. Grade I ankle sprain and inflammatory phase
b. Grade I ankle sprain and proliferative phase
c. Grade II ankle sprain and inflammatory phase
d. Grade II ankle sprain and proliferative phase

A

D

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7
Q

In this case, what structure has been injured?

a. Anterior talofibular lig.
b. Posterior talofibular lig
c. Calcaneofibular lig
d. Syndesmotic lig

A

A

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8
Q

What program are suited for this case?

a. Rest and fixation
b. Stretching and endurance exc
c. Proprioceptive and balance exc
d. Weight bearing as tolerated and ROM exc

A

D

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9
Q

Which flexor muscle below located profoundly?

a. Pronator teres
b. Palmaris longus
c. Pronator quadrates
d. Flexor carpi ulnaris

A

C

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10
Q

A severe hearniated disc between L4-L5 most probably leading to weakness of the following muscle

a. Extensor digitorum longus
b. Extensor digitorum brevis
c. Extensor hallucis longus
d. Peroneus longus

A

C

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11
Q

the quadriceps femoris is an important knee extensor muscle. Which portion of this muscle also causes hip flexion?

a. Vastus intermedius
b. Vastus lateralis
c. Vastus medialis
d. Rectus femoris

A

D

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12
Q

Most important change in the aging musculoskeletal system is?

a. Increase in bone density
b. Decrease in lumbar lordosis
c. Increase in thoracic kyphosis
d. Increase in type II muscle fiber

A

D

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13
Q

Which of the following is most likely to enable you to determine the reason for a fall in an older patient?

a. A completed neurologic examination
b. MRI of the brain
c. Determination of patient’s functional status
d. A careful history of the circumstances surrounding the fall

A

A

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14
Q

Functional assessment of instability in the older faller is

a. Vision
b. Vestibuler
c. Mobility skills
d. Proprioception

A

C

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15
Q

In aging people, which lung function increases

a. FVC
b. Total lung capacity
c. Residual vol
d. Vital capacity

A

C

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16
Q

This is NOT the characteristic of geriatric patient

a. Multipathologic
b. Non specific clinical symptoms
c. no changes of functional status
d. limited physiologic reserved capacity

A

C

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17
Q

which of the following is NOT a contraindication to MWD?

a. Bruising
b. Old scar tissue
c. Electrical implant
d. Infectious skin disease

A

B

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18
Q

The high voltage pulsed current is

a. A direct current and biphasic
b. A monophasic pulsed current
c. A diadynamic pulsed current
d. Symmetric biphasic pulsed current

A

B

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19
Q

Which one of the following CPM is contraindicated?

a. Burn patient
b. Capsulotomies
c. Knee arthroplasty
d. Unstable fractures

A

D

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20
Q

Which of the following parameters most closely correlates with oxygen consumption?

a. Rectal temp
b. Oral temp
c. Respiratory rate
d. Pulse rate

A

C

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21
Q

How right the patient with obstructive airway disease help overcome air trapping?

a. Slowly inhale until the lungs are fully expanded
b. Force fully inhale for as long as possible
c. Exhale with hips pursed
d. Forcefully exhale

A

C

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22
Q

During exc, there is an increase in a person’s

a. stroke volume
b. diastolic pressure
c. total peripheral resistance
d. pulmonary arterial resistance

A

A

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23
Q

in a resting healthy man, the ejection fraction is approximately

a. 0.1
b. 0.2
c. 0.3
d. 0.6

A

D

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24
Q

The best device to unload a painful arthritis of the hip is

a. Knee hip ankle ortosis
b. Single point straight cane
c. Hip derotation orthoses
d. Forearm crutches

A

D

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25
Q

When should upper extremity prostheses fitting be initiated in adult?

a. When residual strength is full
b. When the patient requests a prostheses
c. Within the 1st month after amputation
d. When residual limb volume has stabilized

A

D

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26
Q

the most commonly used prostheses for patients with hip disarticulation

a. Hip disarticulation prosthesis w/ wooden socket
b. Canadian hip disarticulation prosthesis
c. Modular hip disarticulation prosthesis
d. Hemipelvictomy prosthesis

A

B

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27
Q

Signs of Leg-Calve perthes disease in the child is

a. Limping and restriction in hip motion, esp. hip abduction
b. Limping and restriction in hip motion, esp. hip adduction
c. Severe hip pain that is exacerbated w/ any motion
d. Groin pain that increases in weight bearing

A

A

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28
Q

The child has CC of bowlegs that are gradually progressing in severity and not improving spontaneously. The deformity is called

a. Clubfoot
b. Tibia vara
c. Knock knees
d. Genu recurvatum

A

B

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29
Q

Above case is caused by growth retardation of the medial and lateral part of proximal tibial epiphysis due to abnormal weight bearing stress and compression force on the knees. This disease is known as

a. Genu varum
b. Blount’s disease
c. Ricket’s disease
d. Ollier’s multiple enchondromatosis

