Diseases Flashcards
(161 cards)
1
Q
RENAL/URINARY SYSTEM
A
2
Q
which of the following is the correct term for increases blood potassium levels
A
kyperkalemia
3
Q
which of the following diets can be given short term to patients to help rapidly dissolve crystals
A
hills s/d
4
Q
frequent small amounts of urination
A
pollakiuria
5
Q
straining to urinate
A
stranguria
6
Q
frank blood in urine or pink tinged urine
A
hematuria
7
Q
absence of urination
A
anuria
8
Q
difficult urination
A
dysuria
9
Q
patients with renal disease should be fed diets that are ____ in protein
A
low
10
Q
the evaluate urine for crystalluria
A
urinalysis should be performed within 30 minutes of collection
11
Q
which of the following treatments is contraindicated in an animal with urinary obstruction
A
manual expression of the bladder
12
Q
what 2 lab results would be elevated in an animal that is azotemic
A
BUN; creatinine
13
Q
loss of voluntary control of micturition is also known as
A
incontinence
14
Q
a bladder stone greater than 15 cm is most likely a
A
struvite
15
Q
what finding on a CBC might an animal with chronic renal failure have
A
elevated creatinine
16
Q
which of the following statements is true of urinary catheterization
A
the catheter must be placed and handled aseptically
17
Q
chronic renal failure is a curable disease
A
false
18
Q
which of the following would not be a cause of acute renal failure
A
old age
19
Q
most cases of FLUTD are considered a “sterile” cystitis, meaning there is no bacterial infection
A
true
20
Q
lower urinary tract infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli. Which of the following statements is true
A
bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and rare in the healthy cat
21
Q
currently the recommended treatment(s) for cats with FIC include
A
all the following
22
Q
which of the following uroliths is radiolucent
A
urate
23
Q
which of the following statements about FLUTD is false
A
most common cause of FLUTD is bacterial infection
24
Q
which of the following is not a possible cause of urinary incontinence
A
all options are possible causes
25
when pressure of the ____ is greater than that of the urethra incontinence can occur
bladder
26
roughly what percentage of blood pumped by the heart goes directly to the kidneys
25%
27
usually, once a male cat recovers from an episode of FLUTD, its in the clear and chances of reoccurrence are unlikely
false
28
common signs of bacterial infections of the urinary tract include hematuria, pollakiuria, urinating in inappropriate places, and which of the following
dysuria
29
the most common type of urolith found in cats is a
struvite
30
what does FIC stand for
feline idiopathic cystitis
31
what is the preferred treatment for benign prostate hyperplasia
castration
32
dissolution of uroliths is a common treatment of any animal with ____ uroliths
struvite
33
which of the following conditions can casue prerenal uremia
all
34
which best describes micturition?
normal urination
35
which of the following is not a cause for acute renal failure
congenitial disease
36
normal urine output for a canine or feline patient is
1-2 ml/kg/hr
37
litterbox management of cats with FLUTD includes
having one litterbox per cat, plus one
38
estrogen related urinary incontinence is more commonly seen in which of the following
spayed females and intact males
39
diets high in animal protein may predispose the dog to what type of bladder stone
oxalate
40
goals of the medical management of chronic renal disease include all of the following except
correcting electrolyte imbalances
41
NERVOUS SYSTEM
42
Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can be given to patients to help with which of the following
Intracranial pressure
43
typically, coonhound paralysis is transmitted via
racoon bite
44
and chondrodystrophic dog comes into the clinic exhibiting signs of hindlimb paresis after jumping off the bed. Due to his breed alone, you suspect he has
IVDD
45
how many RBC would you expect to see per mL of normal CSF?
0
46
a hemilaminectomy would be performed on a dog with
IVDD
47
how should a patient with potential spinal injury be transported to the hospital?
lying on a flat board
48
Schiff-Sherrington posture is commonly associated with what neurological disorder?
trauma
49
which is the correct order of changes in mentation from best to worst
quiet, obtunded, stuporous, comatose
50
a 1.5 year old great dane presents with a "wobbly" gate, progressive hind limb ataxia, a atrophy of the scapular muscles. The doctor recommends cervical disc replacement as an option to treat this dogs _______
cervical spondylomyelopathy
51
which of the following is considered to be a chondrodystrophic breed?
all of the options
52
polyradiculoneuritis is also known as
coonhound paralysis
53
a ____ seizure is considered a "grand mal" seizure and involve all of the body, and a _____ seizure tends to appear as muscle movement of one limb or area of the body and the animal tends to remain conscious
generalized; focal
54
A 4-year old German Shorthair Pointer presents to your clinic with weight loss, fever, reluctance to move, and pain during palpation of the spine. Her owner informs you that she’s a hunting dog, and recently recovered from a grass awn abcess over her scapula. What is her most likely diagnosis?
