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Air NZ General > 100 Question Tech Exam > Flashcards

100 Question Tech Exam Flashcards

1
Q

How many evacuation exits are there in the passenger cabin?

A

4

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2
Q

Can the baggage door be used as an emergency exit?

A

No

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3
Q

What is the combined total load which can be placed in the baggage compartment?

A

1134kg

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4
Q

When making a turn will the tail clear an obstacle if the wing tip does?

A

Yes

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5
Q

How many passenger seats are available in the standard aircraft config?

A

50

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6
Q

Which doors are provided with an unlocked indication warning to flight crew?

A
  • Pass Door
  • FWD Exit
  • Bag Door
  • Service Door
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7
Q

Max Operating Altitude?

A

25,000ft

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8
Q

Max Altitude Air Start?

A

20,000ft

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9
Q

Max Gear And Flap Altitude?

A

15,000ft

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10
Q

Max Take-Off & Landing Altitude?

A

10,000ft

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11
Q

Max Operating Temperature?

A

48.9 degrees or ISA + 35 Whichever is higher

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12
Q

Minimum Operating Ambient Temperature?

A

-54 degrees

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13
Q

VMO at Sea Level?

A

243kias

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14
Q

VMO at 25,000ft

A

214kias

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15
Q

MTOW?

A

19,505kg

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16
Q

MLW?

A

19,051kg

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17
Q

MZFW?

A

17,917kg

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18
Q

Max Tailwind Normally and at Air NZ?

A

10kts using AFM

20kt using Air NZ Supplement

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19
Q

Max Crosswind?

A

36kt

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20
Q

VRA?

A

190kt

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21
Q

VLE?

A

173kt

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22
Q

VLO?

A

163kt

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23
Q

VLE for ALT Ext?

A

140kt

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24
Q

When the test switch is selected to the advisory position on the overhead panel, which lights are being tested.

A
  • Advisory Lights
  • Fire
  • Ice Protection Lights
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25
Q

When the test switch is selected to the caution position on the overhead panel which lights are being tested?

A
  • Warning Lights
  • Caution Lights
  • APU Lights
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26
Q

When a warning light comes on what state does it come on in?

A

Flashing Red

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27
Q

What is the only caution not associated with a master caution?

A

Fuelling On

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28
Q

What happens if the master caution or warning light comes on then the fault resolves its self?

A

The extinguish

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29
Q

What is the importance of resetting the caution warning lights?

A

So if new ones come on you’re alerted to it.

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30
Q

What stall protection systems does the Q300 have?

A

Stick shaker & Stick Pusher

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31
Q

When will the stick shaker activate?

A

When either of the stall computers recognise an impending stall

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32
Q

Will the stick shaker still operate if #2 stall warning computer fails?

A

Yes

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33
Q

Will the stick pusher operate if either stall computer fails?

A

No

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34
Q

What are the conditions for the take off warning config horn?

A
  • Park Brake On
  • Trim Not In TO Range
  • ECU not On TOP
  • Flaps not set between 5-15 degrees
  • Condition levers not max
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35
Q

When will the landing gear warning horn activate?

A

Option 1;
- Power Levers near Flight Idle
- IAS Below 130kias
- May only be muted if only one Power Lever is at Flight Idle.

Option 2;
- Flaps selected to 15 to 35
- An power lever below 50% Torque
- Auto feather not selected

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36
Q

What does it mean if a red discharge disc is missing from the left wing root?

A

One or more of the fire bottles has been discharged into the environment

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37
Q

What does it mean if the yellow discharge disc is missing from the left wing root?

A

One of more of the fire bottles has been discharged into the engine

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38
Q

What type of fire detection and protection is available in the lavatory?

A

Smoke alarm and auto extinguisher

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39
Q

How many portable fire extinguishers are on board the aircraft?

A

5

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40
Q

How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartment?

A

2

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41
Q

What are the memory item drills for smoke master warning?

A

Oxygen Masks - On/100% (Emergency as required)

Smoke Goggles (If applicable) - On

Mic Switch - Mask

Recirc Fans - Off

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42
Q

The fire loop responder units and control units are powered by what busses?

A

Essential Busses

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43
Q

How is a loop fault indicated?

A

‘Check Fire Det’ warning light and Fault light on overhead panel

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44
Q

What are the cockpit indications of an engine fire?

A
  • Pull Fuel Off Handle Light On
  • ‘Check Fire Det’ Warning Light
  • Fire Bell
  • Engine Fire Warning Pushlight On
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45
Q

What are the cockpit indications during an engine fire test?

A
  • Fire Bell
  • ‘Engine Fire’ pushlight
  • ‘Check Fire Det’ Warning Light
  • Master Warning
  • Pull fuel off handles illuminated
  • A & B Fault Lights
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46
Q

Will the ‘Check Fire Det’ Warning light illuminate when there’s a loop failure?