A

B

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30
Q

What is seen when Landau reflex is elicited and when does it appear?

a. In the vertical position, the baby will support weight on his feet. Appears at 3-4 mo
b. In the ventral suspension, baby will extend their hand and LE. 4-5 mo
c. In supine position, baby will extend arm and leg on the side that the head is turned toward. 5-6 mo
d. In sitting position, baby will extend arm and hand to catch himself and prevent falling to one side. 5-7 mo

A

B

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31
Q

A 55-yo man has severe pain on gentle touching of the arm. Six months ago the median nerve was damaged during creation of arteriovenous fistula for dialysis. Which of the following terms best describes this phenomenon?

a. Allodynia
b. Hyperpathia
c. Hyperalgesia
d. Hypersensitivity

A

A

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32
Q

A 27-yo woman complains of pain in the shoulder and suprascapular region 1 month after undergoing modified radical neck dissection for carcinoma of the thyroid. Examination shows decreased sensation to light touch over the superior aspect of the right trapezius and scapular winging with resisted shoulder abduction. Which of the following nerve was mosth likely transected during the procedure?

a. Axillary
b. Long thoracic
c. Dorsal scapular
d. Spinal accessory

A

B

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33
Q

The most cranial nerve involved in Miller Fisher Syndrome (variant of GBS) is

a. Facial n
b. Abduscent n
c. Trigeminal n
d. Oculomotor n

A

D

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34
Q

A 33 yo male football player came w/ trauma of his shoulder during a football game. A few week later showed weakness of internal rotation and adduction left limb, the forearm was held in extension and pronation because of elbow flexion weakness. These finding are suggestive of

a. Klumpke palsy
b. Erb-duchenne palsy
c. Thoracic outlet syndrome
d. A lesion of cervical plexus

A

B

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35
Q

These are the effects of treadmill training in Parkinson, except

a. It reduces tremor
b. It decreases fall risk
c. It improves QoL
d. It improves gait impairment

A

A

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36
Q

Maximal force generation by a muscle occurs during

a. Fast eccentric contraction
b. Slow eccentric contraction
c. Fast concentric contraction
d. Slow concentric contraction

A

B

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37
Q

Which are emphasized to increase muscle endurance

a. More resistance, more repetition
b. More resistance, fewer repetition
c. Low to moderate resistance, more repetition
d. Low to moderate resistance, fewer repetition

A

C

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38
Q

The following is the test to evaluate the posterior cruciate ligament tear

a. Varus test
b. Valgus test
c. Posterior drawer test
d. Anterior drawer test

A

C

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39
Q

Characteristic of joint pain and stiffness in knee osteoarthritis

a. In the morning but typically last less that one hour
b. In the morning but last longer than 1 hour
c. Thru the whole day
d. Just at night

A

A

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40
Q

Stage 1 of rotator cuff injury

a. Inflammation and edema in the rotator cuff
b. Progressed to fibrosis and tendonitis
c. There is a complete rotator cuff tear
d. Pain but no inflammation

A

A

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41
Q

Tearing of extensor hood causing hyperextension of MCP, flexion PIP, hyperextension DIP is called

a. Boutonniere deformity
b. Swan neck deformity
c. Heberden’s node
d. Bouchard’s node

A

A

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42
Q

Which of the following is a general treatment principle for knee OA

a. Encourage a high impact aerobic home exc program
b. Strengthen quad muscles
c. Avoid extreme ROM
d. Avoid use of modalities

A

B

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43
Q

The following statements regards F-wave are true, EXCEPT

a. The amplitude of F-wave are much lower than the amplitude of M-wave
b. The pathway is from motor fiber to cell body back to motor fiber
c. it requires supramaximal stimulation
d. it requires submaximal stimulation

A

D

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44
Q

A discus thrower complains of pain in the upper part of shoulder. One of the finding on exam is cross adduction chest positive sign, pain arch at 110 deg. What structure most likely to be involved?

a. Suprahumeral joint
b. Glenohumeral joint
c. Sternoclavicular joint
d. Acromioclavicular joint

A

D

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45
Q

The following is the characteristic of a MUAP

a. Irregular in nature
b. The shape is always triphasic
c. Appears under voluntary control
d. Appears under involuntary control

A

C

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46
Q

Which bony wrist injury related to forceful of the hand is commonly seen in gymnasts?