discospondylitis
55
which of the following is a heredity condition
megaesophagus
56
which of the following options is recommended for the nursing care of a patient with head trauma?
provide adequate analgesia and oxygen therapy
57
what is the most common spinal cord injury
IVDD
58
a 3 year old dog presents to your clinic a history of weight loss and regurgitation. The owner states the pet is regurgitating after every meal, as well as after drinking water. Your DVM asks you to obtain chest radiographs because he's concerned the dog may have
megaesophagus
59
megaesophagus can be linked to which of the following
all of the following
60
which of the following statements about brucellosis is true?
it is a causative agent of discospondylitis
61
which of the following statements about deafness is fasle?
it is not considered to be hereditary nor is it ever a congential disease
62
which of the following may be mistaken for seizures?
all options
63
which of the following would contribute to geriatric vestibular syndrome
otitis media
64
during a Cushing's reflex/response, what changes in your patient's HR and BP would occur?
decreased HR, increased BP
65
a 7-month toy poodle presents to your clinic with tetraparesis. The owner informs you that the puppy doesn't like being patted on the head, and it often seems like the dog's neck is painful. Cervical radiographs would most likely show
atlantoaxial subluxation
66
tick paralysis commonly causes
ascending paralysis
67
which of the following is described as ataxia and paresis resulting from spondylosis of the vertebrae
wobbler syndrome
68
what is the purpose of a bailey chair?
to keep an animal with megaesophagus upright during feedings
69
which of the following patients would you expect to see vestibular disease occur in?
9 year old labrador
70
a 7 year old german shepherd presents to your clinic with a history of progressive ataxia and paresis of the hind limbs. The owner became concerned when her dog could not defecate without falling over. Based on signalment and clinical signs, this dog is most likely suffering from
degenerative myelopathy
71
this disease occurs when bacteria or fungi implant in the bones of the vertebrae and causes destruction or lysis of teh vertebral end plates that can be seen on radiographs
discospondylitis
72
which of the following is most likely to be blind?
white DSH with blue eyes
73
what ticks are associated with tick paralysis
dermacentor variablis and dermacentor andersoni
74
anisocoria can be defined as
pupils of unequal size
75
a ____ seizure involves increased muscular rigidity, and a ____ seizure involves rhythmic jerking movements
tonic; clonic
76
which of the following is a site where CSF can be collected for examination
cistern and lumbosacral
77
A 3-year old MC DSH presents to your clinic with blood coming out of his mouth and one ear. The cat is lethargic to stuporous, and you notice anisocoria. The owner informs you that he is mostly an outdoor cat, and they have no idea what happened...they just found him that way. Without any diagnostics, you’re concerned this cat is suffering from:
head trauma
78
this syndrome is due to a dysfunctional of the sympathetic nerves of the eyes and surrounding facial muscles and may be associated with FCE patients
horners
79
which of the following conditions matches a patient exhibiting a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, and ataxia?
vestibular syndrome
80
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
81
which of the following terms is used to describe a high-pitched, discontinuous inspiratory sound with the reopening of airways that closed during expiration?
crackle
82
conditions that may induce a coughing reflex include all of the following, except
left sided congestive heart failure
83
clear fluid removed from the thoracic cavity is known as
pleural effusion
84
feline asthma
lower respiratory tract
85
rhinitis
upper respiratory tract
86
laryngeal paralysis
upper respiratory tract
87
blastomycosis
lower respiratory tract
88
laryngitis
upper respiratory tract
89
pneumonia
lower respiratory tract
90
feline herpesvirus
lower respiratory tract
91
kennel cough
lower respiratory tract
92
which of the following is an acceptable method of making food more palatable to the pet?
warming the food
93
collapsing trachea is most often seen in
yorkshire terriers
94
which of the following is not a typical clinical sign associated with upper respiratory tract disease?
coughing
95
bradycephalic airyway syndrome includes
stenotic nares and elongated soft palate
96
a 5 year old hunting dog from the mississippi river valley has an exudative, serosanguineous wound that is nonresponsive to antibiotics and corticosteroid treatment. This should alert the clinician to the possibility of what type of problem?
fungal
97
which of the following breeds are you most likely to see Laryngeal Paralysis in?
Labrador Retriever
98
the most common systemic mycotic disease in cats is caused by
cryptococcus
99
which of the following is a technique used to help loosen purulent material within the pulmonary system?
coupage
100
which feline viral respiraotry infection is highly resistant to disinfectants and can live in the environment for several days
calicivirus
101
which of the following are you most likely to see a chylothorax in?
domestic shorthaired
102
if the carbon dioxide level in blood decreases, the pH usually _____ and respiration _____
lowers; increases
103
if you are going to take radiographs on a patient to look for a respiratory disease, how many views should be taken?
