Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

B747-400 > Limits > Flashcards

Limits Flashcards

1
Q

Minimum altitude for auto pilot engagement after take off?

A

400 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When must auto pilot be disengaged on approach?

A

50 feet below MDA unless coupled to ILS or in the go around mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lowest altitude for auto pilot use on single channel approach?

A

100 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Can aileron trim be used while auto pilot engaged?

A

It’s prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum wind speeds during autoland

A

HW-25
TW-15
XW-25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Maximum and minimum glideslope angles during autoland

A
  1. 25

2. 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Minimum threshold crossing height during autoland

A

40 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When has satisfactory auto pilot and flight director performance been observed?

A

Throughout the flight envelope with both yaw dampers in operative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Flap settings for auto land

A

25/30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ASA indications for autoland

A

LAND 2

LAND 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

EICAS message that prevents autoland

A

NO AUTOLAND

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What if they are parts is the airplane certified under?

A

FAR part 25 and 36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Wind limit for operating doors

A

40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Wind limit for door open

A

65 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Smoke barrier door limit

A

must be closed during taxi, takeoff, flight, and landing , except when entering or leaving the main deck cargo compartment in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What class are the main deck cargo compartments?

A

Class E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a class E cargo compartment?

A

All airflow can be shut off to start a fire of oxygen. This is done by shutting off the pack valves for example

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What class are the lower deck cargo compartments?

A

Class C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a class C cargo compartment?

A

It has a smoke detection system and fire extinguishing built in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where do you find policies regarding supernumeraries access to the flight deck?

A

GOM appendix J

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum flight deck occupancy

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Total supernumeraries on a BCF

A

20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who briefs the supernumeraries?

A

First officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Supernumeraries in the main deck cargo area

A

Maximum of three.

Must carry oxygen masks with full face mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Total supernumeraries on Boeing factory freighter

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Total souls allowed on factory freighter

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Total souls on BCF

A

24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Supernumeraries and cargo area

A

They may not occupy during taxi take off and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

BCF upper deck door and supernumerary

A

Power assists and slide must be armed with lever in automatic prior to taxi take off and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Factory freighter upper deck door

A

Slide must be locked in forward position during taxi take off and landing with people in upper deck area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Maximum Taxi weights

A

873
913
878
877

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Max take off weight

A

870
910
875

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Max weight in-flight with landing flaps

A

670

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Max landing weight with flaps 25 or 30

A

652
653
666

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Max zero fuel weight

A

610
611
635

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Weight and balance

A

Must be determined by an approved loading schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Max tire speed’s for both airplanes

A

235 MPH

204 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Max runway slope

A

+- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Max take off and landing tailwind

A

15 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Max operating altitude

A

45,100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Max take off and landing altitude

A

9,500’ field elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Turbulent air penetration speed

A

290-310

.82-.85

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Max take off Crosswinds

A

Dry 40 (not a limit if all engines running)
Wet 25
Standing water/slush 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Max landing crosswinds and sideslips

A

Do not use sideslip method with crosswind components in excess of 20 knots

45
Q

Standing water/heavy snow/slush

46
Q

Dry snow take off

A

2.4 inches

47
Q

Dry snow landing

48
Q

Flaps up acceleration limits

A

+2.5 to -1

49
Q

Flaps down acceleration limits

50
Q

Max gear retract extend speed

51
Q

Max gear extended speed

52
Q

Max flap speeds

A
  1. …..280
  2. ……260
  3. …..240
  4. …..230
  5. …..205
  6. …..180
53
Q

Max speed in RVSM

54
Q

Operating with landing gear extended

A 
No RVSM
50 miles from land
MTOW...720
VMO......270
Mmo......73
Severe Turb speed.....240-260/.66
55
Q

Max differential

56
Q

Max differential for takeoff and landing

57
Q

Minimum altitude for auto pilot engagement

58
Q

Lowest altitude for auto pilot on approach

A

50’ below MDA unless on ILS or G/S.

Single AP ILS 100’

59
Q

Aileron trim and auto pilot

A

Use of trim prohibited well auto pilot engaged

60
Q

Max windspeed for autoland

A

HW-25
TW 15
XW CAT 1 25
XW CAT 2/3 15

61
Q

Maximum and minimum glideslope angles

62
Q

Flat settings for auto land

63
Q

Minimum threshold crossing height for autoland

64
Q

ACARS and C VHF radio

A

Do not use for ATC communications

65
Q

HF Radio

A

Do not use during refueling

66
Q

Large and alternating control inputs

A

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll or yaw (e.g. large side slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below VA.