a. Ulnar #
b. Radius #
c. Lunate #
d. Scaphoid #

A

D/B

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47
Q

A martial arts player complaint of back knee pain after kicks his opponent. Exam of knee demonstrates pain during varus stress test. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Strain popliteus muscle
b. Medial collateral lig injury
c. Lateral collateral lig injury
d. Posterior cruciate lig injury

A

C

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48
Q

What is the internal moment of the ankle when heel strike?

a. Concentric contraction of the gastroc
b. Eccentric contraction of gastroc
c. Concentric contraction of dorsiflexor
d. Eccentric contraction of dorsiflexor

A

D

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49
Q

What muscle is the most powerful at internal rotation of the shoulder?

a. Pectoralis major
b. Supraspinatus
c. Subscapularis
d. Teres major

A

C

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50
Q

Atlanto-odontoid is classified as

a. Gynglimus joint
b. Ellipsoidal joint
c. Trochoid joint
d. Saddle joint

A

C

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51
Q

A good initial treatment plan for neurogenic claudication secondary to spinal stenosis would include

a. Narcotic pain medication
b. Lumbar bracing
c. Acetaminophen
d. Gabapentin

A

D

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52
Q

What should be the 1st treatment considered for chronic lateral epicondylitis?

a. Surgical release
b. Botulinum toxin
c. Corticosteroid injection
d. Wrist extensor stretching

A

C

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53
Q

Which physiologic factor in the elderly exacerbates orthostasis?

a. Decreased baroreceptor response
b. Decreased peripheral resistance
c. Decreased in arterial stiffness
d. Decreased creatine clearance

A

A

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54
Q

A 65 yo woman with a history of insulin dependent DM, gastroparesis, hypertension, and obesity had a right cortical ischemic infarct 7 days ago. The nurses note that she is having frequent small urinary voids with a weak voiding stream. What bladder mechanism most characteristic for this presentation?

a. Hyperactive detrusor with large volume bladder
b. Spastic detrusor activity with normal sphincter
c. Small volume bladder w/ sphincter flaccidity
d. Flaccid detrusor w/ large volume bladder

A

A

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55
Q

A 50 yo woman w/ secondary progressive multiple sclerosis has mild cognitive deficits and severe lower limb spasticity. What is the most effective treatment for this patient?

a. ROM exc
b. Warm water Exc
c. Intrathecal baclofen
d. Diazepam injection

A

C

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56
Q

A 45 yo woman developed thermoanestesia in a cape like distribution involving both upper extremities, with preservation of light touch sensation and proprioception. These findings are suggestive of

a. Syringomyelia
b. B12 deficiency
c. ALS
d. Occlusion of the anterior spinal artery

A

C

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57
Q

The following statements below are true for stroke syndromes of the middle cerebral artery circulation EXCEPT

a. Pure sensory w/o weakness
b. Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss
c. Face and UE are more involved compared to LE
d. Aphasia, if it affect superficial branch of middle cerebral artery on the left side

A

A

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58
Q

The clinical syndromes that affect the dorsal collum medial lemnicus system causing proprioceptive disturbance that affect position sense and balance is caused by

a. Tabes dorsalis
b. Anterior cord synd
c. Idiopathic plexus brachialis lesion
d. Idiopathic CTS

A

A

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59
Q

In stage 4 of Parkinson disease, the patient can still walk only on limited extend, because

a. The symptoms are mild
b. Severe rigidity and bradykinesia
c. Mild impairment on equilibrium
d. Usually presents with tremor on one side

A

B

60
Q

The potential adverse effects of corticosteroid injection is EXCEPT

a. Glucocorticoid-induced osteoporosis
b. Subcutaneous hypertrophy
c. Iatrogenic joint infection
d. Tendon/lig rupture

A

B

61
Q

The following is the indication for pneumatic pumping

a. Postmastectomy lymhedema
b. Acute deep vein thrombosis
c. Severly impaired sensation
d. Cellulitis

A

A

62
Q

A 70 yo woman complains of acute localized mid back pain. She has non-focal neurologic exam. An anteroposterior and lateral thoracic spine x-ray confirms your clinical suspicion of an acute T8 compression #. Which recommendation would best help her to reduce her risk of future #?

a. A weight reduction diet
b. Avoid tobacco use
c. Swimming laps 20-30 mins daily
d. Isotonic abdominal strengthening program

A

A

63
Q

during exc, cardiac output is augmented by

a. sympathetic stimulation of resistance vessels
b. decreased mean systemic arterial pressure
c. increased ventricular contractility
d. decreased end-diastolic volume

A

C

64
Q

which of the following statements regarding the rehabilitation programs of hospitalization for cardiovascular illnesses or operations is true?

