Lewis Chapter 16: Altered Immune Response and Transplantation Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements made by the nurse is most appropriate in teaching patient interventions to minimize the effects of seasonal allergic rhinitis?

A. “You will need to get rid of your pets.”
B. “You should sleep in an air-conditioned room.”
C. “You would do best to stay indoors during the winter months.”
D. “You will need to dust your house with a dry feather duster twice a week.”

A

B. Seasonal allergic rhinitis is most commonly caused by pollens from trees, weeds, and grasses. Airborne allergies can be controlled by sleeping in an air-conditioned room, daily damp dusting, covering the mattress and pillows with hypoallergenic covers, and wearing a mask outdoors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Ten days after receiving a bone marrow transplant, a patient has developed a skin rash on their palms and soles, jaundice, and diarrhea. Which of the following is the most likely etiology of these clinical manifestations?

A. The patient is experiencing a type I allergic reaction.
B. An atopic reaction is causing the patient’s symptoms.
C. The patient is experiencing rejection of the bone marrow.
D. Cells in the transplanted bone marrow are rejecting the host tissue.

A

D. The patient’s symptoms are characteristic of graft-versus-host (GVH) disease, in which transplanted cells mount an immune response to the host’s tissue. GVH is not a type I allergic response or an atopic reaction, and it differs from transplant rejection in that the graft rejects the host rather than the host rejecting the graft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a low hemoglobin and hematocrit and is preparing for a transfusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs). Shortly after the first unit of PRBCs is hung, the patient develops signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction. Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions has the patient experienced?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

B. Transfusion reactions are characterized as a type II (cytotoxic) reaction in which agglutination and cytolysis occur.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient that has begun immunotherapy for the treatment of intractable environmental allergies. When administering the patient’s immunotherapy, which of the following interventions is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Monitoring the patient’s fluid balance.
B. Assessing the patient’s need for analgesia.
C. Assessing the patient for changes in level of consciousness.
D. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of an adverse reaction.

A

D. When administering immunotherapy, it is imperative to closely monitor the patient for any signs of an adverse reaction. The high risk and significant consequence of an adverse reaction supersede the need to assess the patient’s fluid balance, whereas pain and changes in level of consciousness are not likely events when administering immunotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following statements regarding passive acquired immunity is true?

A. The body synthesizes antibodies to an antigen.
B. Immunity is developed immediately and is long-lasting.
C. Immunity is developed immediately and is short-lived.
D. Immunity is developed slowly and is long-lasting.

A

C. Passive acquired immunity has immediate effect, but because antibodies are not synthesized by the host, memory cells are not retained and immunity is short-lived.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When caring for a patient with a known latex allergy, the nurse would monitor the patient closely for a cross-sensitivity to which of the following foods? (Select all that apply.)

A. Grapes
B. Oranges
C. Bananas
D. Potatoes
E. Tomatoes

A

A, C, D, E.
Because some proteins in rubber are similar to food proteins, some foods may cause an allergic reaction in people who are allergic to latex. The most common of these foods are bananas, avocados, chestnuts, kiwi, tomatoes, water chestnuts, guava, hazelnuts, potatoes, peaches, grapes, and apricots.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the function of monocytes in immunity?

a. They stimulate the production of T and B lymphocytes.

b. They produce antibodies on exposure to foreign substances.

c. They bind antigens and stimulate natural killer cell activation.

d. They capture antigens by phagocytosis and present them to lymphocytes.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a function of cell-mediated immunity?

a. Formation of antibodies

b. Activation of the complement system

c. Surveillance for malignant cell changes

d. Opsonization of antigens to allow phagocytosis by neutrophils

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which immunoglobulin from maternal transmission protects newborns in the first 3 to 6 months of life from bacterial infections?

a. IgG

b. IgA

c. IgM

d. IgE

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which primary immunological disorder typically occurs in a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

a. Binding of IgG to an antigen on a cell surface

b. Deposit of antigen–antibody complexes in small vessels

c. Release of lymphokines to interact with specific antigens

d. Release of chemical mediators from IgE-bound mast cells and basophils

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which response alerts the nurse that a possible anaphylactic shock reaction may be occurring immediately after a client has received an intramuscular penicillin injection?

a. Edema and itching at the injection site

b. Sneezing and itching of the nose and eyes

c. A wheal-and-flare reaction at the injection site

d. Chest tightness and production of thick sputum

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which is the most appropriate response when a person requests a friend who is a nurse to administer his allergy shot?

a. It is illegal for nurses to administer injections outside of a medical setting.

b. The nurse is qualified to do it if the friend has epinephrine in an injectable syringe provided with his extract.

c. Avoiding the allergens is a more effective way of controlling allergies, and allergy shots are not usually effective.

