Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

UAL B737 Study (2.27.2024) > Limitations (good Working Knowledge) > Flashcards

Limitations (good Working Knowledge) Flashcards

1
Q

What is a memory item?

A

All information labeled with a star symbol. Pilots are expected to commit these items to memory.

In Flight: no lower than 400ft*

*Note: immediate action items may be accomplished at any time if deemed necessary by the captain to maintain aircraft control control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum runway slope

A

+- 2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum Takeoff / Landing Altitude

A

10,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Are there maximum operating latitude operations?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Normal runway width?

A

148 feet (45 meters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Minimum runway width

A

100 feet (30 meters)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is a narrow runway?

A

A runway less than 148 feet (45meters) in usable width but not less than minimum runway width (100 feet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the Takeoff requirements from narrow runways

A

Operational nosewheel steering and all brakes

Crosswind capability is diminished with thrust reverser or flight control deferrals

Ensure Takeoff V1 is great or than or equal to narrow runway calculated Vmcg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the Landing requirements from narrow runways

A

Autoland is not authorized

Consider diversion to normal width runway for nose wheel steering, thrust reverser, braking, or flight control degraded.

Crosswind capability is diminished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

VMO

A

Indicated by max airspeed pointer on airspeed indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MMO

A

.82 Mach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum gear retraction speed

A

235 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Maximum gear extension speed

A

270/.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Maximum gear operating speed

A

320/.82

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the flap positions?

A

1
2
5
10
15
25
30
40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Crosswind component for takeoff

6 -
5 -
4 -
3 -
2 -
1 -
0 -

A

Crosswind component for takeoff

** 6 - 33
** 5 - 25
4 - 22
3 - 20
2 - 15
1 - 13
0 - N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Crosswind component for landing

6 -
5 -
4 -
3 -
2 -
1 -
0 -

A

Crosswind component for landing

** 6 - 37
** 5 - 37
4 - 35
3 - 25
2 - 17
1 - 15
0 - N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

True or false?

Engine surge can occur with a strong crosswind component if takeoff thrust is set prior to brake release. Therefore, rolling takeoffs are strongly advised when crosswinds exceed 20 knots.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Can we depart with forward looking wind shear warnings or caution alerts are annunciated?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Gross weights for Takeoff

700 -
800 -
900 -
900 ER -
MAX -

A

Gross weights for Takeoff

700 - 154,500
800 - 174,200
900 - 174,200
900 ER - 187,700
MAX - 194,700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Gross weights for landing

700 -
800 -
900 -
900 ER -
MAX -

A

Gross weights for landing

700 - 129,200
800 - 146,300
900 - 147,300
900 ER - 157,300
MAX - 163,900

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential

A

9.10 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing

A

.125 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When engine bleeds are on (either one or both), do not operate air conditioning packs in _________ for takeoff, approach and landing.

A

When engine bleeds are on (either one or both), do not operate air conditioning packs in HIGH for takeoff, approach and landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Normal differential pressure

A

> 37,000 - 8.35 (+-.1)

28,000 - 37,000 - 7.8 (+-.1)

< 28,000 - 7.45 (+-.1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Duct pressure for maximum cooling

A

20 - 25 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Minimum PSI for:
Duct pressure for two pack operation from one bleed source

A

20 - 25 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Takeoff is _______ in Moderate / Heavy freezing rain or hail.

A

Takeoff is PROHIBITED in Moderate / Heavy freezing rain or hail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is engine anti-ice required

A

All ground operations when in icing conditions

Inflight icing conditions unless colder than -40sat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When must engine ignition be selected to CONT?

A

Prior to and during engine anti-ice operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When can you NOT use the wing anti ice?

A

After being sprayed with type 2 or 4 fluid

Or

While on the ground when OAT is above 10*C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When can we not operate windshield wipers?

A

On a dry window

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When must window heat be turned on?

A

10 minutes prior to takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When must probe heat be turned on?

A

Prior to takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

If the wing anti ice is required after takeoff, when can you turn it on?

A

After the first thrust reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What may happen if you use wing anti-ice above FL350?

A

May cause bleed trip off and possible loss of cabin pressure.

37
Q

Can you use aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?

A

No!

38
Q

When landing above 8,400 feet pressure altitude, when must the autopilot be turned off?