a. After initial treatment of CAD syndrome is completed and the patient stabilized, having the patient sit in an armchair, to minimize the loss of postural reflexes resulting from bed rest
b. Walking, at first with assistance should be encouraged even the patient is moderately symptomatic
c. Limited ROM exc are usually saved at this point, even in very unstable patients
d. The period of hospitalization is the optimal time to improve the patient’s risk factor profile

A

A

65
Q

What exc are recommended for persons w/ nonprogressive mild to moderate restrictive lung disease (VC of 60% predicted)?

a. Pursed lip breathing
b. Rapid shallow breathing
c. Glossopharingeal breathing
d. Inspiratory resistive exc

A

D

66
Q

The activity of climbing up stairs requires the following amount of METs

a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

A

C

67
Q

The typical gait abnormality find in spastic diplegic CP

a. Weak hip flexion and ankle dorsoflexion
b. Supinated foot in stance phase
c. Overactive posterior tibialis
d. Scissoring gait pattern

A

D

68
Q

The following statement is WRONG about MWD

a. The main of energy transfer is conversion
b. can be used in fluid cavities (eye, bullae, effusion)
c. the freq for therapeutic use are 915 MHz and 2456 MHz
d. the average temp at depth of 1-3 cm is about 41 deg celcius

A

B

69
Q

A baby of 7 mo shows symmetrical LMN weakness, no sensory deficits, proximal muscles weaker than the distal, abdominal breathing. The strong possibility of diagnosis is

a. DMD
b. Kugelberg-wellander disease
c. Werdning-hoffman disease
d. Poliomyelitis

A

C

70
Q

One of your 4 yo patient exhibits the following characteristic of distress over minor changes in environment, echolalia, lack of awareness of the existence of feelings in others, nonparticipation in simple games. The most likely diagnosis is

a. Autism
b. CP
c. Hearing impairment
d. Mental retardation

A

A

71
Q

A 9 yo boy has recently been diagnosed as having SMA type III. You would expect

a. EMG changes consistent with a myopathic process
b. Rapid progression of the disease with death by age 20 y
c. Early involvement of distal UE musculature
d. Ambulation to be preserved until age 25-30 y

A

D

72
Q

The best rational choice of wheelchair for a C8 tetraplegic ASIA A is

a. Regular WC w/ solid tyre
b. Mouth-operated electrical WC
c. Regular WC w/ aired/inflated type
d. Regular WC w/ vertical bars on its handrims

A

D

73
Q

In a hemiplegic, the function of a posterior stop in a double upright AFO w/ dual action adjustable ankle joint and extended steel shank is to

a. Improve knee stability at heel strike when the posterior stop is set in 5 deg of dorsiflexor rather than plantar flexion
b. Cause the ground reaction force line to fall posterior to the knee joint in mid stance
c. Assist in control of moderate to severe plantar flexor spasticity
d. Assist weak plantar flexors

A

C

74
Q

75 yo woman falls and fractures her distal humerus. In the process, the ulnar nerve is damaged. She presents 6 months later w/ weakness in the 4th and 5th digits, claw deformity, and loss of grip power. Which of the following orthotic components could benefit this patient, and therefore should be included in the orthotic prescription?

a. Dorsal outrigger
b. Lumbrical bar
c. Opponens bar
d. C bar

A

B

75
Q

A 23 yo man complaint of localized LBP that is worse in the morning and improves as the day progresses w/ activities. He has no radicular symptoms and a nonfocal neurologic examination. Which finding unequivocally supports the diagnosis of ankylosing spondilitis?

a. A positive human leukocyte antigen B27
b. An elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
c. Bilateral sacroilitis on a radiograph of the pelvis
d. Atlantoaxial subluxation on xray of cervical spine

A

C

76
Q

Mechanical LBP refers to

a. Nondiscogenic pain
b. Pain which is discogenic in origin
c. Pain related specifically to soft tissues
d. Pain related to the posterior elements

A

A

77
Q

Which medication is associated w/ osteoporosis

a. Hydroclorothiazide
b. Coumadin
c. Phenytoin
d. Diltiazem

A

A

78
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding calcitonin?

a. It is a 1st line therapy for osteoporosis prevention and treatment
b. Its concomitant use w/ calcium is contraindicated
c. It is available in an oral form
d. It has analgesic properties

A

D, A

79
Q

Ms. S, 21 yo referred to rehab ward w/ paraplegia due to T5 burst fracture. The PPSW stabilization was done 2 weeks ago and now was medically stable. On phys exam, you found that the vital signs and general health status were within normal limit. What should you examine when you have to determine whether the patient as a complete or incomplete lesion?

a. Anal sensation and voluntary anal contraction
b. Anocutaneal and bulbocavernous reflexes
c. Myotome and dermatome
d. Pathological reflexes

