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EGMC > EGMC Transitional Theory > Flashcards

EGMC Transitional Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What is the TWR frequency?

A

127.730

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2
Q

What is the APP frequency?

A

130.780

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3
Q

What is the DIR frequency?

A

128.965

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4
Q

What are the dimensions of the ATZ?

A

Circle 2.5nm radius, centred on 05/23
SFC - 2000ft AGL

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5
Q

What is the ATIS frequency?

A

136.055

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6
Q

What is the airspace classification of the ATZ?

A

Class D

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7
Q

What is the RFFS category?

A

Category A7

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8
Q

What are the aerodrome hours of operation?

A

H24
ATC permission required between 2200-0630(L)

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9
Q

What pressure setting shall be given to locally based light aircraft?

A

Southend QNH
QFE may be passed where appropriate

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10
Q

What pressure setting shall be given to aircraft in transit?

A

Southend QNH
RPS may be passed where appropriate

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11
Q

Within which ASR is Southend located?

A

Chatham

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12
Q

What is the transition altitude?

A

6000ft

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13
Q

Which holding points do not have stop bars?

A

E and F1

Additionally CX is not equipped with a stop bar.

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14
Q

What circuit directions are used?

A

Routinely:
RWY23 - RHC
RWY 05: LHC

Any circuit direction may be used at the discrestion of ADC

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15
Q

What is the circuit altitude?

A

1000ft by day (0630-2300)
1500ft by night (2301-0629)
1500ft irrespective of time of day for aircraft 5700kg or greater

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16
Q

Do CCTS not above 1000ft require coordination or prenoting to APC?

A

No

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17
Q

Where should helicopters aviod flying?

A

Over the terminal or associated aprons below 1000ft QNH

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18
Q

How should helicopters be routed around the aerodrome?

A

As if they were fixed wing

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19
Q

For which danger areas is Southend the notified DAAIS

A

The Shoeburyness danger area complex, consisting of:

D136, D138A, D138B, D138C, D138D

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20
Q

Who should be informed if it is believed that there has been an infringement of the danger area complex?

What information should be passed to them?

A

Shoeburyness range

Which DA is affected
Direction of travel
Altitude (If known)
Expected/Approximated duration of infringement
Any other appropriate details

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21
Q

When should aicraft be asked if they can avoid the danger area complex?

What phraseology should be used?

A

05 departures or missed approaches that are IFR or fast (180kts or greater) SVFR/VFR

“D138D active 4nm East of the airfield, can you accept a right turn to avoid the danger area?”

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22
Q

What needs to happen if a pilot does not confirmt that they are able to accept the right turn?

A

An alternative departure clearance should be sought from APC

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23
Q

How should an accepted right turn out from RWY05 be notated on the FPS is the danger areas are active?

How should it be notated if the right tun has not been accepted?

A

RTO ✓

RTO ✗

24
Q

What additional action should be taken by ADC if the RTO from 05 with danger areas has been accepted

A

Pass the aircraft the director frequency on the ground.

Transfer the aircraft to director on a 1nm climbout

25
Q

When certain danger areas are active, radar shall work all southbound departures. Which danger areas does this apply to?

A

D136 and D138D

26
Q

What are the VMC Minima is Class D airspace by day?

A

Fixed wing and helicopters flying greater than 140kts IAS -

1500m (Horizontal)
1000ft (Vertical)
5KM flight visibility

Fixed wing aircraft flying at 140Kts IAS or less -

Clear of cloud, surface in sight
5KM flight visibility

Helicopters flight at 140 IAS or less -

Clear of cloud, surface in sight
1500m flight visibility

27
Q

What are the VMC minima in class D airspace by night?

A

Below FL100 and above 3000ft AMSL (or 1000ft above terrain) -

1500m (Horizontal)
1000ft (Vertical)
5KM flight visibility

At or below 3000ft -

1500m (Horizontal)
1000ft (Vertical)
Maintaining continuous sight of the surface
5km flight visibility

28
Q

When shall a special VFR clearance not be issued?

A

For fixed wing aircraft -
Ground visibility less than 1500m and/or cloud ceiling less than 600ft

For helicopters
Ground visibility less than 800m and/or cloud ceiling less than 600ft

29
Q

What SSR codes are allocated to EGMC?

A

5051-5057 and 5060-5067
5050 - Frequency monitoring code
4575 Conspicuity code

30
Q

What are the 4 standard uses of the ATM?

A
  1. Determine the landing order, spacing, and distance from touchdown
  2. Assist in providing longitudinal separation for departing aircraft
  3. Enable to controller to confirm that the initail track of an aircraft is conforming to the clearance issued
  4. Provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach.
31
Q

What is the Section 106 prefered runway scheme?

A

Departures on RWY 05
Arrivals on RWY 23

32
Q

Between 2300 - 0630, when may ATC deviate from the prefered runway scheme?

A
  1. 2 minute tailwind component is greater than 5 Kts
  2. Significant weather is present
  3. Pilot reports unable to accept the out of wind runway
  4. The aircraft is in an emergency
  5. Aircraft in the circuit
33
Q

What is the noise abatement procedure for RWY 05 departures?

A

Climb straight ahead until a range of 1 DME and an altitude of 1500ft before turning

34
Q

What is the noise abatement procedure for RWY 23 departures?

A

Climb straight ahead until 2.5DME and passing altitude 1500ft

35
Q

What restrictions are associated with TWY C?

A

Between 2330 and 0630:

Avoid using TWY C
Use TWYs B + A instead

If there is an arrival for 23 and a dep for 05, TWY C may be used for the arrival

36
Q

In which conditions shall a VFR clearance not be issued?

A

For aircraft looking to:
- Operate to/from an aerodrome
- Enter the CCT
- Transit the ATZ

If the ground visibility is less than 5km
If the cloud ceiling is less than 1500ft

37
Q

When can reduced separation in the vicinity of an aerodrome be applied?

A
  1. Adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when both aircraft are continuously visible
  2. Each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of the other aircraft concerned and the can maintain their own separation
  3. When one aircraft is following another, the following reports the other in sight and can maintain their separation.
38
Q

What aircraft restriction applies to TWY B?

A

A321 aircraft are not to vacate the runway onto TWY B, but may use TWY B to enter the RWY.

39
Q

What constitutes a SMALL aircraft category in RFFS response?

What RFF category is this?

A

Falcon 900
Challenger 300/600
ATR 42 all series

RFFS Category 4

40
Q

What constitutes a LARGE aircraft in relation to RFF response?

What fire category does this require?

A

ATR 72
Airbus A3XX Series
B737 series
Embraer 170/175/190/195

41
Q

What phraseology should be used for EZY/EJU 05 departures via DET PDRs when the danger areas are active?

A

C/S, danger are 138D active, cleared to [Dest], [XXX] preferred departure route, RWY 05, after departure and noise abatement, climb to altitude 3000ft straight ahead, expect vectors with a left turn, squawk [XXXX]

42
Q

When shall AGL be displayed?

A

Aerodrome lighting shall be selected 15 minutes before any ETA and after any ATD as
follows:
* By day, whenever the visibility is less than 5km and/or the cloud base is less than
700ft.
* By night, irrespective of weather conditions
Stopbars and guard lights at the runway holding points shall be left on during AD opening
hours. If a runway holding point stopbar is U/S the previous intermediate stopbar shall be
used where available.

43
Q

What are the dimensions of the runway restricted area?

A

105m either side of the RWY Centreline, reducing to 75m near the end of the runway (in line with the RESA)

44
Q

What what range final should you aim to have the Runway Restricted area clear?

A

4nm

45
Q

What is the initial emergency exchange likely to contain?

A

Category of emergency
Aircraft type
Large/Small
Nature of incident
ETA
Clearance to proceed

46
Q

What is the WT separation minima for a Light following a Heavy?

A

7nm

47
Q

What is the WT separation minima for a Light following an Upper Meadium?

A

6nm

48
Q

What is the WT separation minima for a Light following a Lower Medium?

A

5nm

49
Q

What is the WT separation minima for a Light following a Small?

A

4nm

50
Q

What is the WT separation minima for a Small following a Small?

A

3nm

51
Q

What is the WT separation minima for a Small following a Lower Medium?

A

3nm

52
Q

When should a runway inspection be completed?

A
  • H24 Unit : After First light
  • Non H24 unit: Before first aircraft movement
  • Before night flying
  • At the cessation of work
  • When a runway not previously in use is brought into use
  • Following an aircraft accident
  • Abandoned take-off by a turbine aircraft due to engine malfunction/burst tyres
  • During snow and ice conditions
  • When considered necessary by ATC/Aerodrome operatator
53
Q

What is the process should an urgent message need to be passed from airside ops regarding wildlife control?

A
  1. Phrase “URGENT MESSAGE REGARDING WILDLIFE CONTROL”
  2. Position and height
  3. Type and Number of birds
  4. Type of dispersal activity in progress
54
Q

When may a line-up clearance be issued to more than one aircraft using different holding points?

A

(1) it is during daylight hours;
(2) all aircraft are continuously visible to the aerodrome controller;
(3) all aircraft are on the same RTF frequency;
(4) pilots are advised of the number of aircraft ahead in the departure sequence,
and the position/runway from which these aircraft will depart;
(5) the physical characteristics of the runway do not render preceding aircraft in the departure sequence invisible to succeeding aircraft on the same runway.

55
Q

When may a land after be issued?

A

(1) the runway is long enough to allow safe separation between the two aircraft
and there is no evidence to indicate that braking may be adversely affected;

(2) it is during daylight hours;

(3) the preceding landing aircraft is not required to backtrack in order to vacate
the runway;

(4) the controller is satisfied that the landing aircraft will be able to see the
preceding aircraft which has landed, clearly and continuously, until it has
vacated the runway; and

(5) the pilot of the following aircraft is warned. Responsibility for ensuring
adequate separation rests with the pilot of the following aircraft.

56
Q

When shall AGL be displayed?

A

By day: Visibility <5km, Cloud base <700ft
By night: Irrespective of weather conditions

57
Q
A

EGMC (5 decks)

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