3
104
which fungal infection resides predominantly in the nasal passages of the dog and eats away at the nasal turbinates
aspergillosis
105
asthma most commonly affects which species?
feline
106
to perform coupage, cupped hands should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall, starting
caudally and working forward
107
blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis, and histoplasmosis are all types of _____ disease seen in dogs and cats
fungal
108
a chest tube is placed when an animal has
pneumothorax
109
which of the following is the cause for infectious canine tracheobronchitis?
all of the following
110
what is the most common systemic mycosis in the cat?
cryptococcosis
111
if you were to perform a BAL on an asthmatic patient, which white blood cell would you expect to find an elevated number of?
eosinophil
112
which of the following are abnormal lung sounds heard in the asthmatic feline patient on auscultation of the lower respiratory system
wheezes
113
the most common route of infection for mycotic disease is
inhalation
114
which of the following diseases exhibit coughing, fever, and mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge?
canine distemper
115
hypoxemia is defined as
low blood oxygen levels
116
the 2 most common feline viral respiratory infections are
herpesvirus and calicivirus
117
which of the following is a likely cause for feline asthma?
both chronic airway inflammation and allergies
118
term for air in the thoracic cavity
pneumothorax
119
general term for fluid in the thoracic cavity
pleural effusion
120
blood in the thoracic cavity
hemothorax
121
excess fluid in the lungs
pulmonary edema
122
cloudy fluid in the thoracic cavity that can be white to pink/purple
chlylothorax
123
infection that causes lung inflammation
pneumonia
124
purulent fluid in the thoracic cavity
pyothorax
125
tension pneumothorax occurs when pressure in the thoracic cavity is
greater than atmospheric pressure
126
coupage is contraindicated in patients that have
fractured ribs
127
a collection of blood in the cranial portion of the ventral cavity is known as
hemothorax
128
which of the following is the most important first step when dyspneic patient presents to the veterinary hospital?
stabilize the patient before performing any diagnostic tests
129
which respiratory disease would most likley produce crackles on auscultation?
pneumonia
130
which of the following is not a fungal disease of the respiratory tract?
mycoplasma
131
REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM
132
the typical gestation period for dogs is
2 months
133
which of the following is the correct term for what is commonly called a "spay"?
ovariohysterectomy
134
eclampsia is associated with which of the following conditions
hypocalcemia
135
which of the following is not a cause of dystocia?
mastitis
136
castration is the treatment of choice for testicular tumors
true
137
a female dog can have both benign and malignant mammary tumors at the same time
true
138
which of the following is a septic inflammation of the mammary gland?
mastitis
139
which of the following is the correct term for a lack of milk production
agalactia
140
which of the following is a fairly common condition of prepubital bitches that can present as vulvar discharge with no evidence of a UTI
vaginitis
141
a condition that is characterized by behavioral changes and the accumulation of fluid in the uterus and one or more corpus lutra in the ovaries is known as
pseudopregnancy
142
roughly what percent of feline mammary tumors are malignant
85%
143
inappropriate maternal behavior is described as which of the following?
all options are correct
144
vaginal tumors are more common in cats that dogs
false
145
a normal sized uterus should be visible on a radiograph
false
146
what is the preferred treatment of eclampsia?
calcium gluconate
147
pyometra can occur as either "open" or "closed"
true
148
which of the following is the most common bacterial cause of prostatitis
e.coli
149
bitches with inappropriate maternal behavior can be used for breeding again as she will most likely calm down with future litters
false
150
viral vaginitis is typically associated with which of the following diseases?
canine herpesvirus
151
penile tumors can be a common find in male intact dogs
false
152
puppies can still nurse from a bitch with mastitis, they should just use the non-affected nipples
true
153
which of the following is not a cause for gestational fetal death
infectious tracheobronchitis
154
if more than 60 minutes elapses between the production of a puppy during labor intervention should begin
true
155
which of the following describes a patient suffering from dystocia
hard labor for 30-60 minutes with no new young
156
which of the following is the correct definition for tesnesmus?
ineffective defecation
157
all neoplasia's of the prostate are malignant
true
158
which of the following is the best treatment option for patietns with prostatitis
antibiotic therapy
159
which of the following describes a patient suffering from a pyometra?
vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, PU/PD
160
how early can fetal skeletons be detected on radiographs?
45 days
161
prostatic disease is more common in which of the following?
intact male dogs