A

A

80
Q

A 72 yo man presented loss of muscle bulk on volar aspect of forearms and impaired flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints of the finger. Which muscle is responsible for these symptoms?

a. Flexor digitorum spfc
b. Flx dig profundus
c. Flx poll longus
d. Flx carpi radialis

A

B

81
Q

Which disorder is least likely to cause foot drop?

a. Supfc peroneal neuropathy
b. Lower lumbar radiculopathy
c. Lumbar plexopathy
d. Sciatic neuropathy

A

A

82
Q

Common clinical symptoms and signs of myasthenia gravis include

a. Diplopia and/or ptosis
b. Absent deep tendon reflexes
c. abN sensory exam
d. predominantly distal weakness

A

A

83
Q

some factors that influence muscle strength, power and endurance

a. length of muscle: longer has more tension
b. the amount of training: the longer the exc increase more strength
c. position of muscle insertion to the fulcrum: longer distance to insertion give more force
d. age: peak performance at the age of 20-25yo and decline 1 % / year after age 25

A

A

84
Q

which swallowing phase is primarily affected in dysphagia associated with Parkinson disease

a. oral
b. gastric
c. pharyngeal
d. esophageal

A

C

85
Q

a 60 yo male has right hemispheric infarction. He has muscle strength with grade 3 at the shoulder, elbow and hand. He also has mildly decreased response to pinprick and proprioception throughout the left side. He use the right hand for feeding but always leaves some foot untouched on the left side of the plate. The most likely reason for this patient’s difficulty in eating is

a. motor apraxia
b. feeding apraxia
c. left unilateral neglect
d. left hemisensory deficits

A

C

86
Q

the initial exc for a short of breath and frightened patient is

a. assessed tolerance test
b. doing endurance exc
c. start w/ breathing control to achieve relaxation
d. strengthening exc for UE and LE to avoid muscle atrophy

A

C

87
Q

the beneficial of leg exc in the training of patients w/ lung disease in pulmonary rehab

a. decreased FVC
b. decreased peak oxygen uptake VO2
c. no improvement in dyspnea and cough
d. reduction in exc lactic acidosis and ventilation after training

A

D

88
Q

for patient w/ congestive heart disease, which of the following statement is accurate?

a. Most of the important resulting from regular exc is within the myocardium
b. Exc capacity is improved because of peripheral adaptations
c. These patients can never expect improved physical fitness
d. Complete bed rest is prescribed for these patients

A

B

89
Q

The best predictor of community ambulation beyond childhood in patients with myelomeningocele is

a. BMI
b. Quad strength
c. Early surgical closure of meningocele
d. Bowel and bladder continence

A

B

90
Q

Arthrogryposis multiplex congenital most commonly is

a. Myopathic in origin
b. Neurogenic in origin
c. Associated w/ early joint fusion
d. Associated w/ mental retardation

A

C

91
Q

A child w/ a congenital transverse radial limb deficiency should have in initial prosthesis fit at what developmental stage?

a. At the time of 1st sitting independently
b. At the time of starting kindergarten
c. At the time of initially walking
d. As soon as possible after birth

A

A

92
Q

Management of pes planus grade 1 at age less than 1 y is done by

a. Observation
b. Thomas heel
c. Arch support
d. Chukka type shoes

A

A

93
Q

Early symptoms of ankylosing spondylitis in a young adult is

a. Cervical pain
b. LBP
c. Upper thoracal pain
d. LE pain

A

B

94
Q

The test for acromioclavicular joint and labial abN is

a. O’brien test
b. Speed’s test
c. Yergason’s test
d. Horizontal adduction test

A

A

95
Q

ACR classification for SLE include all the following, EXCEPT

a. Raynaud’s phenomenon
b. Photosensitivity
c. Malar rash
d. Arthritis

A

A

96
Q

Plantar fasciitis

a. Is common in patients whose occupation requires long period of sitting
b. There is deep tenderness of the anterolateral aspect of the calcaneus
c. The condition is more prevalent in people w/ supinated feet
d. The treatment is stretching of the heel cord

A

C

97
Q

Treatment for rotator cuff tendonitis include all the following, EXCEPT

a. Immobilization
b. Restoration of ROM
c. Control of pain and inflammation
d. Normalization of strength and dynamic muscle control

A

A

98
Q

The moderate to severe TBI patients will have more evident deficits, usually from the beginning stages, these includes

  1. Memory
  2. Attention
  3. Concentration
  4. Language processing
A

E

99
Q

Rating of perceived exertion which is used to monitor exc responses is (are) strongly associated with