A

Yes

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47
Q

During flight you notice the “Fault B” light illuminated. What will the QRH ask you to do?

A

Select loop A

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48
Q

What three things happen when you pull the Fuel Off Handle?

A
  • Fuel cut off
  • Hydraulics cut off
  • Fire bottles arm
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49
Q

What do the amber fire bottle lights indicate?

A

The bottles are armed and charged

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50
Q

Where are the two engine fire bottles located?

A

Left Hand Wing Root

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51
Q

The engine fire bottle discharge circuits receive power from which bus?

A

Battery Bus

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52
Q

What type of fire protection does the cargo compartment have?

A
  • Smoke Alarm
  • 3 Fire Extinguishers
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53
Q

What is the total fuel capacity?

A

2574kg

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54
Q

What electricity powers the Aux Fuel Pumps?

A

Variable Frequency AC Power

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55
Q

What are the consequences of taking off with the ‘Fuelling On’ Caution light on?

A

Can’t fuel transfer

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56
Q

What does the TANK FUEL LOW caution indicate? What would cause this?

A
  • Indicates below 59kg
  • Fuel Leak
  • Ejector Pump Blocked
  • Flapper stuck open
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57
Q

What’s the maximum fuel imbalance?

A

272kg

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58
Q

From what part of the fuel tank is the fuel fed to the engines?

A

The collector bay

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59
Q

What does the ENG FUEL PRESS caution light indicate? What causes this and what are the crew actions?

A
  • It indicates PSI less than 5.5psi
  • It would indicate an blockage of the fuel ejector pump
  • Consult the QRH
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60
Q

What does FUEL FILTER BYPASS caution light indicate and what are the crew actions?

A
  • Indicates a blockage of the fuel filter and fuel isn’t being filtered.
  • QRH will direct you to monitor the situation.
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61
Q

What would be an indication of an AUX Pump failure?

A

The light wouldn’t come on when selected on.

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62
Q

How many magna sticks are in each tank?

A

2

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63
Q

What is the source of the ‘motive’ flow fuel to operate the boost and scavenge ejector pumps?

A

Engine Driven Fuel Pump Fuel

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64
Q

When are the auxiliary fuel pumps selected on?

A
  • Fuel transfer
  • When selected on
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65
Q

How is the engine fuel heated?

A

In the heat exchanger, it is heated by oil.

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66
Q

Which aux pump is automatically turned on when transferring fuel?

A

The donor tank.

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67
Q

What is the NTOP SHP rating?

A

2,142hp

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68
Q

What is NTOP Torque and RPM power setting?

A

92% and 1,200RPM

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69
Q

What is the NTOP Nh and ITT Limits?

A

-765 Degrees ITT
- 101% Nh

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70
Q

MTOP SHP Rating?

A

2380hp

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71
Q

MTOP Torque and RPM. What’s the time limit for this?

A

100% at 1,200 RPM and 5 minutes

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72
Q

MTOP Nh and ITT Limits?

A
  • ITT 800 degrees
  • 102.7 Nh
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73
Q

MCP Torque and RPM?

A

90% @ 1200RPM

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74
Q

MCP Nh and ITT Limits?

A

102.7% Nh
800 degrees ITT

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75
Q

Maximum Transient Torque and RPM and the time limit for that setting?

A

115% Torque
1,200RPM
20 Seconds

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76
Q

Max transient Nh and ITT?

A

103.7 Nh
840 degrees ITT

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77
Q

What is the minimum oil pressure before an engine must be shut down?

A

40psi

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78
Q

The Oil Press warning light comes on at what PSI and what would you do?

A
  • 42psi plus or minus 2psi
  • The QRH would direct you to shut the engine down
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79
Q

What are the memory drill items for an engine failure?

A

a. Power Lever- FLT Idle
b. Condition Lever - Fuel Off
c. ALT Feather if required - Feather
d. Pull Fuel Off Handle - Pull
e. Tank Aux Pump - Off
f. Fire, if fire - Forward Bottle Extinguish
h. Wait UP TO 30 seconds
i. If still fire, Aft Bottle Extinguish

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80
Q

What is the minimum normal oil pressure?

A

55psi

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81
Q

Can the oil pressure go out of the green range?

A

Not in normal operations

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82
Q

What is the minimum oil temperature before you can unfeather the propellers?

A

0 Degrees

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83
Q

What is the significance of the normal minimum oil temperature, bottom of the green range?

A

Anything below that the engine cannot be used in flight in a normal capacity

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84
Q

When do the engine intake bypass doors have to be open and why?

A

They have to be open in icing conditions to prevent ice chunks going through the engines.

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85
Q

When do the engine intake heaters turn on?

A
  • Below 15 degrees OAT
  • Engine Oil Pressure above 40psi
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86
Q

What are the engine ITT starting limits?

A
  • 800-840 20 Seconds
  • 840-900 12 Seconds
  • 900-950 5 Seconds

N.B No more than 20 seconds in total above 800 degrees.

