Lifespan wrong questions Flashcards

1
Q

According to Piaget, the ability to think abstractly is first evident at about ____ years of age.

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abstract thinking occurs in the ________, in Piaget’s stage model of cognitive development. It emerges at around age ____.

A

formal operational stage
11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

As defined by Piaget, assimilation and accommodation are the two components of:

A

adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is “semiotic function?”

in which stage of Piaget’s cognitive developmental model does this occur?

A

the ability to make representations of symbols, objects, or words to stand for something, which occurs in the preoperational stage and extends from ages 2 to 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Deferred imitation refers to

A

copying the past behavior of someone else

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

As defined by Piaget, the ability to engage in deferred imitation depends on the development of:

A

mental representation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

According to Erikson, the purpose of play is to:

A

master social and emotional experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ron attends a rally organized to oppose gun control. When asked why he is against gun control, Ron states, “Well, the law says people have the right to own a gun, and everybody in my hometown has a gun.” Kohlberg would say that Ron is at which level of moral development?

A

Conventional

Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional) that each consist of two stages. The conventional level of moral development is characterized by support for and adherence to existing social rules and laws.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Question ID #11478: Children begin to intentionally lie (make false statements) at about ___ years of age in Piaget’s theory.

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Babies 8 to 12 months old actively seek a toy that is shown to them prior to being hidden from view. According to Piaget, this ability is due to the development of

A

object concept (i.e. object permanence)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

To reduce aggressive behavior in a highly aggressive preschooler, the best approach is to:

A

help the child recognize the consequences of his/her behavior and identify alternative behaviors

There is evidence that fostering empathy (e.g., by helping the child recognize the consequences of his/her behavior for the target of the aggression) and helping the child identify alternative behaviors is useful, especially for younger children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A key accomplishment of Piaget’s preoperational stage is the emergence of:

A

the symbolic function

which permits language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation. This is characteristic of children ages 2 through 7.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

According to Erikson, at age two, the primary psychosocial task is to develop ___________, and failure to successfully accomplish this task leads to ___________

A

a sense of autonomy; doubt and shame

Erikson’s autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage occurs from 1 to 3 years of age. Successful resolution of the conflicts of this stage results in a sense of self-control (autonomy), while failure leads to shame and doubt (you can find additional information in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A person in the sixth (final) stage of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development pursues moral judgments guided primarily by:

A

universally applicable ethical principles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Raymond is a high-energy four-year-old who is always asking questions and likes to help with everything. He is easily distracted and may start helping one family member, and then engage with someone else. Raymond also likes to pretend that he’s one of his favorite characters on TV and can often be seen trying to “arrest” his younger brother or save his friends from an imaginary “bad guy”. In terms of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development, Raymond appears to be in which stage of development?

A

Initiative vs. guilt

The stage of initiative vs. guilt begins around age three. Raymond’s age and behaviors, including increasing locomotion, imagination, curiosity, and exploration suggest he is in this stage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As defined by Piaget, a __________ circular reaction occurs when a baby explores the characteristics of familiar objects by deliberately using them in new ways.

A

tertiary

According to Piaget, much of the cognitive development that occurs during the sensorimotor stage is the result of circular reactions, in which the child repeats or reproduces a pleasurable or interesting experience. Tertiary circular reactions predominate from ages 12 to 18 months and involve varying an original or usual action on an object to see what happens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which pair correctly demonstrates the findings from Ainsworth’s study of the Strange Situation?
Select one:

A.
A disorganized infant and a moody inconsistent caregiver

B.
An autonomous infant and a responsive caregiver

C.
An anxious avoidant infant and an impatient and possibly over-stimulating caregiver

D.
An anxious insecure infant and a possibly aggressive caregiver

A

C.
An anxious avoidant infant and an impatient and possibly over-stimulating caregiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following individuals coined the term “identity crisis”?

A

Erikson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Studies comparing children who are actively rejected or neglected by their peers have found that:

A

children who are rejected have worse outcomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Klinefelter syndrome is due to:

A

Men with Klinefelter syndrome have an extra X chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

: Which aspect of long-term memory is usually the first to be adversely affected by increasing age?

A

Episodic memory is memory for personally experienced events and is the first aspect of long-term memory that shows age-related declines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Information processing theories of cognitive development focus on:

A

mental rules and strategies

Information processing theories conceptualize the human mind as a computer and focus on mental operations. In this view, cognitive development is due to changes in mental capacity and increasing sophistication in the use of relevant rules and strategies.

23
Q

Children who attended Head Start programs show:

A

early IQ gains decline but improvements in academic achievement persist into adolescence

24
Q

Adults who are classified as __________ on the Adult Attachment Interview describe their childhood relationships with parents using positive terms, but their specific childhood memories contradict or do not support these positive descriptions.

A

dismissing

25
Q

The brain is only about 25% of its adult weight at birth. By about _______ months of age, it has reached 80% of its adult weight.

A

24

26
Q

Piaget’s theory of moral development (ages and descriptions)

A

based on research that involved having children respond to dilemmas related to violation of game rules

1- PREMORAL (prior to age 7), children exhibit little concern for rules

2- HETERONOMOUS (age 7 to 10), consider rules to be absolute and unchangeable

3- AUTONOMOUS (age 11), children recognize that rules can be changed by mutual agreement

27
Q

Lesions to the right (non-dominant) hemisphere would most likely produce:

A

Indifference or euphoria

28
Q

A split-brain patient is staring straight ahead when the word “head band” is flashed directly in front of her. The woman will most likely verbally report seeing which of the following?