67
Q

Max flap extension

68
Q

Standby altimeters and RVSM

A

They don’t meet the tolerance requirements

69
Q

In-flight RVSM altimeter difference

A

200’ between captain and first officer

70
Q

RVSM differences on the ground

A

SL-5000. 35. 75

5000-10000. 40. 75

71
Q

Minimum fuel temperature

A

Must be maintained 3°C above the freeze point.

72
Q

Freeze point of jet A fuel

73
Q

Max fuel temperature

74
Q

Flaps and fuel dump

A

Don’t extend or retract between 1 and 5

75
Q

HF radios and fuel

A

Don’t use during refueling operations

76
Q

Ballast fuel and center wing tank

A

Simultaneous loading of mission fuel and ballast fuel in center wing tank prohibited

77
Q

Ballast fuel and sensed fuel quantity

A

FMC PERF INIT page sensed fuel must be manually overridden using the “ramp fuel w/o ballast” value from the weight & balance report.

78
Q

Standard minimum ramp fuel

A

72,000 excluding ballast

79
Q

Conditional minimum ramp fuel

A

53,000 with approval-excluding ballast

80
Q

Window heat

A

Must be on for all normal operations

81
Q

General nacelle anti-ice operation

A

Must be on for all icing conditions ground or flight unless below -40 OAT

82
Q

Ground icing conditions

A

10 degrees OAT with contaminated surfaces and or visible moisture (1 mile)

83
Q

In-flight icing

A

10 degrees TAT and visible moisture

84
Q

Reducing thrust for descent in icing conditions

A

Nacelle anti-ice must be on

85
Q

Icing conditions at or below 22,000 feet

A

Wing and nacelle anti-ice must be on

86
Q

Ice crystal icing conditions

A

Ice detection system cannot detect ice crystal icing. Nacelle anti-ice must be on even below -40

87
Q

QFE

A

Prohibited

88
Q

TCAS RA

A

May deviate from ATC clearance to meet

89
Q

Terrain display

A

Do not use for navigation

90
Q

GPWS terrain database

A

Do not use terrain function within 15 miles of an airport that doesn’t have a terrain database

91
Q

Minimum equipment for 3/4-4000 approach

92
Q

Minimum equipment for a 1/2-1800 approach

A

1 LOC/GS

1 FD

93
Q

Minimum equipment for a coupled 1/2-1800 approach

A

1 LOC/GS

1 AP

94
Q

Minimum oxygen pressures

A

Crew 1400
Passenger 1400
Walk Around 1200

95
Q

Battery switch and APU

A

Must remain on during all APU operations including cool down

96
Q

APU altitudes

A

Do not use below -1000 feet

97
Q

When must continuous ignition be on

A 
heavy rain • 
severe turbulence • 
volcanic ash • 
icing conditions • 
standing water or slush on runway
98
Q

Use of reverse thrust

A

Ground only.

Do not use for backing up.

99
Q

Normal engine starter duty cycle

A

1 minute on

1 minute off

100
Q

Extended starter duty cycle

A

1-5 minutes ON; then OFF until 0% N2. • 5-10 minutes ON; then 20 minutes off. •
10-15 minutes ON; then 30 minutes off.

101
Q

MAX N1 and N2

A

N1……117.5

N2……112.5

102
Q

EGT Limits

A

Starting (Unlimited) ………………..750°C
Starting (Transient 40 seconds) …..870°C Takeoff (5 Minutes) …………………….960°C Maximum Continuous …………………925°C

103
Q

EEC in ALTN mode

A

Take off thrust must be set after brake release

104
Q

Minimum oil pressure

105
Q

Oil temperature limits

A

Max. Continuous ………….160°C

Max. Transient 15 Minutes ………….175°C

106
Q

PW 4056 Temp Limits

A

Starting (unlimited)….. 535
Take off 5 mins………..650
Max Continuous………625

107
Q

PW 4056 Minimum oil quantity for departure

A

<4 hours……..12

=>4 hours……..16

108
Q

PW 4056 Minimum oil pressure

109
Q

PW 4056 Oil temperatures

A

Continuous……163

Transient (20 mins)….177

B747-400 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions