Command Upgrade (SOPs) Flashcards

1
Q

Below what visibility is the PIC required to fly the aircraft?

A

Take off - Visibility less than 800m
Landing - Visibility less than 1,000m

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2
Q

What are the limitations on First Officers with less than 200 hours on type?

A
  • The aerodrome is Category A or B
  • Weather above alternate minima
  • Runway not contaminated
  • Crosswind not above 50% of airplane limits
  • Windshear not reported in vicinity

N.b - It is the First Officers responsibility to notify the captain at the commencement of the duty that they fall into this category.

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3
Q

What are the command practice requirements?

A
  • The PIC & FO must be clear of ant pairing limitations
  • Neither crew member should be in managed poor performance.
  • FO can only log command practice while PF.
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4
Q

When must the full safety harness be worn?

A

-Effectively at all times below 10,000ft
- Turbulent conditions
- Emergency
- When one pilot vacates their seat.

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5
Q

When must supplemental oxygen be used?

A

Any time the cabin is above 10,000ft

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6
Q

Which CBs must we not reset?

A

The fuel pump CBs

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7
Q

What is the circuit breaker policy?

A
  • Resetting tripped CB’s is not recommended unless the situation resulting from the trip has a significant effect on safety.
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8
Q

If a circuit breaker does need to be reset what is the policy?

A
  • The tripped CB may be reset once.
  • It may be reset after a short cooling off period of about 2 minutes.
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9
Q

Is there any paperwork required after a circuit breaker reset?

A

Yes, a tech log must be raised.

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10
Q

What does a circuit breaker with a blue top indicate?

A

A circuit breaker that may be pulled in accordance with a QRH procedure.

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11
Q

When is the only time below transition it is permissible for the landing lights to be off?

A

In unusual weather conditions such as fog where the lights may inhibit forward vision.

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12
Q

Are flight crew permitted to re-lamp warning and annunciator lights?

A

Only lights that are not push switches. If the light is a push switch it must be relamped by an engineer.

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13
Q

Where do you find the format for an operational debrief?

A

The SOPs. (APPROACH)

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14
Q

How long must the flight be to be given refreshments to the flight deck?

A

60 minutes. If the flight is shorter than this the refreshments must be given on the ground.

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15
Q

When must a fatigue report be submitted?

A

Any time a lack of alertness has been identified as a threat.

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16
Q

What principal does Air NZ use to operate automation?

A

VVM
Verbalise
Verify
Monitor

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17
Q

Below what altitude must the PM be the one to operate the FMS?

A

10,000ft

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18
Q

Who is primarily responsible for the disposition of navaids?

A

The PF is generally responsible, however during times of low workload either pilot may tune navaids.

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19
Q

From what altitude must one pilot have terrain displayed on the EHSI?

A

Below transition.

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20
Q

What is MSAW?

A

Minimum Safe Altitude Warning. It is a warning generated by ATC to Pilots.

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21
Q

When must a reasonableness check take place on an ILS?

A

On GS intercept.

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22
Q

When must PEDs be turned off?

A

Prior to the pre flight prep phase. They shall remain off until the shut down drills are complete.

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23
Q

When may a cellphone be used on the flight deck?

A

Calls of an operational nature may take place at the captains discretion.

24
Q

When must the iPad be in airplane mode?

A

From the commencement of the start checklist until engine shutdown.

25
Q

What is the requirement of non-emergency PAs being made on the ground?

A

The aircraft must be stationary.

26
Q

Should AOC calls be made during critical phases of flight?

A

No, unless specifically required for safety reasons.

27
Q

Who retains responsibility for answering any emergency cabin calls?

A

The PIC

28
Q

When in flight and below 10,000ft can the seatbelt sign be off?

A

When the aircraft is in the cruise.

29
Q

What must we use to crosscheck the QNH for the arrival port and what are the parameters?

A
  • The QNH must be checked against the METAR
  • The QNH must be within 3hPa
30
Q

If doing a visual approach what is the minimum height to be set in the AAS?

A

1,000 AGL

31
Q

What’s the minimum visibility and height for a circling approach?

A

5km and 1,000ft or the circling minima. Whichever is higher.

32
Q

What is the tolerance on the 70kt check on take off?

A

10kt

33
Q

What bank angle requires a bank angle call?

A

35 degrees

34
Q

Where are the checks located for a ferry flight?

A

The SOPs

35
Q

If a paper load sheet is required, what is the requirement?

A

The paper load sheet must be signed by the PIC.

36
Q

What is the order of briefings?

A

1 - Performance
2 - Emergency
3 - T-CTWO

37
Q

What are the minima for a visual recruit to land?

A

Day - 1,100ft + 5km
Night - 1,500ft + 8km

38
Q

Is a headset required for starts?

A

Yes, unless a headset is unserviceable or one cannot be sourced. If this is the case a briefing with the ground staff is recommended to go over the signals expected.

39
Q

What is the command to abort a pushback?

A

STOP, STOP, STOP

40
Q

What is the command to discontinue an engine start?

A

CUT, CUT, CUT

41
Q

How do you recall the headset operator after disconnect from a push or start?

A

Flash the appropriate light three times.

42
Q

If a return to the gate is required after pushback what are the options?

A

The aircraft may either be taxied or towed to the gate by the pushback driver.

43
Q

Maximum taxi speed?

A

30kt

44
Q

Must aircraft follow the provided yellow taxi lines?

A

Yes

45
Q

Is reverse taxi permissible under any circumstances?

A

No

46
Q

When are landing lights to be selected on before take off?

A

Once take off clearance received.

47
Q

Is a visual departure permissible at night?

A

No

48
Q

Minimum turn commencement height?

A

500ft AGL

49
Q

What is minimum fixed reserve fuel?

A

30 mins

50
Q

When should the approach brief be complete?

A

Prior to TOD but no later than transition or 10,000ft whichever is higher.

51
Q

When should the cabin clearance phase begin?

A

At the transition layer or TOD.

52
Q

Is an RNAV comparable to an ILS in terms of approach priority?

A

Yes provided it has an LNAV VNAV attached to it.

53
Q

What are the requirements to fly a visual approach?

A
  1. Day only.
  2. Ceiling is above the IAF or procedure commencement altitude for the approach serving the runway in use
  3. The approach must be planned in advance and supported by FMS guidance.
54
Q

Below which runway length must a landing distance calculation be done?

A

1,300m

55
Q

What is the altitude from which the PF must have their hands guarding the power levers?

A

1,000ft

56
Q

On approach, where must the QNH be confirmed prior to?

A

The FAF

57
Q

When visibility is less than 1,000m what is the maximum crosswind?

A

15kt