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Air NZ General > Line Training Questions (Upgrade Training) > Flashcards

Line Training Questions (Upgrade Training) Flashcards

1
Q

On the load sheet how many KG’s must the fuel be within?

A

50kg

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2
Q

If the fuel is unable to be reconciled with the conventional method is there a process we can undertake before requiring a magna stick check?

A

Yes, there is a mathematical process that is found in RTG1.

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3
Q

What are the requirements for recording a trend?

A
  1. Between FL150-FL200
  2. Bleed selector in NORM
  3. Altimeter set to 1013hPa
  4. Prop De-Ice Off
  5. Gauges to be read from LHS
  6. Established in the cruise for 5 mins
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4
Q

What are the assumptions on the use of the drift down tables?

A
  1. The aircraft is in icing conditions
  2. MCP is set
  3. Speed is back at VREF +15 (Ice Pink Speed)

nb. If icing conditions do not exist the aircraft will be able to maintain route lowest safe.

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5
Q

What constitutes a stable start?

A

Nh 75% + or - 3%

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6
Q

What percentage Nh does the starter disconnect?

A

63%

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7
Q

On start, what is the initial fuel flow tolerance?

A

40kg/h + or - 20kg/h

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8
Q

What is the minimum start fuel for APU?

A

225kg in the #1 Tank.

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9
Q

What is the rule of thumb for landing at any runway on the network with regard to LDA.

A

We can take any runway 1,300m or greater under these conditions;

  1. Wet or Dry Runway
  2. De-Ice Off 10kt Tailwind
  3. De-Ice On No Tailwind
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10
Q

When is a landing graph provided in the RTG-2?

A

When a runway is too short to land on at MLW on a wet runway with de-ice on.

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11
Q

What is the correction factor applied to LDR?

A
  1. 1.43 Dry Runway
  2. 1.64 Wet Runway
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12
Q

For emergency operations do we need to apply a buffer above what the QRH provides us with?

A

No.

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13
Q

If the QRH correction for LDR is equal to or less than 1.64 what does this mean with regard to LDR?

A

Provided the runway is 1,300m or greater and the surface is dry any runway above 1,300m will suffice.

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14
Q

If there is a passenger seat change and a new load sheet cannot be obtained what is the procedure?

A

There is a trim change page in the performance manual.

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15
Q

What are the three drift down routes?

A
  1. NS - CHC
  2. CHC - HKK
  3. CHC - AKAVI (HN or PMR)
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16
Q

What are the requirements(non weather) for a weather alternate?

A
  1. Weather forecast & NOTAMS
  2. Weather conditions at the expected time of arrival, equal to or better than the alternative minima for the planned approach.
  3. Runway lighting from -30min ECT to +30min MCT.
  4. Notification and agreement from ROC.
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17
Q

What does a weather alternate not require?

A
  1. ATC
  2. RFS

nb. ROC will endeavour to arrange ATC and RFS.

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18
Q

What does a tech alternate require?

A
  1. Weather and NOTAMS
  2. Weather better than the alternate minima for the planned approach.
  3. Runway lighting for ECT - 30 and MCT +30min
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19
Q

What can the PIC elect to carry in lieu of a tech alternate?

A

60 mins holding fuel @ 1,500ft plus 30 mins fixed reserve.

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20
Q

What does a technical alternate not require?

A
  1. RFS
  2. ATC
  3. Traffic & Ground Staff
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21
Q

When is a departure alternate required?

A
  1. When the weather at the airport is below landing minima
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22
Q

What are the requirements of a departure alternate?

A
  1. Must be located within 1 hours single engine flight time
  2. Must have weather equal or better than alternate minima
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23
Q

What does a departure alternate not require?

A
  1. RFS
  2. ATC
  3. Ground services
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24
Q

What are the minimum weather before a weather alternate is required?

A
  1. Ceiling - 1,000ft above minima
  2. Visibility - 5km or 2km more than landing visibility. Whichever is greater.
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25
Q

What’s the time frame for arrival we need to consider the weather?

A

60 mins either side of ETA.

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26
Q

On arrival at the weather alternate what must the forecast weather be?

A

Precision Approach;
1. Ceiling of 600ft, or 200ft above DA/DH whichever is higher.
2. Visibility of at least 3km, or 1km more than the prescribed minima. Whichever is greater.

NPA;
1. Ceiling of 800ft, or 200ft above MDA.MDH whichever is higher.
2. Visibility 4km or 1.5km above minimum, whichever is higher.

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27
Q

What manual is all the alternate planning in?

A

RTG 1

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28
Q

With regard to alternate planning. If the destination aerodrome weather is below landing minima?

A
  1. Plan one alternate that doesn’t need a weather alternate. (1,000ft and 5km vis)
  2. Plan TWO alternates that are above the alternate minima.
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29
Q

On LFP if the alternates are grey what does this mean?

A

It means the arrival or departure occurs at night.

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30
Q

On LFP if the alternate doesn’t have a selectable box next to it, what does this mean?

A

It means there is no standard air route between these two destinations.

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31
Q

When are we required to have the weather radar on?

A

Any time it’s not day VMC

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32
Q

Can you let an FO do command practice when you still have pairing restrictions?

A

No

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33
Q

What does an FO being within 200 hours on type mean?

A

The FO cannot land in the following conditions;

  1. The weather is below alternate minima conditions.
  2. The runway is not contaminated
  3. Crosswind is less than 50% of the aircraft max
  4. Windshear has not been reported in the vicinity of aerodrome.

nb. It is the FOs responsibility to tell the captain they are within 200 hours.

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34
Q

What is MACTOW range?

A

It varies at the bottom end from 15% at 13tonnes to 21.5 at MTOW. The aft limit is 40.

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35
Q

What does the V marking mean on the touchdown zone drawing in the RTG?

A

It’s where the VASIs will take you to.

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36
Q

What is the PA for suspected explosive device?

A

“Vacate quickly, take hand luggage.”

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37
Q

What’s the PA for evacuation unnecessary?

A

“Remain Seated”

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38
Q

What’s the tailwind limit for a cross-get start?

A

20kt

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39
Q

When must DH be set on the EADI?

A

Any approach that’s not visual.

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40
Q

What is the tailwind limit for a GPU start?

A

35kt

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41
Q

When is approach fuel not required?

A
  1. When the standard routing includes tracking to the FAF.
  2. When the final approach track is within 30 degrees of the enroute track, and it is expected the arrival will be via the DME arc or radar vectored.
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42
Q

What is the taxi fuel allowance?

A
  1. 50kg Main Ports
  2. 35kg Regional Ports
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43
Q

What are the sports weights? When do we have to use them?

A
  1. 106kg
  2. Whenever there is a sports team with 10 or more people onboard.
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44
Q

Where would I find the company communication frequencies?

A

RTG-1 (Communications)

45
Q

What page is the definitions of MEL categories on in the MEL?

A

Pg 121 (Remember Part 121)

46
Q

Can we change cockpit lights?

A

Yes, only ones that aren’t push to operate. This basically limits us to changing the caution warning lights.

47
Q

ITT Start Limits?

A
  1. 800-840 20 Seconds
  2. 840-900 12 Seconds
  3. 900-950 5 Seconds
48
Q

Minimum temperature to take the props out of Start Feather?

A

0 degrees

49
Q

Where do I find the severe icing checklist?

A

The QRH

50
Q

How many KGs is final reserve fuel?

A

240kg (30 mins)

51
Q

Who is the captain ultimately responsible to?

A

The senior fleet manager.

52
Q

If you are off work for 35 days or more what is the requirement on return?

A

Your first two sectors at least must be with a training captain.

53
Q

How many passengers can we carry?

A

56 at maximum. With 50 of those being adults.

54
Q

Where do you find the list of people who cannot travel in an exit row?

A

RTG1

55
Q

How many prisoners may we carry on a single flight?

A

Two.

56
Q

Where do we find information with regard to firearms onboard?

A

RTG1

57
Q

What is the enroute fuel burn?

A

660kg

58
Q

What is missed approach and second approach fuel?

A

150kg

59
Q

What is final reserve fuel?

A

240kg

60
Q

Where do I find information on a flap zero take off?

A

The QRH

61
Q

Where do you find the climb gradient tables?

A

AIP Flip book at the front.

62
Q

When do you need to tell the engineers to top up the oxygen

A

1,600psi

63
Q

If the back enter function isn’t working what is the most likely cause?

A

You need to cancel the VNAV and do it again.

64
Q

Where do I find the information regarding passenger supplemental oxygen?

A

RTG 1

65
Q

What are the requirements when the O2 is being topped up?

A

All in RTG 1

1 - No crew or passengers on board.
2 - No refuelling
3 - Aircraft must be completely depowered.

66
Q

Can people travel with gang patches?

A

No

67
Q

Where would I find the procedure for volcanic ash?

A

The QRH

68
Q

If I need a departure alternate where can I find this list of suitable departure alternates.

A

RTG 1 has a list of airports within 201 NM of the departure aerodrome.

69
Q

When do I need a departure alternate?

A

Whenever the weather at the departure airport is below the landing minima.

70
Q

What are the weather requirements of the departure alternate?

A

Have weather conditions at the expected time of arrival, equal to or better than the Alternate Aerodrome Minima.

71
Q

If there’s a lithium fire on board the aircraft do we need to keep the device?

A

Yes

72
Q

What’s the standard SID climb gradient?

A

3.3%

73
Q

If an engine failure occurs before attaining MSA on departure what are the actions?

A

U-Turn until above the MSA. (RTG1)

74
Q

Maximum speed for holding?

A

14,000ft and below - 170kt
14,000ft and above 240kt

75
Q

What’s the standard outbound timing for a holding pattern?

A

1 minute below 14,000ft
1.5 minutes above 14,000ft

76
Q

What are the requirements for a visual departure?

A

1 - Day Only
2 - Captain’s Decision

77
Q

Where would you find the jump seat travel policy?

A

The AMS

78
Q

Where do you find the information on who can sit in an exit row?

A

RTG 1

79
Q

Can we carry people wearing ankle bracelets?

A

No (AMS)

80
Q

How much percentage of the sky must be covered to call it a cloud base?

A

50% of the sky. Meaning 1-4 OKTAs are not considered a layer.

81
Q

How long is the minimum time to turn windshield heat from warm up to on?

A

30 Seconds

82
Q

Maximum speed below 5,000 ft OCTA?

A

160kt

83
Q

Maximum speed below 9,500ft OCTA

A

200kt

84
Q

Maximum speed below 1,500 on departure?

A

150kt

85
Q

For engineering terms what point is defined as dispatch?

A

Take-off

86
Q

What weather conditions is the missed approach protected in Class D

A

Below 1,200ft and 5km Visibility

87
Q

How many fire extinguishers are there and where are they?

A

5 Fire extinguishers.

  • 1 in cockpit
  • 1 GEEC
  • 1 Overhead lockers 11/12CD
  • 2 REEC
88
Q

What’s the PA for a precautionary disembarkation?

A

Attention, Attention. This is the captain. Disembark immediately, use main door.

89
Q

What’s the brace PA?

A

At 500ft

‘Attention, Attention. This is the captain. Brace for impact.’

90
Q

What’s the evacuation on water PA?

A

Attention, attention. This is the captain. Evacuate, evacuate, evacuate. Use window exits.

91
Q

What’s the PA for a lithium battery fire in the cockpit?

A

Attention, attention. This is the captain. Flight attendant, report to the flight deck immediately

92
Q

When can you not use pitch mode?

A
  • Below 150kt
  • Ice equipment on
  • Below 1,500ft
93
Q

What would you say to initiate a pitch jam memory item?

A

‘Pitch Jam Assist’

94
Q

If unable to overcome a pitch jam, what do you say to ask for the handle to be pulled?

A

Pitch disconnect

95
Q

Impact Drill

A

PIC - ‘I have control’
FO - ‘You have control’
WHEN IMPACT IMMINENT
PIC - ‘Impact Drill’
FO - Cycle cabin signs, Emergency lights on, as aircraft exits the runway or engine power is no longer effective, condition levers fuel off.

96
Q

Enroute Fuel Burn?

A

660kg/h

97
Q

Approach Fuel?

A

80kg

98
Q

Missed Approach?

A

50kg

99
Q

Final Reserve Fuel?

A

240kg (30min)

100
Q

APU Burn?

A

55kg/h

101
Q

What percent of a runway must meet the contaminated criteria for it to be considered contaminated?

A

25%

102
Q

When does an airport need a weather alternate? And what must the weather be at that alternate?

A

Weather Alternate Required;
- Ceiling less than 1,000ft above minima
- Visibility less than 5km or 2km above the landing minima

The weather alternate requires;
- Precision Approach
- 600ft or 200ft
- 3km or 1km

-NPA
- 800ft or 200ft
- 4km or 1.5km

103
Q

When must the QNH be confirmed by at the latest?

A

The FAF

104
Q

If the visibility is below 1,000m on approach, what is the crosswind limitation?

A

15kt crosswind.

105
Q

Minimum visibility for a circling approach?

A

5km or the published minima. Whichever is greater.

106
Q

In the event of a go around what is the standard?

A

The standard is to carry out the full missed approach. You can however carry out the circuit where operationally suitable.

107
Q

Where do I find the drift down tables?

A

Performance manual

108
Q

Evacuation not required PA?

A

“Remain Seated”

Air NZ General (5 decks)

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