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Level 3 Theory Flashcards

1
Q

On the AGL panel, what are the different daylight settings?

A

Day
Twilight
Night

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2
Q

On the AGL panel, what are the the different visibility settings?

A

> 5000m
<5000m
<1500m
<800m

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3
Q

What percentage settings are available on the AGL?

A

1%
3%
10%
30%
100%

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4
Q

What should ADC do upon receiving a runway surface condition report?

A

Pass on the new RWYCC to APC and any pilots who have outdated information.

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5
Q

When does the RWYCC need to be passed to pilots

A

When it first changes to 6,6,6 DRY, DRY, DRY

and

When it is anything but 6,6,6 DRY, DRY, DRY

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6
Q

When can an Unofficial/pilot report be passed?

A

When a pilot report of braking action is received and it is worse than that which is promulgated, it may be passed to other aircraft using a single term:

“Unofficial observation from a pilots report at (time) braking action POOR.”

A new runway inspection should be requested ASAP

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7
Q

What is meant by the term MEHT?

A

Minimum eye height over threshold

The lowest height over the runway threshold at which PAPI indications can be seen

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8
Q

What is the MEHT at EGMC?

A

05/23 - 53FT

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9
Q

What is the aerobatics code and at what point should it be selected?

A

7004

5 minutes prior to carrying out aerobatic manoeuvres and should be deselected when the aerobatics cease.

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10
Q

What is the full CLN PDR route?

A

CLN

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11
Q

What is the full DVR PDR route?

A

DET - DVR

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12
Q

What is the full LYD PDR route?

A

DET - LYD

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13
Q

What is the full CPT PDR route?

A

EVNAS - LAM - BPK - HEN - CPT

(HEN = HENTON)

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14
Q

What is the full BPK PDR route?

A

EVNAS - LAM - BPK

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15
Q

What is a SAM?

A

Slot allocation message

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16
Q

What is a SLC?

A

Slot cancellation message

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17
Q

What is a SRM?

A

Slot revision message

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18
Q

What is a SIP?

A

Slot improvement message

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19
Q

What is a FLS?

A

Flight plan suspended message

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20
Q

What is a DES?

A

Flight plan De-suspended message

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21
Q

What is the maximum range of the IRVR system?

A

2000m

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22
Q

What is the minimum of the IRVR system?

A

50m

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23
Q

What part of the IRVR must be serviceable for a runway to be used in RVR conditions?

A

The TDZ

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24
Q

On which runway is HORVR available?

25
Q

What are the obstacles that determine the MSA?

A

Wrotham Mast - 1304ft
Faversham Mast - 682ft
Sudbury Mast - 768ft
Lippitts Hill Mast - 742ft

26
Q

What is the visual manoeuvring height for CAT A Aircraft?

27
Q

What is the visual manoeuvring height for CAT B Aircraft?

28
Q

What is the visual manoeuvring height for CAT C Aircraft?

29
Q

What are some of the risks of icing conditions?

A
  • Change to the aerodynamics of the wings
  • Potential ice build up in pitot tubes
  • Degraded radios
30
Q

Where is the CDF located and what is the frequency?

A

TWY B

121.805

31
Q

Who should be notified if there is a thunderstorm in the vicinity of the aerodrome?

A

Aerodrome refuellers

32
Q

When may windshear be present?

A
  • Frontal, Squall, TS activity
    -Low level inversions
  • When the wind direction is such that it passes over local terrain or buildings/obstructions
33
Q

What should ATC do when there has been a report of windshear?

A

Pass on to other pilots the following:

  • A warning of the presence of windshear
  • The height at which the windshear was encountered
  • The time at which the windshear was encountered
  • Details of the effect (speed gain/loss, vertical speed change, change in drift)
34
Q

How should a request for a non-radio aircraft be dealt with?

A
  • Pass it onto the SCOD
  • Issue a discreet squawk
  • Ensure an LoA is established
35
Q

What is the APP DOC?

A

40NM / 10,000ft

36
Q

What is the RAD DOC?

A

40NM / 10,000ft

37
Q

What is the DIR DOC?

A

40NM / 10,000ft

38
Q

What is the TWR DOC?

A

25NM / 4000ft

39
Q

What is the ATIS DOC?

A

60NM / 20,000ft

40
Q

What phraseology should be used when an A7500 squawk is observed

A

“(C/C) Confirm you are squawking assigned code”

Do not mention the code A7500

41
Q

What are some of the signs that an aircraft may be subject to unlawful interference?

A
  • Unauthorised deviation from cleared flight profile
  • Refusal or inability to comply with ATC instructions (including vectoring) with no good reason
  • Loss of RTF contact, particularly associated with flight profile deviation
  • Unauthorised SSR code changes or extended use of IDENT
  • Use of non-standard phraseology by the crew, or other covert attempt to highlight the situation (marked change in voice characteristics, etc.)
  • Selection of A7600 (RTF failure) or A7700 (emergency), particularly in association with flight profile deviation
  • Notification from non-official sources
  • Open RTD transmitter form the cockpit
  • Non-ATC related RTF transmission
  • Non-specific threat passed by third party.
42
Q

What is the AFS radius of action?

A

1000m under the end of each runway

43
Q

What should be done if there is an incident with an aircraft that has departed Southend?

A

Find out if it took on fuel.

If so, inform the fuel department so that an investigation can be initiated.

44
Q

What are the actions if a pilot or controller deems that there has been an AIRPROX?

A

The controller should note/take down the details if they have the capacity.

AIRPROX reports should contain the following:

-AIRPROX Report
- Position
- Time
- Altitude
- Heading
- Details including miss distance
- Weather conditions

45
Q

What action should be taken if an unauthorised crane is noticed in the vicinity of the aerodrome?

A
  • Ask Sam Petrie if she knows anything about it
  • Ask security to investigate
  • Inform Radar
  • Cancel IFR training and approaches
  • NOTAM
46
Q

Failure of navigation lights by day?

A

Continue the flight as long as the issue is rectified at the earliest opportunity

47
Q

Failure of navigation lights at night OCAS?

A

Land as soon as possible

48
Q

Failure of navigation lights at night when flight is wholly contained in controlled airspace?

A

Flight may continue provided it is approved by the relevant ATC unit/s

49
Q

During which hours does the night surcharge apply?

50
Q

What is the maximum validity of a SNOWTAM?

51
Q

In what order shall snow and ice be cleared from the aerodrome?

A
  1. Main runway
  2. Primary taxi route
  3. Aircraft parking stands
  4. Emergency access route
  5. Airside roads
52
Q

What does CFME stand for?

A

Continuous friction measuring equipment

53
Q

Where on the aerodrome is the designated holding and mobilisation point for the snow fleet?

54
Q

Who can act as Snow Cell Manager?

A

Head of Airside
Head of Engineering
Head of ATS

55
Q

Who can act as Snowman airfield?

A

Duty AFS Station/Watch manager

56
Q

Who can act as Snowman Terminal?

A

Security Duty manager

57
Q

Who can act as Snowman Aprons?

A

Duty AFS Station/Watch manager

58
Q

What are the ATC responsibilities in Snow conditions?

A

-Disseminate aviation weather warnings
- Maintain control of all vehicles
- Switch on AGL
- Ensure NOTAM / SNOWTAM issued
- Promulgate accurate airfield status using ATIS and Essential aerodrome information
- Request runway or taxiway inspections
-

EGMC (6 decks)

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