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Mod 6 Finals > LL2 > Flashcards

LL2 Flashcards

1
Q

PREGNANCY, DEVELOPMENT, AND LACTATION

A
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2
Q

____ is the term given to the collective changes sperm undergo to help increase the chance of fertilizing an ovum

A

capacitation

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3
Q

during development the fetus floats around in the

A

amniotic sac

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4
Q

what is the gestation period for cats?

A

56-69 days

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5
Q

what part of the cotyledonary placental attachment is found on the uterine lining?

A

caruncle

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6
Q

_____ is the term given to the physical act of breeding

A

copulation

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7
Q

during pregnancy, what provides the life support system for the developing fetus?

A

placenta

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8
Q

in which of the following would you find a zonary placental attachment?

A

dog

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9
Q

the _____ is the structure that allows for actual exchange of nutrients and waste between fetal and maternal circulation

A

umbilical cord

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10
Q

once the fertilized ova has reached the uterus it is called a ______ and is ready for implantation

A

blastocyte

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11
Q

what is the gestation period for horses?

A

321-346 days

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12
Q

what portion of sperm undergoes the most change once it enters the female reproductive tract?

A

acrosome

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13
Q

once an ovum is fertilized, it is then called a ______

A

zygote

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14
Q

in which of the following would you find a cotyledonary placental attachment?

A

sheep

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15
Q

what is the gestation period for dogs?

A

59-68 days

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16
Q

the life support system of the developing fetus is called the

A

placenta

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17
Q

the gestational period for pigs is ______

A

3 months, 3 weeks, 3 days

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18
Q

in which of the following would you find a diffuse placental attachment?

A

horse

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19
Q

consumption of colostrum after birth is important to a neonates health, because

A

neonates require the immunoglobulin transfer

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20
Q

URINALYSIS

A
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21
Q

which of the following an occur if urine samples are not read in a timely manner?

A

all of the following

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22
Q

which of the following would cause a high urine specific gravity?

A

dehydration

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23
Q

calcium oxalate monohydrate crystals are commonly associated with which of the following?

A

ethelyene glycol toxicity

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24
Q

a disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is

A

contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract

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25
Q

which of the following crystals can you see in alkaline urine?

A

all of the following

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26
Q

a urine pH below 7 (increased H+) is

A

aciduric

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27
Q

typically speaking patients with PU/PD will have

A

low specific gravity

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28
Q

which of the following is the most common type of cast seen in a urine sediment examination?

A

granular

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29
Q

what is the normal urine output for dogs and cats?

A

1-2 ml/kg

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30
Q

urine with a SG in the range of 1.008-1.012 is _____ and indicates that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma

A

isothenuric

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31
Q

which of the following is the correct term for finding crystals in the urine?

A

crystalluria

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32
Q

when performing a urine sediment evaluation, a finding of increased numbers of leukocytes is an indication of _____

A

pyuria

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33
Q

uric acid crystals are most commonly found in which of the following breeds?

A

dalmation

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34
Q

which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered least desirable in order to culture urinary bacterial?

A

collection from cage floor

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35
Q

what would be expected to occur regarding BUN levels and SG in a dehydrated patient who ahs properly functioning kidneys?

A

increased BUn and increased urine SG

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36
Q

a _____ is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG

A

refractometer

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37
Q

large amounts of sperm in the urine can give false positive for which of the following tests on a reagent strip?

A

protein

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38
Q

which of the following clinic findings is typically due to muscle cell lysis

A

myoglobinuria

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39
Q

collecting a urine sample for bacterial cultrue should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is peformed

A

to avoid contamination

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40
Q

in most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are the

A

horse and rabbit

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41
Q

what is the major drawback of collecting urine by cystocentesis

A

blood contamination

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42
Q

which of the following is the scientific name of the bladder worm?

