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Allegiant MD80 > Limitations > Flashcards

Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Max Allowable Load Factors: Flaps Down

A

0.0g to +2.0g

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2
Q

Max Runway Slope: Takeoff

A

+1.7% -2.0%

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3
Q

Max Runway Slope: Landing

A

+2.0 -2.0%

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4
Q

Max Wind Component: Headwind (Company)

A

50 kts

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5
Q

Max Wind Component: Tailwind

A

10 kts

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6
Q

Max Demonstrated Crosswind Component: Dry Runway

A

30 kts

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7
Q

Max Demonstrated Crosswind Component: Wet Runway (Company)

A

30 kts

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8
Q

Max Demonstrated Crosswind Component: Rudder Manual (Company)

A

12 kts

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9
Q

Max Demonstrated Crosswind Component: Rudder Restricted Landing (Company)

A

12 kts

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10
Q

Max Takeoff and Landing Altitude

A

8,500 ft PA

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11
Q

Min Takeoff and Landing Altitude

A

-1,000 ft PA

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12
Q

Max Contaminated Runway Depth: Takeoff

A

Dry Snow= 4”
Wet Snow= 1”
Slush/Standing Water= 0.5”

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13
Q

Max Contaminated Runway Depth: Landing

A

Dry Snow= 6”

Wet Snow/Slush/Standing Water= 1”

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14
Q

Operations with braking action reporting ___ is _______.

A

Nil and Prohibited

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15
Q

When is takeoff prohibited due to braking action reported?

A

When reported Mu is 0.25 or less, or braking action reports of poor by an air carrier or by the airport operator.

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16
Q

VMO/MMO: 82/88

A

340 KIAS/.84 MACH

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17
Q

Max Rough Air Speed

A

285 KIAS or .79 whichever is lower

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18
Q

Recommended Speed Below 10,000 ft?

A

250 KIAS or Min Maneuvering Speed

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19
Q

Max Temperature: Takeoff and Landing

A

Below 2,525 ft PA= +50 C

At and Above 2,525 ft PA= ISA +40 C

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20
Q

Min Temperature: Takeoff and Landing

A

-54 C

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21
Q

Types of Operations

A
  • Day/Night
  • IFR
  • Icing
  • Over Water
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22
Q

Max Weight: Taxi

83, 88

A

161,000 lbs

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23
Q

Max Weight: Takeoff

83, 88

A

160,000 lbs

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24
Q

Max Weight: Landing

83, 88

A

139,500 lbs

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25
Q

Max Weight: Zero Fuel

83, 88

A

122,000 lbs

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26
Q

Air Conditioning/Pressurization:

Max Cabin Diff Pressure

A

8.07 psi

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27
Q

Air Conditioning/Pressurization:

Max Emergency Relief Pressure (Red Radial)

A

8.32 psi

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28
Q

Air Conditioning/Pressurization:

Normal Cabin Diff Pressure

A

7.77 psi

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29
Q

Air Conditioning/Pressurization:

DO NOT use APU bleed air for Air Conditioning unless…

A

APU is supplying electrical power to the aircraft

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30
Q

Air Conditioning/Pressurization:

Operation of either air conditioning system is prohibited while…

A

The aircraft is being deiced/anti-iced

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31
Q

Air Conditioning/Pressurization:

Air Conditioning Automatic Shutoff system must be in Auto for all…

A

Takeoffs, Approaches, and Go-Arounds

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32
Q

Autoflight:

When using the autopilot, one pilot must be…

A

Seated in a pilot seat with the seat belt fastened. (Company)

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33
Q

Autoflight:

Min Altitude to engage the autopilot after takeoff

A

500 ft AGL

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34
Q

Autoflight:

DO NOT use pitch axis of autopilot with…

A

An alternate trim inoperative

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35
Q

Autoflight:

Use of autopilot is prohibited while single engine and…

A

Inside the OM or FAF

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36
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

37,000 ft

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37
Q

Autoflight:

Min height with autopilot engaged on approaches in IMC

A

50 ft below DA/MDA

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38
Q

Autoflight:

Min height with autopilot engaged during visual approaches

A

50 ft above TDZ

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39
Q

Autoflight:

Mmo with Trim Compensator Inoperative

A

.78 Mach

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40
Q

Electrical:

AC Voltage and Frequency

A

115 +/- 8 VAC, 400 hz

+/- 20

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41
Q

Electrical:

Max Engine Generator Load

A

Continuous 1.0

  • 1.5 for 5 mins
  • Above 1.5 for 5 secs max
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42
Q

Electrical:

Max Continuous APU Generator Load (Ground)

A

1.25

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43
Q

Electrical:

Max Continuous APU Generator Load (Flight-Below 25,000 ft MSL)

A

1.0

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44
Q

Electrical:

Max Continuous APU Generator Load (Flight- 25,000 ft MSL and Above)

A

0.7

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45
Q

Electrical:

DC Bus Voltage (L & R)

A

26 +/- 4 VDC

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46
Q

Electrical:

Max TR Load and Differences

A

1.0 continuous, 0.3 difference (between two load meters powering same bus)

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47
Q

Electrical:

Min Batt Voltage for APU start

A

25 VDC

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48
Q

Electrical: Battery Voltage-

Min (No Load)

A

25 VDC

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49
Q

Electrical: Battery Voltage-

Min EMRG PWR (Emergency Power Switch On)

A

25 VDC

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50
Q

Electrical:

Max voltage with Charger powered and Battery Switch On

A

31 +/- 6 VDC

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51
Q

Electrical: Max Charging current- Steady Mode (to the left)

A

65 AMPS

52
Q

Electrical:

Normal charge current- Pulse Mode

A

0-40 AMPS

53
Q

Electrical: Battery Amperage- Max Discharging Rate (to the right) with Emergency Power Switch On

A

50 AMPS

54
Q

Electrical: With the battery charge low, the volt/amp meter may initially oscillate between __ to __ amps as the battery charge increases.

A

40 to 65

The oscillation must stabilize at some charging value within 4 seconds

55
Q

Electrical: With the battery charge low, the volt/amp meter needle may indicate up to __ amps continuously.

A 
40 amps
(But will steadily decrease as battery charge increases)
56
Q

Electrical: Max charging rate for takeoff

A

20 AMPS

57
Q

BATTERY CHARGER annunciator light is illuminated…

A

Takeoff is Prohibited

58
Q

Electrical: External Power Source- Voltage

A

115 +/- 8 VAC

59
Q

Electrical: External Power Source- Frequency

A

400 +/- 20 CPS

60
Q

Electrical: DO NOT reset the following circuit breakers:

A
  1. Battery Charger
  2. Aux Hydraulic Pump
  3. Fuel Pump
  4. Fuel Quantity
  5. Lavatory Flush Motor (Company)
61
Q

Fire Protection:
The aircraft must land at the nearest suitable airport within __ minutes after the activation of BTL __ when accomplishing the CARGO FIRE INFLIGHT procedure

A

60 minutes, BTL 1

62
Q

Flight Controls:

Max Airspeed- Slats Extended/Flaps 0

A

280 KIAS or .57 Mach*

*If the AUTO SLAT FAIL annunciator illuminates, limit speed for slat extension is 240 KIAS

63
Q

Flight Controls:

Max Airspeed- 11

A

280 KIAS or .57 Mach*

*If the AUTO SLAT FAIL annunciator illuminates, limit speed for slat extension is 240 KIAS

64
Q

Flight Controls:

Max Airspeed- 15

A

240 KIAS or .57 Mach

65
Q

Flight Controls:

Max Airspeed- 28

A

200 KIAS or .57 Mach

66
Q

Flight Controls:

Max Airspeed- 40

A

200 KIAS or .57 Mach

67
Q

Flight Controls:

Do not use flap settings between __ and __

A

13.1-14.9

68
Q

Flight Controls:
True or False?
The Auto Slat Extension system must be operative for all dispatch conditions?

A

True

69
Q

Flight Controls:

The rudder power must be __ for takeoff

A

ON

70
Q

Flight Controls:

When must the RUDDER TRAVEL UNRESTRICTED annunciator light be illuminated?

A

For takeoff (company)

71
Q

Flight Controls:

Min speed for approach or missed approach with RUDDER CONTROL MANUAL light illuminated

A

135 KIAS

72
Q

Max Allowable Load Factors: Flaps Up

A

-1.0g to +2.5g

73
Q

Flight Controls:

Operation of speedbrakes is limited to what flap configurations

A

0* Only

74
Q

Fuel:

Max Main Tank Capacity

A

9,000 lbs per side=18,000 lbs total

75
Q

Fuel:

Max Aux tank capacity

A

3,800 lbs each

76
Q

Fuel:

Max main tank imbalance

A

1,500 lbs

77
Q

Fuel:

Max Aux tank imbalance

A 
400 lbs 
(does not apply to ballast fuel loads)
78
Q

Fuel: Max center fuel tank capacity

A

20,600 lbs

78
Q

Fuel:

Minimum fuel for dispatch

A

4,000 lbs each main tank

78
Q

Flight Controls:

Min speed with speedbrakes extended

A

220 KIAS

80
Q

Fuel:

Max amount of fuel used out of center tank before transferring from Aux tanks

A

8,505 lbs

81
Q

Fuel:

What fuel temp will fuel heat be turned on for before takeoff

A

0 or less

82
Q

Hydraulics:

Min Hydraulic Quantity

A

5 qts

83
Q

When must the Aux, Transfer, and both Engine Driven pumps be ON/HI?

A

Takeoffs and Landings

84
Q

Hydraulic System Pressure:

Aux pump and engine driven pump in High mode?

A

2800-3100 psi

85
Q

Hydraulic System Pressure:

Engine driven pump in Low mode?

A

1300-1700 psi

86
Q

Hydraulic System Pressure:

Transfer hydraulic pump (TP)

A

2000-3100 psi

87
Q

Standing Water, Slush, or Wet Snow:

Static Port Heaters must be ON with what temperature?