A

Band

Split-brain patients are individuals whose corpus callosum has been severed as a treatment for epilepsy. Because her corpus callosum has been severed, the woman will only be able to verbally state what was directly perceived by her left hemisphere, which is what was in the right visual field (i.e. the word “band”).

29
Q

Damage to what area of the brain may lead to uncontrollable laughter or intense rage and aggression?

A

hypothalamus

The hypothalamus is involved in regulating hunger, thirst, sex, sleep, body temperature, movement, and emotional reactions. It also maintains homeostasis through its influence on the autonomic nervous system, pituitary gland, and other endocrine glands. Damage to the hypothalamus can cause very intense emotional reactions.

30
Q

Wernike’s aphasia involves:

A

Fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension

The term “aphasia” refers to a loss of language functioning as the result of brain impairment. Damage to the temporal lobe may result in Wernicke’s aphasia. Fluent speech that is devoid of content, impaired repetition, and poor comprehension of written and spoken language are symptoms of Wernicke’s aphasia.

31
Q

This part of the brain transmits sensory information to the appropriate areas of the cortex for all senses except olfaction.

A

thalamus

The thalamus is located in the subcortical region of the forebrain and acts as a “relay station” for sensory information.

32
Q

Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as _____ syndrome.

A

Kluver-Bucy

The symptoms described in this question are characteristic of Kluver-Bucy syndrome, due to lesions affecting the hippocampus and amygdala.

33
Q

Damage to _________ produces expressive aphasia.

A

Broca’s area is the major motor speech area located in the frontal lobe of the brain. Damage to Broca’s area causes expressive (Broca’s) aphasia which is characterized by difficulties in producing spoken and written language.

34
Q

A bundle of fibers that connects the right and left hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

35
Q

: In which functions is the hippocampus involved?

A

Verbal processing, visual processing, spatial processing, and memory

36
Q

What structures are contained within the hindbrain?

A

Pons
Medulla oblongata
Cerebellum

37
Q

__________ involves right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia.

A

Gerstmann’s syndrome occurs with damage to the left parietal lobe. Gerstmann’s syndrome is characterized by finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia (an inability to write), and acalculia (an inability to preform simple mathematical calculations).

38
Q

__________ syndrome is characterized by finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia (an inability to write), and acalculia (an inability to preform simple mathematical calculations).

A

Gerstmann’s

39
Q

Which of the following brain structures plays a role in attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and schizophrenia and is a neuronal pathway that connects the limbic system and prefrontal lobes?

A

reticular activating system ( RAS )

40
Q

Which structures are included in the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, substantia nigra

41
Q

The body’s circadian rhythms are controlled by the:

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is part of the hypothalamus and acts as the body’s “biological clock” and is responsible for many of the body’s circadian rhythms.

42
Q

Following a head injury, a woman exhibits dressing apraxia, tactile agnosia, and doesn’t comb the hair on the left side of her head. Which area of her brain has most likely been damaged?

A

Tactile agnosia, contralateral neglect, and some types of apraxia are caused by damage to certain areas of the PARIETAL LOBE.

43
Q

What structures make up the limbic system?

A

amygdala
hippocampus
cingulate cortex

44
Q

What structures make up the midbrain?

A

superior/ inferior colliculi
substantia nigra
reticular formation RAS

45
Q

What structures make up the forebrain in the subcortical structures?

A

thalamus
hypothalamus
basal ganglia
amygdala
hippocampus

46
Q

what structures make up the forebrain in the cerebral cortex?

A

frontal lobes
parietal lobes
temporal lobes
occipital lobes

47
Q

The development of the human brain involves 5 main stages?

A

-profileration (2.5 weeks old embryo): new cels are produced inside the neural tube

-migration (8 weeks): immature neurons migrate to their final destination in the brain. Begin to aggregate with other cells to form the structures of the brain

-differentiation: neurons begin to develop axons and dendrites

-myelination: axons of some neurons myelinate. much myelination occurs postnatally

-synaptogenesis: formation of synapses (mostly after birth)

48
Q

what makes up the peripheral nervous system?

A

-somatic nervous system

-autonomic nervous system
*parasympathetic nervous system
*sympathetic nervous system

49
Q

What are the groups that make up the spinal cord?

A

cervical
thoracic
lumbar
sacral
coccygeal

50
Q

describe an action potential

A

Na channels open
+ charged Na ions enter = depolarization
(interior of cell becomes less - )

Na channels close
K channels open
+ K ions leave = repolarization

51
Q

the action potential operates on the ______ principle. define it

A

all or none

whenever the stimulation received by a neuron exceeds a given threshold, the resulting action potential will always be the same intensity

52
Q

_____ involves the release of a neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft (which is a small gap between the axon terminal of the presynaptic cell and the receptor on the dendrite of the post synaptic cell)

A

synaptic transmission

53
Q

_____ is an inhibitory neurotransmitter and plays a role in eating, seizure, anxiety disorders, motor control, vision, and sleep

A

GABA

54
Q

degeneration of cells that secrete _____ in the _____ contributes to the motor symptoms of Huntington’s disease

A

GABA

basal ganglia