A

pearsonema plica

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43
Q

the accuracy of the refractometer should be periodically checked by using distilled water, which should show a SG of

A

1.000

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44
Q

Urine containing hemoglobin vs. blood can be differentiated by centrifuging the sample. A spun sample will reveal a red sediment with normal supernatant if _______ is present, while _______ will result in a uniform red sample with the supernatant remaining red.

A

hematuria; hemoglobinuria

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45
Q

which of the following tests would you see elevated on a chemistry panel in an animal with azotemia?

A

BUN and Creatinine

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46
Q

squamous epithelial cells are large polygonal cells with small nuclei. Squamous cells are absent in urine samples collected by

A

cystocentesis

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47
Q

which of the following crystals is a normal finding in the urine of the horse and rabbit?

A

calcium carbonate crystals

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48
Q

which of the following is the most ideal urine sample for examination

A

first morning urine

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49
Q

PANSYSTEMIC DISEASES

A
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50
Q

When a patient dies from rabies it is due to neuron damage in the brain

A

false

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51
Q

which of the following vaccines will cause an animal to always test positive for the disease

A

FIV

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52
Q

which of the following is the treatment of choice for Toxoplasmosis

A

Clindamycin

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53
Q

which of the of the following tick-borne diseases causes a dermal rash around the bite wound that resembles a target?

A

lyme disease

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54
Q

which of the following is a zoonotic disease?

A

toxoplasmosis

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55
Q

toxoplasmosis is caused by

A

toxoplasma gondii

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56
Q

which disease is closely related to antigenically to canine parvo virus

A

panleukopenia

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57
Q

what is the predominant method for transmission of FIV in cats?

A

bite wounds

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58
Q

cats with FIV should be euthanized because of the risk that it posses for humans

A

false

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59
Q

which of the following diseases can only be diagnosed through testing of the brain tissue?

A

rabies

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60
Q

which of the following is the treatment of choice for Rickettsioses?

A

doxycycline

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61
Q

cats shed toxoplasmosis oocytsts for how long after infection?

A

1-2 weeks

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62
Q

what does a cat have to be exposed to inorder to contract FIP?

A

coronavirus

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63
Q

which of the following is the treatment of choice for RMSF?

A

doxycycline

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64
Q

which of the following contributes to lyme disease?

A

borrelia burgdorferi

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65
Q

is parvovirus an enveloped or a non-enveloped virus?

A

non-enveloped

66
Q

what virus is associated with FIV infection?

A

lentivirus

67
Q

what cells does Parvo virus infect?

A

rapidly, dividing cells of the lymphoid system, the intestinal tract, bone marrow, and the myocardium

68
Q

hyperkeratosis of foot pads in dogs is commonly associated with canine parvo virus

A

false

69
Q

how long does a tick have to attach to transmt B. burgdorferi?

A

at least 48 hours

70
Q

canine parvo is spread by which of the following means/

A

feces

71
Q

cats exposed to FIV typically respond in any of the following ways except?

A

becoming infected, appearing ill within 3 days, and dying within a week

72
Q

which of the following may not be a sign of rabies in an animal?

A

diarrhea

73
Q

canine distemper virus is caused by

A

paramyxovirus

74
Q

the major source of infection for FIV is

A

fighting and bite wounds

75
Q

canine parvo virus can remain viable in the environment for

A

greater than 3 years

76
Q

a vaccinated animal who has bitten a person must be quarantined for how many days to rule out rabies infection at the time of the bite wound

A

10 days

77
Q

parvovirus in dogs is caused by what virus?

A

parvo virus

78
Q

feline leukemia has been reported in humans

A

false

79
Q

the definitive host for toxoplasmosis gondii is

A

cat

80
Q

kittens should be at least of what age for FIV testing

A

6 months

81
Q

in which stage of rabies are humans at the greatest risk of exposure as behavioral changes can make some animals appear more friendly

A

prodromal

82
Q

SQ fluids should be avoided in which of the following patients?

A

dogs with parvo

83
Q

the brown dog tick is scientifically known as

A

rhipicephlaous sanguineus

84
Q

TOXICOLOGY

A
85
Q

silica gel packs can casue severe gastroenteritis and diarrhea

A

false

86
Q

when dealing with corrosive substances that have been ingested

A

dilute with milk or water

87
Q

this important step in treating permethrin intoxication should be accomplished as soon as the muscle tremors are somewhat controlled

A

bathing to remove dermal exposure

88
Q

the atcive toxicants in chocolate include

A

caffeine and theobromine

89
Q

which of the following nuts is known to cause hind end paresis in dogs?

A

macadamia nuts

90
Q

NSAIDs in excessive doses will lead to all of the following except

A

hemolysis

91
Q

where does insoluble calcium oxalate produced by plants such as philodendron and peace lilies cause problems when ingested by companion animals?

A

mouth

92
Q

pennys minted prior to 1982 contain copper so there are no concerns for zinc toxicity

A

true

93
Q

why is ethanol administered in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity

A

it decreases toxic metabolite production

94
Q

ingestion of lilies can cause acute
_____ and death in cats

A

renal failure

95
Q

ingestion of grapes and raisins can cause ____ in some dogs when eaten

A

kidney failure

96
Q

how long is the antidote for anticoagulant rodenticide intoxication usually prescribed

A

30 days

97
Q

the crystal that can be seen in patients with ethylene glycol toxicity is

A

calcium oxalate monohydrate

98
Q

Amitraz tick collars can cause problems if ingested. Amitraz is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and can cause sedation, bradycardia and hypotension. Fortunately, the signs can be reversed with

A

yohimbine or antipamezole

99
Q

ethylene glycol ingestion will result in

A

renal failure

100
Q

products containing this artificial sweetener can cause potential intoxications

A

xylitol

101
Q

acetaminophen ingestion will lead to

A

methemoglobinnemia

102
Q

cycad palms are noted for causing

A

liver failure

103
Q

emesis should rapidly be induced in patients that have a recent history of ingesting products like toilet bowl cleaners

A

false

104
Q

_____ is the toxic principle of castor beans and is considered to be one of the most potent plant toxins known

A

ricin

105
Q

how long after ingestion of chocolate should emesis be attempted in dogs?

A

up to 8 hours after ingestion

106
Q

which organization is available to call when poisoning is suspected?

A

ASPCA

107
Q

Acetylcysteine is the antidote for which of the following toxic drugs?

A

acetaminophen

108
Q

pesticides and rodenticides are common toxicities. For which of the following should emesis be induced outside in a well ventilated area?

A

mole bait

109
Q

cats are roughly 10 times more sensitive to acetaminophen than dogs are

A

true

110
Q

to treat permethrin intoxication in patients which drug has been shown to work the best?

A

methocarbamol

111
Q

bromethalin intoxication will cause

A

brain edema and seizures

112
Q

cold water or ice cubes should be administered by mouth or via a stomach tube to dogs that have ingested

A

bread dough

113
Q

which of the following rodenticides causes soft tissue calcification?

A

cholecalciferol

114
Q

the antidote for anticoagulant type rodenticides

A

vitamin K1

115
Q

When an animal owner phones a veterinary practice expressing concern that the animal might have been poisoned, a veterinary technician should be able to do all of the following without input from the veterinarian except

A

call a local pharmacy and place an order for the appropraite antidote

116
Q

zinc ingestion can lead to

A

hemolytic anemai

117
Q

nicotine intoxication can lead to death due to

A

respiratory paralysis

118
Q

Oleander, lily of the valley or foxglove ingestion will lead to vomiting, diarrhea, and cardiac arrhythmias– the toxic principle would be

A

cardiac glycosides

119
Q

which emetic medication can be administered via the conjunctival sac?

A

apomophine

120
Q

this intoxication will produce depression, bradycardia, urinary incontinence, ataxia, and mydriasis

A

marijuana

121
Q

the antidote for castor bean ingestion would be

A

no antidote

122
Q

garlic, leeks, chives, and onions contain compounds that will cause

A

hemolytic anemia

123
Q

which of the following chocolate types will have the greatest amount of methylxanthines?

