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Mod 6 Finals > Diseases > Flashcards

Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

RENAL/URINARY SYSTEM

A
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2
Q

which of the following is the correct term for increases blood potassium levels

A

kyperkalemia

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3
Q

which of the following diets can be given short term to patients to help rapidly dissolve crystals

A

hills s/d

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4
Q

frequent small amounts of urination

A

pollakiuria

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5
Q

straining to urinate

A

stranguria

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6
Q

frank blood in urine or pink tinged urine

A

hematuria

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7
Q

absence of urination

A

anuria

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8
Q

difficult urination

A

dysuria

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9
Q

patients with renal disease should be fed diets that are ____ in protein

A

low

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10
Q

the evaluate urine for crystalluria

A

urinalysis should be performed within 30 minutes of collection

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11
Q

which of the following treatments is contraindicated in an animal with urinary obstruction

A

manual expression of the bladder

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12
Q

what 2 lab results would be elevated in an animal that is azotemic

A

BUN; creatinine

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13
Q

loss of voluntary control of micturition is also known as

A

incontinence

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14
Q

a bladder stone greater than 15 cm is most likely a

A

struvite

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15
Q

what finding on a CBC might an animal with chronic renal failure have

A

elevated creatinine

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16
Q

which of the following statements is true of urinary catheterization

A

the catheter must be placed and handled aseptically

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17
Q

chronic renal failure is a curable disease

A

false

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18
Q

which of the following would not be a cause of acute renal failure

A

old age

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19
Q

most cases of FLUTD are considered a “sterile” cystitis, meaning there is no bacterial infection

A

true

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20
Q

lower urinary tract infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli. Which of the following statements is true

A

bacterial infections of the bladder are common in the dog and rare in the healthy cat

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21
Q

currently the recommended treatment(s) for cats with FIC include

A

all the following

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22
Q

which of the following uroliths is radiolucent

A

urate

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23
Q

which of the following statements about FLUTD is false

A

most common cause of FLUTD is bacterial infection

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24
Q

which of the following is not a possible cause of urinary incontinence

A

all options are possible causes

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25
Q

when pressure of the ____ is greater than that of the urethra incontinence can occur

A

bladder

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26
Q

roughly what percentage of blood pumped by the heart goes directly to the kidneys

A

25%

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27
Q

usually, once a male cat recovers from an episode of FLUTD, its in the clear and chances of reoccurrence are unlikely

A

false

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28
Q

common signs of bacterial infections of the urinary tract include hematuria, pollakiuria, urinating in inappropriate places, and which of the following

A

dysuria

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29
Q

the most common type of urolith found in cats is a

A

struvite

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30
Q

what does FIC stand for

A

feline idiopathic cystitis

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31
Q

what is the preferred treatment for benign prostate hyperplasia

A

castration

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32
Q

dissolution of uroliths is a common treatment of any animal with ____ uroliths

A

struvite

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33
Q

which of the following conditions can casue prerenal uremia

A

all

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34
Q

which best describes micturition?

A

normal urination

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35
Q

which of the following is not a cause for acute renal failure

A

congenitial disease

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36
Q

normal urine output for a canine or feline patient is

A

1-2 ml/kg/hr

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37
Q

litterbox management of cats with FLUTD includes

A

having one litterbox per cat, plus one

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38
Q

estrogen related urinary incontinence is more commonly seen in which of the following

A

spayed females and intact males

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39
Q

diets high in animal protein may predispose the dog to what type of bladder stone

A

oxalate

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40
Q

goals of the medical management of chronic renal disease include all of the following except

A

correcting electrolyte imbalances

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41
Q

NERVOUS SYSTEM

A
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42
Q

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that can be given to patients to help with which of the following

A

Intracranial pressure

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43
Q

typically, coonhound paralysis is transmitted via

A

racoon bite

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44
Q

and chondrodystrophic dog comes into the clinic exhibiting signs of hindlimb paresis after jumping off the bed. Due to his breed alone, you suspect he has

A

IVDD

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45
Q

how many RBC would you expect to see per mL of normal CSF?

A

0

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46
Q

a hemilaminectomy would be performed on a dog with

A

IVDD

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47
Q

how should a patient with potential spinal injury be transported to the hospital?

A

lying on a flat board

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48
Q

Schiff-Sherrington posture is commonly associated with what neurological disorder?

A

trauma

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49
Q

which is the correct order of changes in mentation from best to worst

A

quiet, obtunded, stuporous, comatose

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50
Q

a 1.5 year old great dane presents with a “wobbly” gate, progressive hind limb ataxia, a atrophy of the scapular muscles. The doctor recommends cervical disc replacement as an option to treat this dogs _______

A

cervical spondylomyelopathy

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51
Q

which of the following is considered to be a chondrodystrophic breed?

A

all of the options

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52
Q

polyradiculoneuritis is also known as

A

coonhound paralysis

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53
Q

a ____ seizure is considered a “grand mal” seizure and involve all of the body, and a _____ seizure tends to appear as muscle movement of one limb or area of the body and the animal tends to remain conscious

A

generalized; focal

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54
Q

A 4-year old German Shorthair Pointer presents to your clinic with weight loss, fever, reluctance to move, and pain during palpation of the spine. Her owner informs you that she’s a hunting dog, and recently recovered from a grass awn abcess over her scapula. What is her most likely diagnosis?

A

discospondylitis

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55
Q

which of the following is a heredity condition

A

megaesophagus

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56
Q

which of the following options is recommended for the nursing care of a patient with head trauma?

A

provide adequate analgesia and oxygen therapy

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57
Q

what is the most common spinal cord injury

A

IVDD

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58
Q

a 3 year old dog presents to your clinic a history of weight loss and regurgitation. The owner states the pet is regurgitating after every meal, as well as after drinking water. Your DVM asks you to obtain chest radiographs because he’s concerned the dog may have

A

megaesophagus

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59
Q

megaesophagus can be linked to which of the following

A

all of the following

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60
Q

which of the following statements about brucellosis is true?

A

it is a causative agent of discospondylitis

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61
Q

which of the following statements about deafness is fasle?

A

it is not considered to be hereditary nor is it ever a congential disease

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62
Q

which of the following may be mistaken for seizures?

A

all options

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63
Q

which of the following would contribute to geriatric vestibular syndrome

A

otitis media

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64
Q

during a Cushing’s reflex/response, what changes in your patient’s HR and BP would occur?

A

decreased HR, increased BP

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65
Q

a 7-month toy poodle presents to your clinic with tetraparesis. The owner informs you that the puppy doesn’t like being patted on the head, and it often seems like the dog’s neck is painful. Cervical radiographs would most likely show

A

atlantoaxial subluxation

66
Q

tick paralysis commonly causes

A

ascending paralysis

67
Q

which of the following is described as ataxia and paresis resulting from spondylosis of the vertebrae

A

wobbler syndrome

68
Q

what is the purpose of a bailey chair?

A

to keep an animal with megaesophagus upright during feedings

69
Q

which of the following patients would you expect to see vestibular disease occur in?

A

9 year old labrador

70
Q

a 7 year old german shepherd presents to your clinic with a history of progressive ataxia and paresis of the hind limbs. The owner became concerned when her dog could not defecate without falling over. Based on signalment and clinical signs, this dog is most likely suffering from

A

degenerative myelopathy

71
Q

this disease occurs when bacteria or fungi implant in the bones of the vertebrae and causes destruction or lysis of teh vertebral end plates that can be seen on radiographs

A

discospondylitis

72
Q

which of the following is most likely to be blind?