A

5C (42F) or below

88
Q

What position must the engine ignition be in for takeoff and landing on contaminated runway?

A

OVRD

89
Q

Engine Anti-ice:

When must the Engine Anti-ice system be on?

A

For taxi and takeoff with visible moisture or anticipated and ambient temp is below 5C (42F).
(Visible moisture includes temp/dewpoint spread of 3C (5F) or less)

90
Q

Engine Anti-ice:

When will NO MODE appear?

A

If engine Anti-ice is ON and RAT indicates 10*C or above TRP

91
Q

Airfoil Ice Protection:

When may airfoil ice protection system be placed ON?

A

At Engine Failure Cleanup Altitude, when icing conditions are anticipated or encountered

92
Q

Airfoil Ice Protection:

Max temp for airfoil ice protection

A

10C (50F)

93
Q

Inflight Ice Protection:

When must Engine and Airfoil Ice Protection be used?

A

When RAT is between 5C and -15C and icing conditions are present or anticipated

94
Q

Inflight Ice Protection:

When must tail deice be cycled on?

A
  1. ) Within 1 minute prior to selecting landing flaps
  2. ) At least once every 20 minutes
  3. ) After leaving icing conditions, prior to turning the airfoil anti-ice system off
95
Q

Landing Gear/Brakes:

Max brake temp for setting the parking brake

A

250*C

96
Q

Landing Gear/Brakes:

Max brake temp for takeoff

A

205*C

97
Q

Landing Gear/Brakes:

Extension/Extended speed

A

300 KIAS or .70 Mach

98
Q

Landing Gear/Brakes:

Retraction speed

A

250 KIAS

99
Q

Landing Gear/Brakes:

Max tire ground speed

A

195 kts

100
Q

Max speeds with Overspeed Warning inoperative

A

Above 25,300 ft= .79M

Below 25,300 ft= 325 KIAS

101
Q

Oxygen:

Min Oxygen Pressure- 3 crew

A

1,300 psi

102
Q

Oxygen:

Min Oxygen Pressure- 2 crew

A

900 psi

103
Q

Oxygen:

Min Oxygen Pressure- Unpressurized

A

540 psi

104
Q

Pneumatics:

Max pressure during cross bleed starts

A

45 psi

105
Q

APU Start:

Starter Duty Cycle

A
  1. ) 90 sec ON 2 attempts, 5 mins OFF

2. ) 90 sec ON, 60 mins OFF

106
Q

APU air switch must be ___ for all inflight operations

A

OFF

107
Q

APU Air Limitations:

APU service ceiling

A

35,000 ft

108
Q

APU Start Limitations:

Max EGT

A

760*C for 30 sec

109
Q

Doors/Fuselage/Windows:

Max speed with cracked windshield

A

Below 10,000 ft:

Outer glass= 315 kts

Inner glass= 235 kts

110
Q

Engine:

Max residual EGT before moving fuel lever

A

100*C

111
Q

Engine Start Limits:

Starter Duty Cycle

A
  1. ) 90 sec ON, 5 mins OFF

2. ) Subsequent cycles of 30 sec ON, 5 mins OFF

112
Q

Engine:

Min Oil Pressure

A

40 psi

113
Q

Engine:

Max Oil Temp

A

Red Radial or Light (165*C)

114
Q

Engine:

Max Continuous Oil Temp

A

Base of Yellow Arc/Amber Light (135*C)

-max of 15 mins

115
Q

Engine:

Min oil quantity

A

8 qts

with engines stablilized at idle thrust

116
Q

Engine:

When must the Engine Synchronization switch be OFF

A

Any time below 1,500 AGL

117
Q

Engine:

When must the Automatic Reverse Thrust System (ART) be OFF

A

When using the Takeoff Flex mode or when making a Max Thrust Takeoff

118
Q

Engine: What conditions permit an engine shut down

A
  1. ) EGT= Red Radial/Light + 15*C
  2. ) N1 RPM= Red Radial/Light + 1.2%
  3. ) N2 RPM= Red Radial/Light + 1.0%
119
Q

Engine Ignition:
Toggle Switch Duty Cycle
(Override position)

A

2 mins ON, 3 mins OFF

2 mins ON, 23 mins OFF

120
Q

Engine Ignition:
Rotary Switch
(A/B/Both/Override)

A

10 mins ON, 10 mins OFF

Repeat as necessary

121
Q

Engine:

Max reverse thrust EPR (Power Back)

A

1.3 EPR

122
Q

Engine:

Max reverse thrust EPR (Landing-Dry Runway)

A

1.6 EPR

123
Q

Engine:
Max reverse thrust EPR
(Landing-Wet or Slippery Runway)

A

1.3 EPR

124
Q

Engine:

Min warm up time prior after shutdown period longer than 2 hours

A

5 mins

125
Q

Max Fuel Capacity

Without and with Aux Tanks

A

38,800 without Aux

46,400 with Aux

126
Q

Fuel:

Minimum fuel for Go-Around

A

500 lbs each main tank

Allegiant MD80 (14 decks)

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