d. Immunotherapy should be administered only in a setting where emergency equipment and medications are available.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Association between HLA antigens and diseases is most commonly found in what disease conditions?

a. Malignancies

b. Infectious diseases

c. Neurological diseases

d. Autoimmune disorders

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A client is undergoing plasmapheresis for treatment of SLE. What effect does plasmapheresis have?

a. Removes T lymphocytes in the client’s blood that are producing antinuclear antibodies

b. Removes normal particles in the client’s blood that are being damaged by autoantibodies

c. Exchanges the client’s plasma that contains antinuclear antibodies with a substitute fluid

d. Replaces viral-damaged cellular components of the client’s blood with replacement whole blood

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common cause of secondary immunodeficiencies?

a. Medications

b. Stress

c. Malnutrition

d. Human immunodeficiency virus

A

A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following accurately describes rejection after transplantation?

a. Hyperacute rejection can be treated with mycophenolate mofetil.

b. Acute rejection can be treated with sirolimus or tacrolimus.

c. Chronic rejection can be treated with tacrolimus or cyclosporin.

d. Hyperacute rejection can usually be avoided if crossmatching is done before transplantation.

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following does the nurse understand regarding acute rejection of a transplanted lung? (Select all that apply.)

a. A new transplant should be considered immediately.

b. Acute rejection can be treated with high-dose corticosteroids.

c. Acute rejection always leads to chronic rejection.

d. Acute rejection is treated with muromonab-CD3.

e. Acute rejection is common after a transplant and is treated with augmentation of immunosuppression.

A

B, E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following statements best describes cardiac death in a deceased donor?

a. Severe brain damage; coma has progressed to a state of wakefulness without detectable awareness

b. Irreversible loss of all functions of the entire brain, including the brainstem

c. Devastating and irreversible brain injuries (not complete brain death) from trauma or intracranial bleeding; complete cessation of the heartbeat may have occurred, and after subsequent cardiac resuscitation, irreversible brain injury results from a long period of lack of oxygen

d. Inability to be awakened; fails to respond normally to pain or light, does not have sleep–wake cycles, and does not take voluntary actions

A

C.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which symptom may occur with the presence of allergies? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Chest tightness

B. Vomiting

C. Weight loss

D. Fatigue

E. Food intolerances

A

A, B, D, E.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which area of the body would the nurse prepare when caring for a patient scheduled for allergy testing? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Face

B. Trunk

C. Buttocks

D. Arms

A

D.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For which allergic disorder is epinephrine used as first-line treatment?

A. Urticaria

B. Anaphylactic reactions

C. Allergic rhinitis

D. Asthma

A

B.

22
Q

Which action is a part of nursing management during the administration of immunotherapy?

A. Inject the allergen in the lower abdomen.

B. Aspirate for blood before allergen injection.

C. Monitor for a local reaction greater than 6 inches.

D. The patient can be discharged home immediately following the injection.

A

B. Aspirate for blood before allergen injection.

The nurse should aspirate for blood before the allergen injection so that it is not injected directly into a blood vessel, which could cause an anaphylactic reaction.

23
Q

Which statement characterizes multiple chemical sensitivity disorder (MCS)?

A. Treatment includes avoiding chemicals that trigger symptoms.

B. It has specific symptoms.

C. Psychotherapy is a last resort for treatment.

D. Women in their early 20s report more symptoms.

A

A. Treatment includes avoiding chemicals that trigger symptoms.

Part of treating MCS is minimizing or avoiding chemicals that trigger symptoms.

24
Q

Which exposure can cause symptoms of multiple chemical sensitivities (MCS)?

A. Dog

B. Peaches

C. Petroleum products

D. Grass

A

C. Petroleum products

Petroleum products are one of the multiple substances that can cause MCS.

25
Q

Which information would the nurse provide when a patient undergoing plasmapheresis asks what happens to blood before being returned?

A. “It is filtered and exchanged with saline or plasma.”

B. “One particular plasma component is removed.”

C. “Several plasma components are removed.”

D. “It is exchanged with albumin and refiltered.”

A

A. “It is filtered and exchanged with saline or plasma.”

During plasmapheresis, the patient’s blood is filtered and then exchanged with saline, albumin, or plasma protein fractions to remove circulating antigen–antibody complexes and other substances contributing to the patient’s inflammatory process.

26
Q

Which immunodeficiency disorder is classified as a primary disorder?

A. Medication-induced immunosuppression

B. T-cell deficiency

C. Malnutrition

D. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

B. T-cell deficiency

T-cell deficiency is a primary immunodeficiency order where the presence of T-cells is affected apart of illness or treatment.