A

white DSH with blue eyes

73
Q

what ticks are associated with tick paralysis

A

dermacentor variablis and dermacentor andersoni

74
Q

anisocoria can be defined as

A

pupils of unequal size

75
Q

a ____ seizure involves increased muscular rigidity, and a ____ seizure involves rhythmic jerking movements

A

tonic; clonic

76
Q

which of the following is a site where CSF can be collected for examination

A

cistern and lumbosacral

77
Q

A 3-year old MC DSH presents to your clinic with blood coming out of his mouth and one ear. The cat is lethargic to stuporous, and you notice anisocoria. The owner informs you that he is mostly an outdoor cat, and they have no idea what happened…they just found him that way. Without any diagnostics, you’re concerned this cat is suffering from:

A

head trauma

78
Q

this syndrome is due to a dysfunctional of the sympathetic nerves of the eyes and surrounding facial muscles and may be associated with FCE patients

A

horners

79
Q

which of the following conditions matches a patient exhibiting a head tilt, facial paresis, nystagmus, positional strabismus, and ataxia?

A

vestibular syndrome

80
Q

RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

A
81
Q

which of the following terms is used to describe a high-pitched, discontinuous inspiratory sound with the reopening of airways that closed during expiration?

A

crackle

82
Q

conditions that may induce a coughing reflex include all of the following, except

A

left sided congestive heart failure

83
Q

clear fluid removed from the thoracic cavity is known as

A

pleural effusion

84
Q

feline asthma

A

lower respiratory tract

85
Q

rhinitis

A

upper respiratory tract

86
Q

laryngeal paralysis

A

upper respiratory tract

87
Q

blastomycosis

A

lower respiratory tract

88
Q

laryngitis

A

upper respiratory tract

89
Q

pneumonia

A

lower respiratory tract

90
Q

feline herpesvirus

A

lower respiratory tract

91
Q

kennel cough

A

lower respiratory tract

92
Q

which of the following is an acceptable method of making food more palatable to the pet?

A

warming the food

93
Q

collapsing trachea is most often seen in

A

yorkshire terriers

94
Q

which of the following is not a typical clinical sign associated with upper respiratory tract disease?

A

coughing

95
Q

bradycephalic airyway syndrome includes

A

stenotic nares and elongated soft palate

96
Q

a 5 year old hunting dog from the mississippi river valley has an exudative, serosanguineous wound that is nonresponsive to antibiotics and corticosteroid treatment. This should alert the clinician to the possibility of what type of problem?

A

fungal

97
Q

which of the following breeds are you most likely to see Laryngeal Paralysis in?

A

Labrador Retriever

98
Q

the most common systemic mycotic disease in cats is caused by

A

cryptococcus

99
Q

which of the following is a technique used to help loosen purulent material within the pulmonary system?

A

coupage

100
Q

which feline viral respiraotry infection is highly resistant to disinfectants and can live in the environment for several days

A

calicivirus

101
Q

which of the following are you most likely to see a chylothorax in?

A

domestic shorthaired

102
Q

if the carbon dioxide level in blood decreases, the pH usually _____ and respiration _____

A

lowers; increases

103
Q

if you are going to take radiographs on a patient to look for a respiratory disease, how many views should be taken?

A

3

104
Q

which fungal infection resides predominantly in the nasal passages of the dog and eats away at the nasal turbinates

A

aspergillosis

105
Q

asthma most commonly affects which species?

A

feline

106
Q

to perform coupage, cupped hands should be used to tap firmly on the chest wall, starting

A

caudally and working forward

107
Q

blastomycosis, coccidiomycosis, and histoplasmosis are all types of _____ disease seen in dogs and cats

A

fungal

108
Q

a chest tube is placed when an animal has

A

pneumothorax

109
Q

which of the following is the cause for infectious canine tracheobronchitis?

A

all of the following

110
Q

what is the most common systemic mycosis in the cat?

A

cryptococcosis

111
Q

if you were to perform a BAL on an asthmatic patient, which white blood cell would you expect to find an elevated number of?

A

eosinophil

112
Q

which of the following are abnormal lung sounds heard in the asthmatic feline patient on auscultation of the lower respiratory system

A

wheezes

113
Q

the most common route of infection for mycotic disease is

A

inhalation

114
Q

which of the following diseases exhibit coughing, fever, and mucopurulent nasal and ocular discharge?

A

canine distemper

115
Q

hypoxemia is defined as

A

low blood oxygen levels

116
Q

the 2 most common feline viral respiratory infections are

A

herpesvirus and calicivirus

117
Q

which of the following is a likely cause for feline asthma?

