Lewis Chapter 32: Hematological System Flashcards

1
Q

Why might a client who lives at a high altitude normally have an increased RBC count?

a. High altitudes cause vascular fluid loss, leading to hemoconcentration.

b. Hypoxia caused by decreased atmospheric oxygen stimulates erythropoiesis.

c. The function of the spleen in removing old erythrocytes is impaired at high altitudes.

d. Impaired production of leukocytes and platelets leads to proportionally higher RBC counts.

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the primary effect of malignant disorders that arise from granulocytic cells in the bone marrow?

a. Risk for hemorrhage

b. Altered oxygenation

c. Decreased production of antibodies

d. Decreased phagocytosis of bacteria

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

An anticoagulant such as warfarin that interferes with prothrombin production will alter the clotting mechanism during what process?

a. Platelet aggregation

b. Activation of thrombin

c. Release of tissue thromboplastin

d. Stimulation of factor activation complex

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When reviewing laboratory results of an 83-year-old client with an infection, what should the nurse expect to find?

a. Minimal leukocytosis

b. Decreased platelet count

c. Increased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels

d. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What significant information related to the hematological system should be obtained from a client’s health history?

a. Jaundice

b. Bladder surgery

c. Early menopause

d. Tonsillectomy

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What technique should the nurse use when assessing the lymph nodes?

a. Applying gentle, firm pressure to deep lymph nodes

b. Palpating the deep cervical and supraclavicular nodes last

c. Lightly palpating superficial lymph nodes with the pads of the fingers

d. Using the tips of the second, third, and fourth fingers to apply deep palpation

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When a lymph node is palpated, which of the following is a normal finding?

a. Hard, fixed nodes

b. Firm, mobile nodes

c. Enlarged, tender nodes

d. Hard, nontender nodes

A

B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nursing care for a client immediately after a bone marrow biopsy and aspiration includes which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

a. Administering analgesics as necessary

b. Preparing to administer a blood transfusion

c. Instructing on the need to lie still with a sterile pressure dressing intact

d. Monitoring vital signs and assessing the site for excess drainage or bleeding

e. Instructing on the need for preprocedure and postprocedure antibiotics

A

A,C,D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A nurse is taking care of a male client who has the following laboratory values from his CBC: WBC 6.5×109/L, Hb 134 g/L, Hct 40%, platelets 50×109/L. What should the nurse be most concerned about?

a. The client is neutropenic.

b. The client has an infection.

c. The client is at risk for bleeding.

d. The client is at risk of falling due to his anemia.

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which hematological history includes the assessment of alcohol and illicit drug use?

A. Social and occupational history

B. Activities of daily living

C. Neurological history

D. Self-care history

A

D. Self-care history

The self-care history includes assessing for alcohol, illicit drug, or cigarette use in partial completion of the hematological history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which lymph node assessment finding is abnormal?

A. Fixed (not moveable)

B. Size 0.5 cm

C. Nontender

D. Firm texture

A

A. Fixed (not moveable)

A fixed lymph node is considered an abnormal finding. A normal lymph node is movable on palpation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which skin assessment finding is indicative of a bleeding disorder? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Petechiae

B. Purpura

C. Digit clubbing

D. Ecchymosis

E. Spider nevus

A

A, B, D, E.

Signs of bleeding disorders found in the skin assessment include petechiae, purpura, ecchymosis, and spider nevus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which laboratory value is a measure of the packed cell volume of red blood cells (RBCs) expressed as a percentage of the total blood volume?

A. Platelet count

B. Hematocrit

C. Reticulocyte count

D. White blood cell (WBC) count

A

B. Hematocrit

Hematocrit is a measurement of packed cell volume of RBCs and is expressed as a percentage of the total blood volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which red blood cell (RBC) test is increased in the event of hemoconcentration?

A. White blood cells

B. RBC indices

C. Hemoglobin

D. Prothrombin time

A

C. Hemoglobin

Hemoglobin is increased in the case of polycythemia and hemoconcentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which blood test is needed to reduce transfusion reaction prior to a blood transfusion? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Screen

B. Bilirubin

C. Crossmatch

D. Group

E. Blood smear

A

A, C, D.
The group, screen, and crossmatch are completed before a blood transfusion to minimize transfusion reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which clinical situation may increase the risk of blood transfusion reaction?

A. Multiple blood transfusions

B. Iron-deficiency anemia

C. Completing a cross and match blood test prior to the transfusion

D. Low red blood cell (RBC) count

A

A. Multiple blood transfusions

Risk for transfusion reaction increase with the number of blood transfusions completed.

17
Q

Which hematological assessment statement is accurate?

A. Liver enlargement is measured by the number of centimetres it can be palpated below the rib border.

B. Lymph node assessment should begin at the groin.

C. The spleen size can be assessed using gentle palpation of the abdomen.

D. Assess for petechiae by looking at the mucous membranes.

A

A. Liver enlargement is measured by the number of centimeters it extends below the rib border.

18
Q

Which hereditary disorder should be assessed in relation to hematological concerns? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Sickle cell anemia

B. Hemophilia

C. Asplenia

D. Thalassemia

E. Hemochromatosis

A

A, B, D, E.