27
Q

Which factor can cause secondary immunodeficiency disorders? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Medication-induced immunosuppression

B. Hodgkin’s lymphoma

C. Radiation

D. Deficiency in B-cells

E. Malnutrition

A

A, B, C, E.
Medication-induced immunosuppression can cause a secondary immunodeficiency disorder when drugs are intentionally used to suppress the immune system.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma can cause a secondary immunodeficiency disorder. It impairs the cell-mediated immune response, leaving patients very vulnerable to viral and fungal infections.
A possible factor that can cause a secondary immunodeficiency disorder is when patients undergo radiation. It destroys lymphocytes, reduces bone marrow, and suppresses immune function.
Malnutrition is a factor in the development of secondary immunodeficiency disorders. Cell-mediated immune responses are altered, and susceptibility to infection is increased.

28
Q

Which assessment would the nurse perform if a patient is suspected to have asthma?

A. CBC blood test with WBC differential

B. Sputum test for presence of eosinophils

C. Pulmonary function test

D. Allergy skin test

A

C.Pulmonary function test

A pulmonary function test, especially forced expiratory volume is a preferred test for a patient suspected to have asthma.

29
Q

Which action can be taken by a nurse to help an individual control chronic allergies?

A. Inform patient that a time will come when they will be symptom-free.

B. Suggest maximum exposure to the allergen to desensitize the body.

C. Offer preventative measures to minimize allergy symptoms.

D. Allow the patient to find their own method for dealing with allergies caused by stress.

A

C.Offer preventative measures to minimize allergy symptoms.

When a nurse offers preventative measures to minimize symptoms, it can decrease the impact that chronic allergies can have on an individual’s daily life.

30
Q

Which attribute applies to subcutaneous immunotherapy (SCIT)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Titrated amounts of allergen extracts are injected subcutaneously.

B. It is self-administered.

C. Allergen extracts are administered under the tongue.

D. Maximal therapeutic effect is reached in 1 to 2 years.

E. Often administered by a nurse, and adverse reactions should be anticipated.

A

A, D, E.

During SCIT, titrated amounts of allergen extracts are injected subcutaneously on a regular basis to stimulate IgG levels.
It can take up to 1 to 2 years of SCIT for the maximum therapeutic effect to be reached.
A nurse is often responsible for administering SCIT. It is important that the nurse is always anticipating adverse reactions and ready to react.

31
Q

Which class of medication can be administered in the event of complete anaphylactic shock as a result of a latex allergy?

A. Antihistamines

B. Corticosteroids

C. Antipruritics

D. Sympathomimetics

A

D.Sympathomimetics

Sympathomimetics, such as epinephrine, are a first-line treatment in the event of complete anaphylactic shock such as that which can occur with a latex allergy.

32
Q

Which attribute characterizes a type I latex allergy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all response may be correct.

A. Causes a delayed reaction

B. Occurs within minutes of contact

C. Can result in anaphylactic shock

D. May cause hyperpigmentation

E. Is a response to natural rubber latex proteins

A

B, C, E.

A type I latex allergy occurs within minutes after coming in contact with latex proteins.
A type I latex allergy can result in multiple symptoms but can ultimately cause complete anaphylactic shock.
Is a response to natural rubber latex proteins
A type I latex allergy is a response to contact with natural rubber latex proteins.

33
Q

Which product can create aerosolized proteins and should be avoided in health care facilities?

A. Electrode pads

B. Latex powder gloves

C. Syringes

D. Adhesive tape

A

B.Latex powder gloves

Latex proteins can become aerosolized through powder on latex powder gloves, and their use should be avoided in health care facilities to avoid respiratory exposure to latex proteins.

34
Q

Which autoimmune disease affects multiple organs?

A. Goodpasture’s syndrome

B. Addison’s disease

C. Rheumatic fever

D. Rheumatoid arthritis

A

D.Rheumatoid arthritis

Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disease and is characterized by damage to multiple organs.

35
Q

In which procedure are components of blood separated to infuse only one component to patients with autoimmune disorders?

A. Plasmapheresis

B. Epinephrine administration

C. Immunotherapy

D. Apheresis

A

D.Apheresis

Apheresis is a procedure in which components of blood are separated. One or more components are removed, and one component is infused in patients with an autoimmune disorder.

36
Q

Which factor is considered a principle factor in the development of autoimmune diseases?

A. An individual’s ethnicity

B. Inheritance of susceptibility genes

C. Presence of preexisting conditions

D. Degree of exposure to a trigger

A

B. Inheritance of susceptibility genes

The development of autoimmune diseases is primarily influenced by the inheritance of susceptibility genes.

37
Q

Which attribute describes acquired immunity? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Developed actively or passively

B. Present at birth

C. The first line of defense against pathogens

D. Not antigen-specific

E. Produces non-specific response

A

A. Developed actively or passively

Acquired immunity is the development of immunity, either actively or passively.

38
Q

Which condition is an example of humoral immunity in the body?