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87
Q

What is the maximum time you can engage the starter generator for?

A

1 Minute

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88
Q

What is the minimum rest time for the starter generator?

A

2 Minutes

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89
Q

If we have an engine failure after take off how much will the good engine uptrim?

A

10%

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90
Q

What is attached to the accessory gear box?

A

(MODE)
M - MCF Overspeed Protection
O - Oil Pump
D - DC Generator
E - Engine Driven Fuel Pump

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91
Q

What five accessories are attached to the reduction gear box?

A

(POOHA)
P - PCU
O - Oil Pump High Pressure
O - Overspeed Governor
H - Hydraulic Pump (Primary)
A - AC Generator

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92
Q

What prevents the power levers from being inadvertently selected below Flight Idle?

A

A gate

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93
Q

What is the cockpit indication an ECU has failed?

A

ENG ECU caution light

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94
Q

What precautions should be taken with an engine ECU caution light immuminated?

A

All precautions are in the QRH but mainly smooth throttle movements.

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95
Q

What position are the ignition switches usually in for start?

A

Auto

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96
Q

When will the ignitors automatically energise for an engine start?

A

When the start button is pushed

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97
Q

What is the danger of moving the condition levers forward of fuel off on the ground during a turn around between flights?

A

The engine auto light may activate and start the engine.

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98
Q

If electrical power is removed from an engine instrument what will the needles and screen indicate?

A

Screen will be blank and the needle will show zero.

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99
Q

What are the memory item drills for a propeller overspeed?

A
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100
Q

Where does the PCU receive its oil from?

A

Engine oil stored in the reduction gear box

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101
Q

What happens to the propeller if the engines lose oil?

A

The propeller pitch lock kicks in and the engine RPM increases by approx 20 RPM

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102
Q

How is the blade angle set when in the beta range?

A

Power lever

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103
Q

What RPM is the propeller prohibited range?

A

500-780RPM

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104
Q

What is the beta backup system? How would you know it was operating and what are the memory drills for this?

A
  • It prevents the propeller RPM from entering the ground range.
  • The propeller ground range lights would be cycling
  • Memory items are to advance the power levers forward.
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105
Q

When will the auto feather arm?

A
  • Auto Feather Selected
  • Both power levers advance for take off
  • Both torques are above 38%
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106
Q

When will the auto feather activate?

A

-Both power levers are advanced
- 1 Torque below 28%
- 1 Torque above 38%

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107
Q

How long is the auto feather system time delay?

A

3 seconds

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108
Q

What system protects the propeller and power turbine if the power lever is below flight idle in flight?

A

Beta lockout system

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109
Q

If the left hand propeller is cycling at 1,000RPM after take off what has happened? What will the QRH do to remedy this?

A

-The beta lockout system has activated.
- QRH will tell you to select condition levers min

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110
Q

Once energised the aux feathering pump runs for how long?

A

18 Seconds

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111
Q

Is auto up trim available if the auto feather is disarmed?

A

No

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112
Q

During which phases of flight is the synchro phase used?

A

All apart from Taxi, Take off and Landing.

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113
Q

The propellers should be within how many RPM before the Synchrophase is turned on?

A

20RPM

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113
Q

The propellers should be within how many RPM before the Synchrophase is turned on?

A

20RPM

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114
Q

Minimum Nh to select the condition lever to fuel on during start?

A

10%

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115
Q

Memory item drills for an APU fire?

A
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116
Q

Where is the fixed crew oxygen bottle located?

A

Forward right hand nose locker

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117
Q

Where is the oxygen overboard discharge disc?

A

Forward right hand nose

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118
Q

What is the minimum dispatch for the fixed crew oxygen?

A

2 Crew - 1,300psi
3 Crew - 1,800psi

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119
Q

In an emergency should the pilot oxygen be selected to dilute or 100%?

A

100%

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120
Q

What indicates the crew oxygen mask has oxygen pressure available when required?

A

A clear oxygen flow indicator located in the tube leading to the mask.

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121
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles are there, how many are for pax use and where are they located?

A
  • 5 Portable Oxygen Bottles
  • 4 For Pax Use
  • 3 are in the GEEC
  • 2 are in the Rear Oxygen Stowage Bin
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122
Q

How many PBE’s are there and where are they located?

A
  • 4 PBE’s
  • 1 Behind the FO
  • 1 Lower GEEC
  • 1 Behind 12CD
  • 1 Behind 13AB
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123
Q

How do you know if a PBE is safe to put on?

A
  • Blue Disc = Safe
  • Pink Disc = Unsafe
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124
Q

How many bleed sources are there per engine?

A

2 - 1HP and 1LP valve.

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125
Q

When does HP bleed air supply the pneumatic system?

A

Low power settings

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126
Q

When does the 18PSI deice system receive pneumatic pressure?

A

Whenever the engine is running

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127
Q

What does BLEED HOT caution mean? What automatically happens with this caution?