  1. Oxygen consumption
  2. Lactic acid level
  3. Breathing rate
  4. BP
A

E

100
Q

The prescription of exc for patient w/ recurrent LBP should achieve at least

  1. Improved Low back flexibility
  2. Improved body mechanics in all activities
  3. Improved posture w/ minimized lumbar lordosis
  4. Improved strength of abdominal and hip extensor muscles
A

E

101
Q

Common cause of shin splints are

  1. Sudden increases in distance or speed running
  2. Running on slopes or uneven surfaces
  3. Inappropriate footwear
  4. Flat arches of the feet
A

E

over-pronated foot, stop-start sports such as squash, tennis or basketball. Running too much on hard surfaces

102
Q

The following factor(s) is(are) contributing towards the occurrence of muscle rupture if the muscle may have been

  1. Inadequate training or lack of warm-up
  2. Weakened by previous injury
  3. Overstrained or fatigued
  4. Scar muscle formation
A

E

103
Q

The goal of orthosis prescription in arthritis is

  1. To prevent sclerotic process
  2. To reduce joint load
  3. To reduce joint stiffness
  4. To reduce pain
A

E

104
Q

Vaulting is one common deviations in transfemoral prosthetic gait. It appears as rising up on the sound forefoot during mid stand in an effort to enhance prosthetic swing limb clearance. It may result from

  1. Long prostheses
  2. Excessive knee friction
  3. Fear of letting the knee flex
  4. Excessively abducted socket
A

A

Insufficient friction in the prosthetic knee
Excessive length of the prosthesis (insufficient flexion of the knee because of insecurity or fear.
Manual knee lock, excessive friction, or too tight an extension aid. Inadequate suspension allowing the prosthesis to slip off the stump (piston action).
Too small a socket. The ischial tuberosity is above its proper location.Foot set in excessive plantar flexion.)

105
Q

LE orthoses for pressure distribution are

  1. Pattelar tendon bearing orthoses
  2. Ischial weight bearing orthosis
  3. Patten bottom orthosis
  4. Tone-inhibitory orthosis
A

A

106
Q

Effects of aging on function, for strength and endurance

  1. Increased in muscle mass
  2. Decreased number of motor neurons
  3. Decreased accumulation of oxidative stress
  4. Selective atrophy of type II fast-twitch muscle fiber
A

C

107
Q

A healthy elderly person may display the following gait deviations

  1. Smaller step length
  2. Increased arm swing
  3. Slower ambulation velocity
  4. Extension of the hips and knees
A

B

108
Q

Which of the following statements about SWD is correct?

  1. Is the therapeutic application of high radiofrequency electrical current
  2. The tissue temp. should be elevated to a range of 40-50 deg C
  3. The treatment time is usually 20-30 min
  4. Is deep heat modality
A

E

109
Q

Clinical uses of NMES are

  1. Strengthening muscles and maintaining muscle mass after immobilization
  2. Shoulder subluxation in hemiplegic limb
  3. Provides cardiovascular conditioning
  4. Spasticity management
A

C

110
Q

The general goals of cryotheraphy is

  1. Analgesia
  2. Muscle relaxation
  3. Decreased spasticity
  4. Increased collagen extensibility
A

B

111
Q

The exc stress test may be valuable in

  1. Making the diagnosis of the ischemic heart disease
  2. Establishing an individualized exc program for the patient w/ cardiac disease
  3. Following the progress of patient involved in cardiovascular rehab program
  4. Determining how much exc to prescribe for the hospitalized patient w/ an acute myocardial infarction
A

E

112
Q

Goals of the physical therapy program in the patient w/ chronic obstructive airway disease include

  1. Overall physical reconditioning
  2. Improving the efficacy of the breathing patterns
  3. Facilitating drainage of excessive bronchial secretions
  4. Reverse the pulmonary function w/ specific breathing exc
A

E

113
Q

The patient w/ restrictive pulmonary disease may be seen by the physiatrist. What right of exc be useful for this patient?

  1. Slowly inhale until the lungs are fully expanded
  2. Intermitten positive pressure breathing
  3. Deep breathing exc
  4. Forcefully exhale
A

A

114
Q

In quiet standing, the ground reaction force are located in

  1. Posterior to knee
  2. Anterior to ankle
  3. Anterior to hip
  4. Posterior to hip
A

C

In the normal standing posture ground reaction force (GRF ) passes from ground through the midfoot, anterior to ankle and knee and posterior to hip joint.

115
Q

The function of the following extrinsic muscle of the hand is to extend finger

  1. Ext digiti quinti
  2. Ext indicis propius
  3. Ext digitorum communis
  4. Ext carpi radialis longus
A

E

ECRL&B
ED
EDM
ECU
APL
EPB&L
EI
116
Q

The probably cause of steppage gait is

  1. Severely weak dorsoflexors
  2. Plantar flexors spasticity
  3. Equines deformity
  4. Weak plantarflexors
A

A

117
Q

When a child is diagnosed as CP, the 1st question asked by the parents is always ‘will he walk?’ to answer this question the following tests were done

  1. Atnr
  2. Stnr
  3. Foot placement reaction
  4. Parachute reaction
A

E

118
Q

Children in this spastic subgroup typically manifest signs of UMN involvement. This may include

  1. Hyperreflexia
  2. Persistent primitive reflexes
  3. Overflow reflexes suh as crossed adduction
  4. Extensor babinski response/abnormal after 2 years of age
A

E

119
Q

Cardinal clinical signs of werdnig Hoffmann disease are

  1. Severe limb and ataxia weakness
  2. Leg in frog position
  3. Poor head control
  4. Weak cry
A

E

120
Q

The advantages of standard concentric (coaxial) needle electrode is

  1. Fixed location from reference
  2. Standardized exposed area
  3. Used for quantitative EMG
  4. Less artifact
A

A

it has a standardized exposed area, a fixed location from the reference, less interference, and no separate reference.

121
Q

Muscle tension is monitored primarily by

  1. Muscle spindle
  2. Motor endplate
  3. Extrafusal fibers
  4. Golgi tendon organ
A

D

122
Q

In a totally denervated of all muscles due to a severe brachial plexus injury, this can be categorized as pre-ganglionic lesions if we found the following data in EMG exam

  1. Sensory NCV: good response
  2. Motor NCV: good response
  3. EMG: total denervation
  4. EMG: partial denervation
A

B
EMG:
NCS shows absent motor conduction w/ intact sensory conduction;
- afferent sensory fibers will not undergo Wallerian degeneration following nerve root avulsion because cell bodies of afferent sensory fibers are located in dorsal root gangion which resides distally;
- if nerve conduction velocity demonstrates absence of both sensory and motor then lesion is post gangionic;

PE: anesthesia above the clavicle

- horner's syndrome: (pre-ganglionic injury)
     - caused by avulsion of the T1 root resulting in interruption of the T1 sympathetic ganglion;
     - results in interruption of sympathetic nerve supply to the eye;
     - causes miosis (constriction of pupil), ptosis (dropping of upper eyelid), enophthalmos (sinking of the orbit), and anhydrosis (dry eyes);
- abnormal axonal reflex;
- winging of scapula: (serratus anterior)
- weak levator scapula & rhomboids:
- elevated hemidiaphragm (determined from CXR);
123
Q

These are the rehab program for leprosy

  1. Oil massage
  2. Active exc
  3. Soaking the feet in water
  4. Protection of the hands and feet
A

E

124
Q

The 1st thing to do in the management of mild spasticity is

  1. Give oral diazepam
  2. Give superficial heating
  3. Give nerve block injection
  4. Remove all the possible of noxious stimuli
A

D

125
Q

The damage to the superior branch of facial nerve in leprosy will increase the chances of

  1. Blindness
  2. Exposure keratitis
  3. Damage to the cornea
  4. Sensory loss of the face
A

A

126
Q

Patients w/ CTS often complain of

  1. Hand weakness more frequently than pain
  2. Numbness over the dorsal aspect of the fingers
  3. Sensory changes the dorsal aspect of the finger
  4. Nocturnal symptoms of numbness and tingling
A

A

127
Q

Which of the following criteria must be present for at least 6 weeks for diagnosis of RA

  1. Swelling in three or more joint areas
  2. Symmetric joint swelling
  3. Swelling in hand joint
  4. Rheumatoid nodule
A

A
Morning stiffness lasting at least one hour (minimum 6 weeks)
Arthritis of three or more joint areas simultaneously an observed by a physician (minimum 6 weeks)
Arthritis of hand joints (minimum 6 weeks)
Symmetric arthritis (minimum 6 weeks)

128
Q

Diagnosis of myofascial trigger point

  1. Exquisite spot tenderness
  2. Local twitch response
  3. Pain recognition
  4. Taut band
A

C

129
Q

The following is gold standard for osteoporosis therapy

  1. Calcium
  2. Calcitonin
  3. Biphosphonate
  4. Selective estrogen receptor modulator
A

B

130
Q

Adhesive capsulitis

  1. Associated w/ DM, inflammatory arthritis, prolonged immobilization
  2. More common in woman than man
  3. Usually an idiopathic condition
  4. Divided into 3 stages
A

E

131
Q

A woman aged 32, had ACL reconstruction 1 week ago. She arrives at her 1st outpatient visit with moderate edema about knee and ankle. She states that she has been compliant w/ weight bearing and uses her crutches and brace as instructed. To reduce her edema, what kind of exc program you would give?