A. Anaphylactic shock

B. Tuberculosis

C. Graft rejection

D. Contact dermatitis

A

A.Anaphylactic shock

Anaphylactic shock is an example of a condition where the body reacts with humoral immunity.

39
Q

Which class of immunoglobulins is located in breast milk?

A. IgG

B. IgA

C. IgM

D. IgE

A

B. IgA

IgA is an immunoglobulin that can be located in body secretions, such as breast milk.

40
Q

Interleukins fall under which component of the immune response?

A. Red blood cells

B. Monocytes

C. Cytokines

D. Neutrophils

A

C. Cytokines

Interleukins, along with interferons, are a type of cytokine, which are secreted by white blood cells and other body cells.

41
Q

Which type of cytokine has clinical use for rheumatoid arthritis?

A. Interleukin-2

B. Erythropoietin

C. Soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor

D. Colony-stimulating factors

A

C. Soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor

Soluble tumor necrosis factor receptor has a clinical use for rheumatoid arthritis.

42
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction can be diagnosed with the wheal and flare skin test?

A. Anaphylactic

B. Cytotoxic

C. Immune-complex

D. Delayed hypersensitivity

A

A. Anaphylactic

An anaphylactic hypersensitivity reaction can be indicated by the wheal and flare skin test.

43
Q

Which condition is a chronic, inherited skin disorder?

A. Urticaria

B. Atopic dermatitis

C. Allergic rhinitis

D. Angioedema

A

B. Atopic dermatitis

Atopic dermatitis is a chronic, inherited skin disorder caused by several allergens that can be difficult to identify.

44
Q

Which finding would the nurse report to the provider because it indicates a potential complication of contact dermatitis?

A. Change in skin lesions

B. Fever of 38.3°C orally

C. Mild peripheral edema

D. Red swollen joints

A

A.Change in skin lesions

Contact dermatitis is an inflammatory response that causes skin lesions. However, a change in those skin lesions is cause for concern because it may indicate a complication such as secondary infection.

45
Q

Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

A. Immunization with killed vaccines

B. Recovery from mumps

C. Maternal immunoglobulins transferred to the fetus

D. Injection of human y-globulin

A

C. Maternal immunoglobulins transferred to the fetus

The transfer of maternal immunoglobulins in neonate is an example of natural passive immunity. The fetus is receiving antibodies to the antigen instead of making them.

46
Q

Which statement describes the second phase of the humoral immune response?

A. Memory cells allow for rapid production of antibodies.

B. IgM is the primary antibody involved.

C. IgG is produced towards the end of the phase.

D. Reaction becomes evident 4 to 8 days after initial exposure.

A

A. Memory cells allow for rapid production of antibodies.

During the secondary antigenic exposure, memory cells allow for more rapid production of antibodies, as opposed to a slower production following initial exposure.

47
Q

During the cell-mediated response, which cell type captures antigens in contact with the environment?

A. Natural killer

B. Dendritic

C. B lymphocytes

D. T lymphocytes

A

B. Dendritic

Dendritic cells are important in cell-mediated immune response and capture antigens at sites of contact with external environment before transporting them to T cells.

48
Q

Which attribute specifically describes T helper cells? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.

A. Involved in the immune response

B. Differentiation into cells that produce TH1 and TH2 cells

C. Make up 70% to 80% of circulating lymphocytes

D. Can become T cytotoxic cells

E. Involved in the humoral body response

A

B, E.

T helper cells specifically can differentiate into cells that produce TH1 and TH2 cells.
It is specific to T helper cells to be involved in the humoral body response.

49
Q

Which action will the nurse take first upon entering the room of a patient who has an intravenous antibiotic running and is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction?

A. Stop the antibiotic infusion

B. Elevate the patient’s head

C. Change the IV tubing

D. Initiate oxygen per mask

A

A.Stop the antibiotic infusion

The antigen (antibiotic serving as the allergen) must be stopped immediately, or the allergic reaction will continue even with emergency interventions. Stopping the antibiotic is the first, or priority, nursing action.

50
Q

Which change in the immune system occurs with advancing age?

A. Thymic expanding

B. Increase in immunoglobulin levels

C. Decreased susceptibility to infections

D. Higher incidence of malignancies

A

D.Higher incidence of malignancies
There are higher incidences of malignancies that occur with advanced age, which can decrease the effectiveness of the immune system.

51
Q

Which category of hypersensitivity reactions do not involve antibodies?

A. Anaphylactic

B. Cytotoxic

C. Immune-complex

D. Delayed hypersensitivity

A

D. Delayed hypersensitivity

There are no antibodies involved in delayed hypersensitivity reactions.

52
Q

Which category of hypersensitivity reaction is a client experiencing with transplant rejection?

A. Type I

B. Type II

C. Type III

D. Type IV

A

D. Type IV

Delayed hypersensitivity is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction and is experienced by a client going through transplant rejection.