A

-Bleed air temperature exceeded 287 degrees or pressure exceeds 75psi.
- Bleed and HP valves close

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128
Q

If one bleed is selected off will pressurisation be affected?

A

No

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129
Q

What do air conditioning packs provide?

A

Air conditioned air to pressurise the cabin.

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130
Q

How many air conditioning packs are installed?

A

2

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131
Q

If one pack is off will air conditioning be affected?

A

No

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132
Q

If both air conditioning packs are off will pressurisation be affected.

A

Yes, ram air will be used for ventilation but no pressurisation available.

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133
Q

What does CABIN PACK HOT or FLT COMP PACK HOT caution light indicate?

A

ACM temperature has exceeded 207 degrees and it closes the pack shut off valve.

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134
Q

How is the air temperate controlled in manual mode?

A

A spring loaded switch on the over head panel controls the mixing valves in the pack.

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135
Q

What does CABIN DUCT HOT or FLT COMP DUCT HOT indicate on the caution panel? What will automatically happen?

A

Duct temp over 88 degrees. The temp control valves will move to full cold automatically.

136
Q

How many outflow valves are there and where are they located?

A

3 Valves. Two at the rear and one at the front.

137
Q

How are the rear outflow valves opened and closed?

A

Controlled using electricity automatically by the CPC.

138
Q

What happens if the aircraft lands pressurised?

A

The cabin climbs at 600ft/m for 60 seconds then dumps.

139
Q

What is needed for Dump mode to operate?

A

Electrical power.

140
Q

What is the normal maximum pressure differential?

A

5.5psi

141
Q

When does max pressure relief begin?

A

5.95psi

142
Q

What does the pressurisation manual knob do?

A

Controls the forward outflow valve

143
Q

What does the manual pressure lever by the FO’s knee do?

A

Manually controls the forward outflow valve

144
Q

What are the four modes of operation of the pressurisation system?

A
  • Auto (Fully Auto)
  • Manual
  • Cab Set (Semi Automatic)
  • Dump
145
Q

What is the maximum cabin altitude?

A

8,000ft

146
Q

How would you select a lower cabin altitude?

A

Using cab set

147
Q

What is the rate of cabin change when the rate knob is at the index?

A

+500ft/m climb and -300ft/m descent

148
Q

What does the fault light on the CPC mean? If bleed air is on, in flight what will happen to pressurisation?

A

Fault light means the CPC won’t work in auto and the rear outflow valves will close. This will increase cabin PSI and mean the outflow valves will have to be controlled manually.

149
Q

What does a CABIN PRESS warning light indicate? At 20,000ft with this warning what would you do?

A

It indicates the cabin is above 10,000ft. At 20,000ft you would do the emergency descent memory items.

150
Q

What are the memory item drills for emergency descent?

A
151
Q

When the Battery Master is selected ON, which bus(s) will be powered?

A

The L&R Essential Busses and The Fixed AC Busses

152
Q

How many temperature sensors are installed on each battery?

A

2

153
Q

What pilot action is required for a ‘MAIN BATT HOT” warning light and temp monitor confirms overheat?

A
154
Q

What is the fixed AC system primarily used for? How many inverters are required to power the whole AC system?

A

The Fixed AC is primarily for avionics and flight instrumentation.

Only one inverter is required to power the whole system.

155
Q

What selections are available for the AUX inverter?

A

Left, Off, Right.

156
Q

What lights are directly powered by the hot battery bus?

A

Dome lights, Boarding Lights

157
Q

How many batteries does the aircraft have?

A

2

158
Q

What buses are powered with the Battery Master & Main Batt ON (plus the MAIN BUS TIE ON)

A

The main, essential and fixed AC busses.

159
Q

How do we get battery power to the left main busses?

A

The main bus tie

160
Q

What voltage should we see on the DC Monitor panel with DC External Power on?

A

28V

161
Q

Which busses will be powered with DC External power powering the aircraft?

A

All the DC Busses and Fixed AC Busses

162
Q

Will external DC Power charge the batteries?

A

Yes if the Main and Aux battery switches are on.

163
Q

Will the APU Gen charge the batteries?

A

Yes if all the battery switches are on.

164
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage for start?

A

22v

165
Q

At what voltage does the over-voltage protection lock out DC External Power?

A

31.5V

166
Q

Can the external power be ‘online’ at the same time as a DC Generator?

A

No

167
Q

If a DC Generator fails will the opposite main bus be powered?

A

Yes

168
Q

How are DC Generators cooled?

A

Air cooled

169
Q

If the main busses are powered are the essential busses automatically powered?

A

Yes

170
Q

Will the AC generators be online with the propellers in feather?

A

No

171
Q

The AC Generators provide power to which bus?

A

L & R 115V VAR AC Bus

172
Q

If an AC Generator failed in flight would the opposite AC bus be powered?