A

bakers

124
Q

common household sources of ____ includes: toilet bowl cleaners, drain openers, automobile battery fluid, and pool sanitizers

A

acids

125
Q

EMERGENCY AND CRITICAL CARE

A
126
Q

a client calls the hospital and indicates that a car has just hit his cat. the recommendation that should be made include

A

immediately bring the cat into the clinic to be examined by a vet

127
Q

a client describes his male cat as lethargic and constipated; he has observed the cat straining in the litter box. You suspect that the cat is actually suffering from

A

urethral obstruction

128
Q

which of the following changes on a chemistry panel would you expect to see in a FLUTD patient that has a urinary obstruction?

A

hyperkalemia

129
Q

for which of the following types of pleural effusion would you most likely not perform a thoracentesis?

A

hemothorax

130
Q

what is the preferred route of fluid adminisgtration in critically ill animals?

A

IV

131
Q

a patient is experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest. The most desirable route of drug administration is

A

IV

132
Q

what is not usually a sign of acute GDV?

A

profuse diarrhea

133
Q

which is not an immediate consideration in CPCR?

A

analgesia

134
Q

according to the principles of triage, which patient should be seen first?

A

dog with acute gastric dilatation/volvulus

135
Q

when performing CPR on dogs and cats, it is important

A

to compress the chest 30-50% of the total width

136
Q

the normal CRT of a canine patient is

A

1-2 sec

137
Q

patients with burns will likely have scars the rest of their life

A

truet

138
Q

the first drug of choice for a cat that experiences status epilepticus is

A

diazepam

139
Q

which of these items would be least useful on a crash cart used for emergency situations?

A

otoscope

140
Q

according to the principles of triage, which patient should be seen first/

A

dog in respiratory distress

141
Q

which of the following is a vasopressor that can be used during CPCR

A

epinephrine

142
Q

signs of cardiopulmonary arrest include all of the following except

A

alertness

143
Q

the rapid IV adminstraiton of large amoutns of potassium can result in

A

cardiac arrest

144
Q

during triage, which of the following should be seen first?

A

cat in respiratory distress

145
Q

which of the following triage levels should be seen first?

A

1

146
Q

the MM of a dog in septic shock are

A

hyperemic (injected)

147
Q

the electrodes on many ECG machines are color codes. the ____ lead is placed on the right forelimb

A

white

148
Q

which of the following topical medications should be avoided when treating a corneal ulcer

A

steroids

149
Q

how should a patient with a potential spinal injury be transported?

A

lying on a flat board

150
Q

skin staples provide a wound with a sturdy closure to help promote wound healing

A

false

151
Q

which of the following systems is not evaluated during the initial in-hospital triage examination

A

musculoskeletal

152
Q

a client calls and says that his Rottweiler has been shot in the abdomen with a BB gun, but he appears perfectly fine. what should be recommended?

A

see a veterinarian immediately

153
Q

modified transudate material is the most common form of pleural effusion observed in out veterinary patients

A

true

154
Q

four patients present to your clinic at the same time with emergency conditions. In which order should they be triaged?

A

dyspnea, dystocia, proptosis, laceration

155
Q

which of the following conditions are you more likely to see after an animal experiences a severe blunt trauma, such as being hit by a car

A

diaphragmatic hernia

156
Q

A client calls the hospital to say that his Pekingese has suffered an eye proptosis. Your advice to the client should include all of the following, except:

A

apply pressure to the globe to replace it in the socket

157
Q

Which of the following routes of injectable drug administration is not recommended in dehydrated patients, especially in an emergency situation?

A

SQ!

158
Q

Allergic reactions are commonly seen in emergency medicine. All of the following medications may be given to an animal suffering from an allergic reaction, except:

A

dexmedetomidine

159
Q

during CPCR many drugs may be given. All of the following meds can be given IT except

A

naloxone

160
Q

which of the following is the msot common type of shock observed in our vet patient?

A

hypovolemic

Mod 6 Finals (4 decks)

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