Hemophilia, sickle cell anemia, thalassemia, and hemochromatosis are hereditary disorders related to the hematological system.

19
Q

Which diagnostic test evaluates the morphological features of the blood cells?

A. Peripheral blood smear

B. Reticulocyte count

C. Oxygen saturation

D. Platelet count

A

A. Peripheral blood smear

A peripheral blood smear assesses the morphological features (shape and appearance) of the blood cells.

20
Q

Which blood cell test is associated with risk of spontaneous hemorrhage if its counts fall below 10 × 109/L?

A. Platelet count

B. Hemoglobin

C. White blood cells (WBCs)

D. Red blood cell (RBC) indices

A

A. Platelet count

Platelet count is associated with spontaneous hemorrhage if counts fall below 10 × 109/L.

21
Q

Which nursing care should be prioritized when caring for a patient recovering from a bone marrow biopsy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Assess for excess bleeding.

B. Provide analgesics.

C. Administer sedatives.

D. Monitor vital signs.

E. Avoid pressure on the site of puncture for 24 hours.

A

A, B, D.

Nursing care following a bone marrow biopsy includes monitoring vital signs, assessing for excess bleeding, and providing analgesic as needed.

22
Q

Which type of bone marrow is present in the flat and irregular bones?

A. Red (hematopoietic)

B. Yellow (adipose)

C. Red (adipose)

D. Yellow (hematopoietic)

A

A. Red (hematopoietic)

Red (hematopoietic) marrow is present in the flat and irregular bones.

23
Q

Which percentage of the blood is made up by plasma?

A. 15%

B. 20%

C. 45%

D. 55%

A

D. 55%

55% of the blood is plasma, with the remaining 45% being formed elements.

24
Q

In which organ can iron be stored? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Liver

B. Spleen

C. Lungs

D. Bone marrow

E. Duodenum

A

A, B, D.

Approximately two-thirds of the body’s iron is found as the heme part of the hemoglobin molecule in red blood cells. One-third is stored as ferritin and hemosiderin in the liver, bone marrow, spleen, and macrophages.

25
Q

Which statement accurately describes the coagulation and anticoagulation process?

A. Coagulation is achieved through antithrombin activity.

B. Clotting is encouraged through anticoagulants.

C. Anticoagulants including heparin and protein C support clot dissolution.

D. Antithrombin encourages the blood clot to remain stable and intact.

A

C. Anticoagulants including heparin and protein C support clot dissolution.

Anticoagulants include heparin, protein C, and protein S in the clot retraction and dissolution process.

26
Q

Which anatomical location of the abdomen houses the spleen?

A. Upper left quadrant

B. Upper right quadrant

C. Lower left quadrant

D. Lower right quadrant

A

A. Upper left quadrant

The spleen is located in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen.

27
Q

Which component is part of the lymph system? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Fluid

B. Digits

C. Capillaries

D. Ducts

E. Nodes

A

A, C, D, E.

The components of the lymph system include lymph fluid, lymphatic capillaries, lymphatic ducts, and lymph nodes.

28
Q

Which body organ involves hematopoiesis?

A. Spleen

B. Bone marrow

C. Lymph nodes

D. Gallbladder

A

B. Bone marrow

Blood cell production (hematopoiesis) occurs mainly in the bone marrow.

29
Q

Which primary role do neutrophils serve?

A. Phagocytosis

B. Coagulation

C. Oxygen transport

D. Allergic response

A

A. Phagocytosis

Neutrophils are the primary phagocytic cell in the acute inflammatory response.

30
Q

Which cell type is a granulocyte? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Erythrocytes

B. Lymphocytes

C. Basophils

D. Neutrophils

E. Thrombocytes

A

C, D. \

Leukocytes include basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils, monocytes, and lymphocytes. Basophils and Neutrophils are a type of granulocyte.

31
Q

Place in order the sequence of the blood clotting process.

A. Platelet plug formation

B. Fibrin clot development

C. Vascular injury and subendothelial exposure

D. Clot retraction and dissolution

A

C, A, B, D.

(1) vascular injury and subendothelial exposure; (2) platelet plug formation involving adhesion, aggregation, and activation; (3) fibrin clot development; and (4) clot retraction and dissolution.

32
Q

Which part of the hematopoietic system is responsible for removing old and defective red blood cells (RBCs) from circulation as well as filtration and the reuse of iron?

A. Lymph nodes

B. Platelets

C. Duodenum

D. Spleen

A

D. Spleen

The spleen has many functions including hematopoietic function, filtration, immune function, and storage.

33
Q

Which finding is associated with a “shift to the left”?

A. Active infection or inflammation

B. Iron deficiency

C. Bleeding disorder

D. Nausea and vomiting

A

A. Active infection or inflammation

A “shift to the left,” when many immature cells (immature neutrophils/bands) are present in the blood, indicates active infection or inflammation.