A

100 feet AGL

39
Q

If there is no published MDA/DA, when must the autopilot be disconnected?

A

500 feet AGL

40
Q

Autoland restrictions are:

A

At or below 8,400 pressure altitude

Flaps 30 and 40 with both engines running

Max glidslope angle 3.25*

Minimum glidslope angle 2.5*

FO not authorized

41
Q

Autoflight Parameters:

A

Autoflight Parameters:

Do not use autoland for overweight landings

No autopilot or auto throttle when radio altimeter is inop

FOs can’t autoland

Do not use LVL CHG on final approach below 1000 AFE

In all cases other than autoland, autothrottle must be disconnected no lower than 50 feet AGL.

42
Q

Battery voltage for APU start

A

23 volts

43
Q

Ignition must be used for

A

Takeoff

Landing

Heavy rain

Engine anti-ice operations

44
Q

Min oil PSI

(700/800/900/9ER) -

(MAX) -

A

Min oil PSI

(700/800/900/9ER) - 13 psi

(MAX) - 17.4 psi

45
Q

Maximum
oil temperature -

Maximum continuous oil temp -

A

Max oil temperature - 155*C

Max continuous oil temp - 140*C

141-150 for 45 min but only 15 min in the MAX

46
Q

EGT limits

(700/800/900/9ER)

Takeoff (5 min) -

Max Continuous -

Start -

A

EGT limits

(700/800/900/9ER)

Takeoff (5 min) - 950*C

Max Continuous - 925*C

Start - 725*C

47
Q

EGT limits 737-MAX

Takeoff (10 min) -

Max Continuous -

Start -

A

EGT limits for the MAX model)

Takeoff (10 min) - 1038*C

Max Continuous - 1013 *C

Start - 753*C

48
Q

When can we not use reduced thrust for takeoff?

A

If anti skid is inop

If the runway is contaminated with standing water, ice, slush or snow.

With the Engine Control (EEC) in ALTN mode

49
Q

Can we use reverse thrust to back up?

A

No

50
Q

What modes must the Engine Control (EEC) be in for takeoff?

A

ON or ALTN

51
Q

APU max altitudes:

Bleed and electric:

Bleed only:

Electric only:

A

APU max altitudes:

Bleed and electric: 10,000 feet

Bleed only: 17,000 feet

Electric only: 41,000 feet

52
Q

Minimum Engine oil quantity to start?

A

70%

53
Q

When must a cooling period be observed for the APU starter duty cycle and how long must you wait?

A

A 15 minute cooling period must be observed after the 3rd start attempt.

54
Q

How long must the APU be operated for prior to using APU bleed air?

A

1 minute

55
Q

How long must we wait for the APU to complete its shut down before turning off the battery switch? (NG) and (MAX)

A

(NG) - 120 seconds

(MAX) - 3 minutes mandatory, 5 minutes recommended after APU GEN OFF BUS extinguishes

56
Q

APU bleed air must be closed when:

A

Ground pneumatic air is connected and isolation valve is open

Engine No. 1 bleed valve is open (eng 1 running)

Isolation valve is open and eng. 2 bleed is open (eng 2 running)

Note: APU bleed valve may be open during Engine start, but avoid engine power above idle.

57
Q

What is the engine fire extinguisher bottle pressure?

A

800 psi at 70*F

58
Q

**Maximum flap extension altitude

A

20,000ft

59
Q

When are flaps prohibited during holding?

A

When in icing conditions

60
Q

What is the maximum limit for speed brakes in flight?

A

The FLIGHT DETENT

61
Q

When extending or retracting flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow ______ after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before moving the switch again to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.

After a complete extend / retract cycle (0 to 15 and back to 0) allow ________ cooling before attempting another extension.

A

When extending or retracting flaps with the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, allow 15 seconds after releasing the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch before moving the switch again to avoid damage to the alternate flap motor clutch.

After a complete extend / retract cycle (0 to 15 and back to 0) allow 5 minutes cooling before attempting another extension.

62
Q

Maximum airspeed when extending flaps via the alternate system

A

230 knots

63
Q

What are the Speed Brake Limits in flight?