A

Yes

173
Q

Which busses are powered directly by the TRU’s

A

L & R SEC Busses

174
Q

What is the input and the output of the TRU’s?

A

115VAC -> 25~30V DC

175
Q

How can you turn off a TRU?

A

By pulling a circuit breaker

176
Q

If one TRU fails will both secondary busses be powered?

A

Yes

177
Q

If both TRU’s fail will the secondary busses be powered?

A

Yes

178
Q

What does DC Logic control?

A

Automatic closing of the bus ties

179
Q

What is the priority for DC Logic?

A

The horizontal bus ties

180
Q

The ‘DC BUS’ caution light indicates what?

A

The BBPU has detected a current of more than 400 amps and opened all the bus ties

181
Q

What is the primary function of the DC bus fault reset switch?

A

To reset the BBPU

182
Q

Loss of both DC generators procedure requires switching off all the battery switches. What is supplying power to the DC system? What will happen if one of these fails?

A
  • The AC Generators are supplying power to the busses
  • If one AC Generator fails only the essential bus will remain powered.
183
Q

DC Gen Limits (Ground & Flight)

A

-Ground 0.7
- Flight 1.0

184
Q

TRU Limits (Ground & Flight)

A
  • Ground 1.0
  • Flight 1.0
185
Q

AC Gen Limits (Ground & Flight)

A
  • Ground below 10 degrees - 1.0
  • Ground above 10 degrees - 0.33
  • Flight - 1.0
186
Q

Which lights are powered off the battery bus?

A

Dome and boarding lights

187
Q

What does the emergency lights disarmed caution light indicate?

A

EMER Lights switch off in cockpit

188
Q

What does the emergency lights disarmed caution light indicate?

A

EMER Lights switch off in cockpit is off

189
Q

APU Generator Limits?

A

1.0

190
Q

When armed what causes activation of the emergency light system?

A

Interruption of power to the RH SEC BUS.

191
Q

Can the F/A turn the EMERG LIGHTS on if there is power to the aircraft and the flight deck switch is in the ‘off’ position?

A

Yes

192
Q

Where is the light switch for the baggage compartment?

A

In the cabin above the Rear Emergency Equipment Cupboard

193
Q

What happens to P/A power when emergency lights come on?

A

The PA power switches to the battery bus

194
Q

How is the Dash 8 landing gear controlled and operated?

A

It’s electronically controlled and hydraulically operated

195
Q

How are the landing gear lights tested?

A

Using the advisory test switch

196
Q

What do the amber door open advisory lights indicate?

A

That the associated gear door is not closed

197
Q

If an amber gear DOOR light is on after gear extension or retraction what are the considerations?

A

Do not exceed 140KIAS

198
Q

Which hydraulic system is used for normal landing gear operation?

A

2 Hydraulic System

199
Q

If there was a loss of hydraulic fluid from system 2 how would we extend the landing gear?

A

Manually using gravity and manual pumps if required.

200
Q

Which component monitors the position of the up locks, down locks and gear door position?

A

The PSEU’s

201
Q

Which component ensures that the gear cannot fully extend or retract unless the gear doors are open?

A

Mechanical sequencing valves ensure hydraulic pressure goes to the landing gear only when the gear doors are open.

202
Q

What does ‘LDG GEAR INOP’ caution light indicate? What are the flight crew actions?

A

It means one or more of the gear doors won’t open when selected. A manual extension will be required.

203
Q

What does the landing gear inhibit switch inhibit?

A

It removes electrical power to the landing gear extension circuit. Therefore inhibiting the landing gear from extending.

204
Q

What does the landing gear door alternate release door above the FO’s head do?

A

It removes hydraulic power to the landing gear extension circuit.

205
Q

After doing an alternate extension is nose wheel steering available?

A

No

206
Q

When should the down-lock verification system be used?

A

Whenever the landing gear position is in doubt.

207
Q

What conditions activate the landing gear warning horn?

A

Situation 1;
- P/L Near Flight Idle
- IAS <130KIAS
- May be muted if only one P/L near Flt Idle. i.e the other power lever is advanced for single engine ops.
Situation 2;
- Flaps selected between 15-35 degrees
- Any P/L below 50%
- Auto Fx not selected

208
Q

How many WOW sensors are there?

A

6

209
Q

If we get a ‘WT ON WHEELS’ caution light what does this mean?

A

It means that one or more of the WOW sensors have a fault.

210
Q

How is the LDG gear DOWN locked?

A

Over-centre locking mechanism using spring and hydraulic pressure.

211
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering?

A

2

212
Q

What is the steering limit in degrees with the tiller?

A

60 degrees

213
Q

What does the “NOSE STEERING” caution light indicate?

A

Nose wheel steering not operating

214
Q

At what speed does the anti skid control become operative?

A
  • 35kts on landing
  • Above 10kts on taxi
215
Q

When does the anti skid become operational on landing?

A
  • After WOW AND
  • Wheels exceed 35kts OR
  • 3 Seconds after touch down
216
Q

How long does the Anti Skid test take on ground and in flight?

A

In flight - 3 seconds
On Ground - 6 Seconds

217
Q

Can the anti skid be tested when the gear is up?

A

No

218
Q

With both INBD ANTI SKID & OUTBD ANTISKID caution lights on (i.e no anti skid) can you land at Nelson (1,300m) at MLW on a dry runway?

A

Yes (QRH Table)

219
Q

What is the maximum landing gear operation speed?

A

163KT

220
Q

What is the maximum landing gear extended speed?

A

173KT

221
Q

What is the maximum speed for alternate gear extension and why?

A

140KT because of the gear doors remaining open

222
Q

After take off what would cause the landing gear to not retract?

A
  • Landing Gear Alternate Release Doors Open
  • Gear pins
  • LDG Gear INOP Light
223
Q

How many hydraulic systems are there?

A

2

224
Q

What is the minimum dispatch fluid QTY for #1 & #2 Hydraulic systems?

A

System 1- 1.5 QTS
System 2 -3.0 QTS

225
Q

What powers the main hydraulic pumps?

A

The reduction gearbox

226
Q

What items are powered by the #2 Hydraulic System?

A

(LONER)
L - Landing Gear
O - Outboard Spoilers
N - Nosewheel Steering
E - Emergency Brake
R - Rudder Upper

227
Q

What systems are powered by the #1 Hydraulic System?

A

(FAIR P)
F - Flaps
A - Antiskid (Brakes)
I - Inboard Roll Spoilers
R - Rudder Lower
P - Power Transfer Unit (PTU)

228
Q

Fluid loss of which hydraulic system will impact landing distance the most?

A

1 due to loss of normal braking.

229
Q

What are the two ways to turn on the standby hydraulic pumps (SPU)?

A

1 - Switching them on
2 - Selecting flaps to 5 or greater.

230
Q

What powers the SPU’s?

A

Their opposite VAC Bus normally unless the Left VAC Bus is unpowered. In which case the #2 SPU is powered by the R VAC Bus

231
Q

What is the normal hydraulic pressure of the engine driven pumps?

A

3,000psi

232
Q

What is the normal pressure of the SPU’s?

A

2,900psi

233
Q

What could bring on the ENG HYD PUMP caution light?

A

The EDP HYD Pump is producing below 2,000psi

234
Q

What is the main purpose of the PTU

A

To assist with gear retraction in the event of an engine failure at take off

235
Q

When will the PTU automatically turn on?

A
  • ENG Oil PSI below 40
    AND
  • Landing gear is retracting
236
Q

Will the PTU pressurise the #2 Hydraulic System if there is no hydraulic fluid in the #2 Hydraulic System?

A

No

237
Q

What powers the hydraulic quantity gauges?

A

AC Power

238
Q

With a total loss of both hydraulic systems what hydraulic actuator will still be operating and how will you know it is operating?

A

ARPS will still be operating, you will know as you will have indication of #2 SPU pressure.

239
Q

What controls the bus ties?

A
240
Q

What is normal de-ice system pressure?

A

18psi

241
Q

What does the “DE-ICE PRESSURE” caution light indicate? What does this mean?

A

That the system has 5.5psi or less. It means ice protection is not available.

242
Q

What does the ISO switch in the Icing System do?

A

Isolates the de-ice boots on each wing from each other preventing a leak from completely disabling the de-ice boots.

243
Q

What flap setting MUST be used when holding in icing conditions?

A

Zero

244
Q

What is the total inflation time of the wing and tail boots?

A

36 seconds

245
Q

What is the CYCLE time when using the airframe de-ice in the ‘SLOW’ and ‘FAST’ modes?

A

Fast - 1 Minute
Slow - 4 Minutes

246
Q

How long will the boots inflate if the manual switch is held in one position?

A

As long as it’s selected.

247
Q

How would you know if a de-ice boot is not inflating? What would the QRH lead you to do?

A

The associated boot light wouldn’t illuminate. The QRH will tell you to exit icing conditions.

248
Q

What is the power source for the prop heat?

A

115VAC Power

249
Q

What is the difference between ‘Above -10’ and ‘Below -10’ for the prop heat?

A

In slow each element is heated for 10 seconds at a time. In fast they’re heated for 20 seconds at a time.

The timing cycle.
Above -10 the cycle repeats every 70 seconds
Below -10 the cycle repeats every 80 seconds.

250
Q

How many prop timers are there?

A

2

251
Q

How would you know if a prop heat pair were not being heated and what does the QRH lead you to do?

A

The associated light would not come on and the QRH tells you to leave icing conditions.

252
Q

What is the power source for the pitot/static heat?

A

DC Power from the main and essential busses.

253
Q

If the PITOT HEAT switches are left on after shut down (& DC Power on) will the Pitot tubes be heated? Will the static ports be heated?

A

Yes

254
Q

If a pitot switch is “OFF” will the respective caution light be illuminated?

A

Yes

255
Q

How would you know a static port heater has failed?

A

There are no cockpit indications, you would have to place your hand near the port to feel for heat.

256
Q

What does the elevator horn caution light indicate?

A

The elevator horn heater has failed

257
Q

What happens if you get a WSHLD HOT caution light? How do you reheat the windshield?

A

Consult the QRH and Exit Icing Conditions

258
Q

What is the function of the valve heat?

A

Controls heating mats on the airframe de-ice ejectors (for boot deflation) and drains.

259
Q

How are the AoA vanes heated? How is heat switched on to them?

A

115VAC and Automatically whenever the bus is powered.

260
Q

If an angle of attack vane is not heated what caution light will bring it on? What affect will this have on the other systems?

A

These two caution lights and the stick pusher will be deactivated.

261
Q

What is the QRH procedure for SEVER ICING conditions in flight?

A

I don’t fuckin’ know. Google it.

262
Q

Which control wheel is directly connected to the ailerons?

A

The First Officer’s

263
Q

Which control wheel directly connects to the spoilers?

A

The Captain’s

264
Q

How are the elevators controlled?

A

Through a cable from the control column. The elevator is assisted in its motion by a spring tab.

The right control column controls the right elevator and the left column controls the left elevator.

265
Q

When would you use the electric standby elevator trim?

A

In the event of a cable malfunction forward of the rear trim servo

266
Q

How is roll control provided at speeds above 140KIAS?

A

Ailerons and inboard roll spoilers

267
Q

What component disables the roll spoilers above 140KIAS?

A

Air Data Computer

268
Q

Does the “ROLL SPLR OUTBD HYD” caution light illuminate when the ADC deactivates them above 140KIAS?

A

No

269
Q

What does the illumination of a spoiler PUSH OFF light indicate?

A

That the indicated spoiler needs to be depowered. As it is most likely jammed

270
Q

What occurs when a spoiler PUSH OFF switch is pushed?

A

The associated actuator is depressurised.

271
Q

What are the ROLL JAM memory items?

A
272
Q

ROLL MALFUNCTION memory items?

A
273
Q

What are the MEMORY ITEM DRILLS if an elevator becomes jammed?

A
274
Q

What is the function of the rudder pressure regulator?

A

To change the rudder psi between 1,500psi and 900psi

275
Q

What does a ‘RUD PRESS’ caution light indicate?

A

It indicates the rudder is getting the incorrect pressure for the speed of the aircraft.

276
Q

A ‘RUD FULL PRESS’ caution light indicates what?

A

That there is 3,000psi in the rudder actuator

277
Q

What does illumination of the RUD PUSH OFF light indicate?

A

That the associated rudder actuator is jammed and needs to be depressurised

278
Q

What caution lights would illuminate if a RUD PUSH OFF switch was pushed?

A

The associated #1 or #2 RUD HYD Light. Also ‘RUD FULL PRESS’ light would illuminate.

279
Q

Can the rudder be gust locked?

A

No

280
Q

In what positions are the ailerons and elevators gust locked?

A

Ailerons - Neutral
Elevator - Nose Down

281
Q

How many speeds are available for electric rudder trim?

A

2

282
Q

How is the yaw dampener engaged?

A
  • Pressing the YD Button
  • Engaging the AP
283
Q

Which hydraulic system powers the flaps?

A

1

284
Q

When selecting flaps, hydraulic pressure is supplied to the Flap Power Unit for how long?

A

70 Seconds

285
Q

What does a ‘FLAP POWER’ caution light indicate?

A

Hydraulic pressure to the FPU is below 1,500psi

286
Q

What does a FLAP DRIVE caution light indicate?

A

That a Secondary Flap Drive load is detected.

287
Q

What static source powers the Standby Altimeter and the Cabin Pressurisation Controller?

A

The alternate static system.

288
Q

What bus powers the #1 APIRS Unit?

A
  • L ESS Bus (Primary)
  • R ESS Bus (Secondary Power)
289
Q

What does a BASIC light on the AHRU tell you?

A

It tells you the ADC has lost TAS input.

290
Q

How do you select composite mode?

A

By turning the failed screen off, it then selected composite mode on the working screen.

291
Q

Which of our instruments use only raw pitot and static information?

A

Airspeed Indicator

292
Q

When does the flight data recorder activate?

A

1 - Anti-collision light red/white
OR
2 - Weight of Wheels

293
Q

How long does the CVR store recorded information from?

A

2 Hours

294
Q

When is the CVR Powered?

A

Automatically whenever the aircraft is powered. (Left ESS Bus)

295
Q

Does the ELT make a noise?

A

Yes, it emits a loud buzzing sound.

296
Q

What is the sequence shown on the ID802 as the Autopilot captures an armed mode?

A

1 - Star Reverse Video
2 - Star
3 - Captured

297
Q

Will pressing the GA button disengage the AP?

A

Yes

298
Q

Location of the Fire Extinguishers?

A

5 in total
- 1 Flight Deck behind captain
- 1 Upper GEEC
- 1x Overhead Locker 12CD
- 2x REEC

299
Q

How many oxygen bottles?

A

5 in total

300
Q

How many outlets are on the supplemental oxygen?

A

3 in total;

2 - 2L/Min Outlets
1 - 4L/Min Outlet for First Aid

301
Q

Where are the oxygen bottles located?

A

3x Lower GEEC
2x Rear Bins 12CD

302
Q

How long does the BBPU keep the bus ties open for in the initial sense?

A

7 Seconds

303
Q

Total fuel capacity

A

2,574kgs

304
Q

What does the altitude OFF flag show?

A

Either;
-Gauge not powered
- No ADC info
- ADC Test

305
Q

How do we display TAS on the ID802

A

Pressing the TAS switch light above the EADI

306
Q

What provides input tot the main altimeters?

A

The ADC’s

307
Q

What are the airspeed indicators driven by?

A

The Pitot/Statics

308
Q

What is the input to the standby altimeter?

A

Alternate static power

309
Q

What drives the VSI

A

The ADC’s

310
Q

What pitch/attitude will the FD bars indicate in GA mode?

A

9 degrees nose up

311
Q

What power sources are used by the Captain/FO APIRS?

A

Captain;
Primary - 28V DC Left ESS Bus
Secondary - 28V DC Right ESS Bus

First Officer;
Primary - 28V DC Right Main Bus
Secondary - 28V DC Left ESS Bus

312
Q

What does the BASIC light on APIRS indicate? What would you do in flight?

A

Indicates the associated ADC has lost TAS input. You would select an ATT Reversion

313
Q

What does an ATT 2 in amber indicate on the captains EADI?

A

That the captains information is being pulled from the First Officers side

314
Q

What does the SLAVE light on the APIRS unit indicate. What would you do in flight?

A

The SLAVE light indicates there is no information from the flux valve. Select HDG Reversion in flight.

315
Q

What does MAG2 in amber on the FO’s EHSI indicate?

A

That the First Officers side data is also being used on the captains side.

316
Q

What is the indication on the advisory panel when a mode transitions from arm to capturing?

A
  • Reverse video star
  • Star
  • Captured
317
Q

How many FGC’s does the Dash have?

A

2

318
Q

How do you select between the two FGC’s (Flight Guidance Computers)?

A

The L & R buttons on either side of the ID802

319
Q

What function is controlled by the HSI SEL button?

A

It selects what side HSI to use for autopilot data input

320
Q

How can the auto-pilot be disengaged

A
  • AP Disc button on yoke
  • GA Buttons
  • Pressing AP button on FGCP
  • Stick shaker
321
Q

What will happen to the autopilot if the FGC fails?

A

The AP will remain engaged and the opposite FGC will be automatically selected.

322
Q

Will the TCS button disengage the autopilot?

A

No, it only uncouples it

323
Q

What is the indication of a symbol generator failure?

A

Either;
- Both screens on one side totally blank
- Red ‘X’ marks on screen

324
Q

What is the corrective action to be taken in the even of a symbol generator failure.

A

Press the REVN button.

325
Q

What does it mean if one screen goes blank? How do you enter composite mode on the working EFIS screen?

A

It means you’ve had a screen failure. You enter composite mode by turning the failed screen off.

326
Q

What flap setting can be used for approaches greater than 3 degrees?

A

15

327
Q

When does the FDR operate?

A

Whenever the beacon/anti-colision lights are on or WOW says aircraft is airborne.

328
Q

When does the CVR operate?

A

At all times the aircraft is powered.

329
Q

What is the minimum number of hand held fire extinguishers

A

5

330
Q

What type of flotation equipment is provided for the passengers?

A

Life Jackets

331
Q

Which emergency exit cannot be opened from the outside?

A

Flight Deck

332
Q

Which row are the mid cabin emergency exits?

A

10

333
Q

What is the order of priority to deal with CAUTIONS, ADVISORY & WARNING

A

Warning
Caution
Advisory

334
Q

What is the definition of “LAND IMMEDIATELY AT THE NEAREST SUITABLE AIRPORT”?

A

Land ASAP at the nearest airport that has sufficient runway distance and emergency services if required.

335
Q

What is the definition of ‘LAND AT THE NEAREST SUITABLE AIRPORT”

A

The airplane may continue to destination or divert to the nearest engineering port.

336
Q

What does # mean in a checklist?

A

Both pilots respond

337
Q

What do 4 darkened squares at the end of a checklist mean?

A

End of procedure

338
Q

All emergency public announcements will be preceded with what words?

A

“Attention, Attention. This is the captain”

Air NZ General (5 decks)

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