A

both chronic airway inflammation and allergies

118
Q

term for air in the thoracic cavity

A

pneumothorax

119
Q

general term for fluid in the thoracic cavity

A

pleural effusion

120
Q

blood in the thoracic cavity

A

hemothorax

121
Q

excess fluid in the lungs

A

pulmonary edema

122
Q

cloudy fluid in the thoracic cavity that can be white to pink/purple

A

chlylothorax

123
Q

infection that causes lung inflammation

A

pneumonia

124
Q

purulent fluid in the thoracic cavity

A

pyothorax

125
Q

tension pneumothorax occurs when pressure in the thoracic cavity is

A

greater than atmospheric pressure

126
Q

coupage is contraindicated in patients that have

A

fractured ribs

127
Q

a collection of blood in the cranial portion of the ventral cavity is known as

A

hemothorax

128
Q

which of the following is the most important first step when dyspneic patient presents to the veterinary hospital?

A

stabilize the patient before performing any diagnostic tests

129
Q

which respiratory disease would most likley produce crackles on auscultation?

A

pneumonia

130
Q

which of the following is not a fungal disease of the respiratory tract?

A

mycoplasma

131
Q

REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

A
132
Q

the typical gestation period for dogs is

A

2 months

133
Q

which of the following is the correct term for what is commonly called a “spay”?

A

ovariohysterectomy

134
Q

eclampsia is associated with which of the following conditions

A

hypocalcemia

135
Q

which of the following is not a cause of dystocia?

A

mastitis

136
Q

castration is the treatment of choice for testicular tumors

A

true

137
Q

a female dog can have both benign and malignant mammary tumors at the same time

A

true

138
Q

which of the following is a septic inflammation of the mammary gland?

A

mastitis

139
Q

which of the following is the correct term for a lack of milk production

A

agalactia

140
Q

which of the following is a fairly common condition of prepubital bitches that can present as vulvar discharge with no evidence of a UTI

A

vaginitis

141
Q

a condition that is characterized by behavioral changes and the accumulation of fluid in the uterus and one or more corpus lutra in the ovaries is known as

A

pseudopregnancy

142
Q

roughly what percent of feline mammary tumors are malignant

A

85%

143
Q

inappropriate maternal behavior is described as which of the following?

A

all options are correct

144
Q

vaginal tumors are more common in cats that dogs

A

false

145
Q

a normal sized uterus should be visible on a radiograph

A

false

146
Q

what is the preferred treatment of eclampsia?

A

calcium gluconate

147
Q

pyometra can occur as either “open” or “closed”

A

true

148
Q

which of the following is the most common bacterial cause of prostatitis

A

e.coli

149
Q

bitches with inappropriate maternal behavior can be used for breeding again as she will most likely calm down with future litters

A

false

150
Q

viral vaginitis is typically associated with which of the following diseases?

A

canine herpesvirus

151
Q

penile tumors can be a common find in male intact dogs

A

false

152
Q

puppies can still nurse from a bitch with mastitis, they should just use the non-affected nipples

A

true

153
Q

which of the following is not a cause for gestational fetal death

A

infectious tracheobronchitis

154
Q

if more than 60 minutes elapses between the production of a puppy during labor intervention should begin

A

true

155
Q

which of the following describes a patient suffering from dystocia

A

hard labor for 30-60 minutes with no new young

156
Q

which of the following is the correct definition for tesnesmus?

A

ineffective defecation

157
Q

all neoplasia’s of the prostate are malignant

A

true

158
Q

which of the following is the best treatment option for patietns with prostatitis

A

antibiotic therapy

159
Q

which of the following describes a patient suffering from a pyometra?

A

vaginal discharge, vomiting, diarrhea, dehydration, anorexia, PU/PD

160
Q

how early can fetal skeletons be detected on radiographs?

A

45 days

161
Q

prostatic disease is more common in which of the following?

A

intact male dogs

Mod 6 Finals (4 decks)

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