  1. Elevate leg above heart level 20 min 4 x/day
  2. Ankle pumps 10 repetitions every minute while elevating her leg
  3. Quads and hamstrings isometric contraction using closed chain environment
  4. Prone position w/ the involved leg hanging over the edge of the table or bed
A

A

132
Q

A woman aged 32, had ACL reconstruction 1 week ago. She arrives at her 1st outpatient visit with moderate edema about knee and ankle. She states that she has been compliant w/ weight bearing and uses her crutches and brace as instructed. What are you goal for this patient in this phase (1-4 weeks post surgery)?

  1. Full knee ext
  2. Regain cardiovascular capacity
  3. Increase active and passive ROM
  4. Ambulation w/o an assistive device
A

A

133
Q

The characteristic changes posture in elderly

  1. Stooped posture
  2. Backward head posture
  3. Increased postural sway
  4. Decreased postural instability
A

B

134
Q

Independent of bone mineral density in elderly women, which factors contribute to an increased risk of fracture secondary to a fall?

  1. Morbid obesity
  2. Use of coumadin
  3. Cafein consumption
  4. Poor visual acuity
A

E

135
Q

A 55 yo man weigh 85 kg, height 165 cm, he got MCI 1 month ago. The fasting glucose level 250, total chloe 400, no hypertension. Factor that should be considered to prescribe cardiac rehabilitation program

  1. Avoid any kind of exercise
  2. Assessed func capacity w/ stress test
  3. Limitation of ADL and walking
  4. Reduce risk factor for 2nd cardiac disease attack
A

C

136
Q

Common treadmill protocols for cardiovascular graded exc tolerance testing

  1. Naughton-balke
  2. Astrand
  3. Cornell
  4. Bruce
A

E

137
Q

Among the following, which activity might especially stressful for patient w/ cardiac disease?

  1. LE cycle ergometry
  2. UE arm ergometry
  3. Leg raises exc
  4. Bridging exc
A

D

138
Q

The following are the characteristics of becker’s muscular dystrophy

  1. This form is similar to DMD in terms of distribution of weakness
  2. It has a later onset than DMD
  3. It is more benign than DMD
  4. It is also an X-linked inherited disorder
A

E

139
Q

A 5 yo patient was diagnosed as Spastic CP diplegic type due to prenatal cause, come to rehab w/ CC could not walk and stand straight, both legs crossed and tiptoe in standing position. What assessment is needed to determine spasticity of hip

  1. Phelps gracilis test
  2. Duncan elly test
  3. Thomas test
  4. Tardieu test
A

A

140
Q

The following are the early treatment of CTEV

  1. Dennis-brown splint
  2. Outflare orthopaedic shoes
  3. Surgical soft tissue release
  4. Stretching and serial plaster correction
A

D

141
Q

The following are the signs of autonomic dysreflexia in a T4 paraplegia ASIA

  1. Pounding headache
  2. Nasal congestion
  3. Hypertension
  4. Tachycardia
A 
A
paroxysmal hypertension (the sudden onset of severe high blood pressure) associated with throbbing headaches, profuse sweating, nasal stuffiness, flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion, slow heart rate, anxiety, and sometimes by cognitive impairmen
142
Q

The functional outcome of L2 paraplegia AIS A is

  1. Independent ambulation using bilateral axillary crutches and KAFO
  2. Independent bladder and bowel activities
  3. Require no wheelchair for ambulation
  4. Independent in pressure sore relief
A

C

143
Q

Early management of acute whiplash injury are

  1. Rest
  2. Soft cervical collar
  3. Analgetic and muscle relaxant
  4. ROM and neck calliet’s exc
A

A

144
Q

The following included seronegative spondyloarthropathies

  1. Ankylosing spondylitis
  2. RA
  3. Psoriatic arthritis
  4. Spondylitis
A 
B
    Ankylosing Spondylitis (AS)
    Reiter's Syndrome
    Psoriatic Arthritis
    Arthritis of Inflammatory Bowel Diseasega
145
Q

Indications using orthotic in RA are

  1. Decrease joint motion-stabilization
  2. Decrease pain and inflammation
  3. Reduced weight thru joint
  4. Stop the deformities
A

C

146
Q

De quervain’s disease is a stenozing tenosynotivis of the following muscles

  1. Abd poll brevis
  2. Abd poll longus
  3. Ext poll longus
  4. Ext poll brevis
A

C

147
Q

The principle of burn rehab is

  1. Splints are useful for passive positioning
  2. Hydrotherapy
  3. Lubrication
  4. USD
A

A

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