A

Do not extend beyond the flight detent

Do not extend passed ARM with flaps 40 selected

Do not deploy when RA less than 1,000 feet

64
Q

Maximum speed with a Mach Trim Fail (both channels)

A

280 knots / .82 Mach

65
Q

Except in Test mode, when can the radar NOT be used on the ground?

A

During fueling

Within 50 feet of a fuel spill

Within 15 feet of people

66
Q

Are localizer back course approaches authorized?

A

No

67
Q

Can we reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker?

A

No

68
Q

Fuel Tank Capacity - usable

(700/800/900/9ER)

Wing -

Center -

(MAX)

Wing -

Center -

A

Fuel Tank Capacity - usable

(700/800/900/9ER)

Wing - 1,288 g. / 8,630 lbs

Center - 4,299 g. / 28,803 lbs

(46,063 lbs total)

(MAX)

Wing - 1,273 g. / 8,529 lbs

Center - 4,274 g. / 28, 639 lbs

(45,697 lbs total)

69
Q

Main wing tanks must be full if the center tank more than has _____ lbs of fuel.

A

1,000 lbs

70
Q

The ________ tanks should be filled full prior to the ________ tank receiving fuel.

A

Wing

Center

71
Q

Drain from the ________ fuel tank first and then switch to the ________

A

Center first then use wing fuel

72
Q

Maximum fuel imbalance must not exceed…

A

1,000 lbs

73
Q

Intentionally dry running of a center tank fuel pump (low pressure light) is _______

A

Prohibited

74
Q

When must you perform an operational check of the fuel CROSSFEED valve?

A

During the last hour of cruise flight during each extended range operation.

75
Q

What is the normal position of the fuel crossfeed valve?

A

Closed

76
Q

Center tank fuel pumps must not be on unless?

A

A pilot is in the cockpit to monitor for a low pressure light.

77
Q

Minimum and Maximum hydraulic quantity for dispatch

A

Minimum … Above RF

Maximum … 105%

78
Q

Maximum tire groundspeed

(700/800/900/9ER) -

(MAX) -

A

Maximum tire groundspeed

(700/800/900/9ER) - 195 knots

(MAX) - 204 knots

79
Q

When must the RTO auto brakes be armed?

A

All takeoffs unless it’s INOP

80
Q

When are auto brakes prohibited?

A

When antiskid is INOP

81
Q

Autoland Max Winds-

Headwind-
Crosswind-
Tailwind-

(-900[401-412]) flaps 30:
Field Elevation-
4000 feet or less:

4001-6000 feet:

6001 and above:

A

Autoland- Max winds

Headwind - 25 knots

Crosswind - 15 knots

Tailwind (flaps 30 and 40)** - 10 knots

**(-900[401-412]) field elevation restrictions:

<4000 - 10 knots

4001 - 6000 - 5 knots

> 6001 - 0 knots

82
Q

Maximum Flap Speeds for:
1
2
5

A

Alert Bulletin 21-293 (Company Imposed for operational dependability)
1 - 240kts
2 - 240kts
5 - 230kts

Manufacture Limit is 250kts for 1,2 and 5

83
Q

When engine bleeds are on (either one or both), what PACK mode cannot be used during takeoff, approach or landing?

A

HIGH

84
Q

(NG) Per limitations, how many PACKs are allowed to be operated from one engine?

A
  1. Do not operate more than 1 PACK from 1 engine.
85
Q

(MAX) Per limitations, how many PACKs are allowed to be operated from one engine on the ground?

A

(MAX) On the ground, do not operate more than 1 pack from one engine.

86
Q

(MAX) - Aircraft FMC 14.1 software shall be prohibited to what RNP AR value?

A

.3 nm

87
Q

With the parking brake set, the drop in brake accumulator pressure should be less than how much PSI in the first 30 minutes?

A

Drop should be less than 800 psi in the first 30 minutes of being set.

88
Q

GPWS / RSAT Overrun Warning (ORW)

A

*Do not use for landing performance planning

If Overrun warning occurs (“OVERRUN, GO-AROUND”)
*execute a go around

Inhibit alert when:
*Landing above 10,000 ft pressure altitude
* Landing OAT colder than -40c
* Landing OAT more than +50c
* Landing with a gross weight greater than max landing weight

UAL B737 Study (2.27.2024) (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions