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EGMC > Level 2 Theory > Flashcards

Level 2 Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What are the dimensions of the ATZ?

A

2.5NM Radius
2000ft AGL

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2
Q

What are the ATZ hours of operation?

AIP and AIP SUP

A

H24 or as NOTAM’d

AIP SUP - 0630-2100

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3
Q

What is the RWY23 threshold elevation?

A

38 FT

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4
Q

What is the RWY05 threshold elevation?

A

55 FT

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5
Q

What is the aerodrome elevation?

A

55 FT

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6
Q

What is the Class D VMC Minima by day (> 140kts)

A

1500m H
1000ft V
5KM Flight Vis

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7
Q

What is the Class D VMC Minima by day (Fixed wing <140kts)

A

COCSIS
5KM

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8
Q

What is the Class D VMC Minima by day (Heli <140kts)

A

COCSIS
1500M

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9
Q

What is the Class D VMC Minima by night (Above 3000ft)

A

1500M H
1000FT V
5KM

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10
Q

What is the Class D VMC Minima by night (At or below 3000ft)

A

1500M H
1000FT V
Maintaining Continuous sight of the surface

5KM

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11
Q

For a fixed wing aircraft, what would preclude SVFR flight

A

<1500m visibility
<600ft cloud ceiling

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12
Q

For a helicopter, what would preclude SVFR flight

A

<800m visibility
<600ft cloud ceiling

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13
Q

What are the runway dimensions?

A

1856m x 36m

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14
Q

What are the RWY strip dimensions ?

A

1724m x 280m

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15
Q

By what distance is the RWY 23 threshold displaced?

A

248m

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16
Q

What are the widths of the taxiways?

A

All 15m

Except:
TWY E: 5.5m
TWY F: 27m

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17
Q

Describe the available lighting for RWY 23

Approach:
Threshold:
PAPIs:
Centreline:
Edge:
Runway End:

A

Approach – 583m. Uni-directional centreline with four crossbars. High light intensity.

Threshold – Green, high intensity, inset wing bars.

PAPIs – 3’

Centreline – 1840m, 15m spacing. White centre-line lights in pre-threshold runway. High intensity

Edge – 1840m, 60m spacing. Elevated bi-directional with omni-directional component. Red pre-threshold lighting. White. High intensity.

Runway end – Red, high intensity

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18
Q

Describe the available lighting for RWY 05

Approach:
Threshold:
PAPIs:
Centreline:
Edge:
Runway End:

A

Turning circle - green centre line lights and blue edge lights

Approach – Uni-directional centreline with three crossbars. 540m. High intensity.

Threshold – Green, high intensity, inset wing bars.

PAPIs – 3.5’

Centre Line – 1840m, 15m spacing. Red centre-line lights extend beyond TORA/LDA

White centre line lights, high intensity.

Edge – 1840m, 60m spacing. Elevated, bi-directional with omnidirectional component. High intensity

Runway end – Red, high intensity

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19
Q

When should RWY lighting not be switched off for RVR purposes?

A
  • When an aircraft is taking off.
  • After an aircraft has reported completing a procedure turn
  • After an aircraft has reached 5nm from the touchdown on a radar approach
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20
Q

What are the periods of display of AGL?

A

By day:
Visibility less that 5km
Cloud base less than 700ft

By night:
Irrespective of weather conditions

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21
Q

What are the conditions where an aircraft may be instructed to cross a red stop bar?

A

When the stop bar is not serviceable and is stuck in the on position, and;

  • Affected position and a/c visible to the controller
  • Phraseology used is to leave the pilot in no doubt that crossing instructions only applies to the particular inoperable stop-bar. Conditional clearance not used.
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22
Q

What phraseology should be used to instruct an aircraft to cross a red stop bar?

A

G-CD stop-bar unserviceable, cross red stop-bar, via A1 line up runway 23

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23
Q

What is the RWY surface material?

A

Grooved Asphalt

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24
Q

Why is the runway grooved?

A

To ensure that a runway surface is sufficiently well constructed and maintained to stand up to the particular demands of a/c take-off and landing operations. Aids braking and dries quicker. Prevents standing water.

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25
Q

What is the PAPI angle of approach on RWY 23?

A

3 Degrees

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26
Q

What is the PAPI angle of approach on RWY 05?

A

3.5 Degrees

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27
Q

What does MEHT mean?

A

Minimum Eye Height

The lowest eye height over the runway threshold at which the PAPI indications can be seen.

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28
Q

What is the MEHT for RWYs 23 and 05?

A

53ft

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29
Q

What is the definition of TORA?

A

Take off run available

Length of the runway declared and suitable for the ground run of departing aircraft

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30
Q

What is the definition of TODA?

A

Take off distance available

TORA + Associated Clearway

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31
Q

What is the definition of ASDA?

A

Accelerate stop distance available

TORA + Stopway

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32
Q

What is the definition of LDA?

A

Landing Distance available

Length of runway declared suitable for the ground run of landing aircraft.

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33
Q

What is a RESA?

A

Runway End safety area

RESAs are designated areas at each end of the runway intended to minimise risk of damage to an aircraft if it overruns or undershoots a runway.

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34
Q

What is the definition of Clearway?

A

A clearway is an area beyond the paved runway, free of obstructions and under the control of the airport authorities.

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35
Q

What is the definition of a Stopway?

A

An area of ground beyond the TORA which is prepared as a suitable area for an aircraft to stop during an abandoned takeoff

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36
Q

What is the definition of a displaced threshold?

A

A threshold which is not located at the extremity of the runway surface.

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37
Q

When is a pilot required to file a flight plan?

A

A pilot is required to file a flight plan for:

  • Any flight or portion thereof to be provided with an ATCS
  • Any IFR flight in advisory airspace
  • Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the authority, to facilitate the provision of flight information, alerting and SAR services
  • Any flight within or into areas, or along routes designated by the authority, to facilitate coordination with appropriate military units or with air traffic service units in adjacent states to avoid the possible need for interception for the purposes of identification prescribed by states concerned.
  • Any flights across international boundaries
  • Any flight planned to operate at night, if leaving the vicinity of an aerodrome
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38
Q

What is the limitation of TWY Bravo?

A

An A321 or larger cannot vacate the runway onto TWY Bravo, but may enter the Runway from TWY Bravo.

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39
Q

When should ATC avoid holding Jet and Turboprop aircraft at C1?

A

When the delay is expected to be greater than 5 minutes

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40
Q

When should ATC avoid using TWY Charlie all together?

A

Between 2330 and 0630(L)

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41
Q

What should be done between 2330 and 0630(L) to avoid the use of TWY Charlie?

A
  • APC increase arrival spacing
    -ADC should instruct all aircraft to vacate via TWY Bravo or Alpha
    -Southside departures should use TWYs Bravo or Alpha to depart
    -RWY 23 departures from the north side should not cross D->C
  • If there is an arrival on 23 and a departure on 05 (Section 105), it is preferable to vacate the arriving aircraft on Charlie, rather than hold the departing aircraft there.
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42
Q

What are the vehicle only holds on the aerodrome?

A

05 Undershoot South
05 Undershoot North
Charlie Vehicle roadway
Foxtrot 1
Foxtrot 2

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43
Q

When may aircraft be approved to remote hold on TWYs Alpha or Zulu?

A

When the ambient temperature is less than 25°

When the temperature is 25° or above, approval should be sought from the Head of Operations or the Aerodrome Operations Manager

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44
Q

What are the restrictions for remote holding on TWYs Bravo and Charlie?

A

None

Aircraft may be instructed to remote hold on these taxiways with no temperature restrictions

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45
Q

Who’s responsibility is parking on stands 1-10?

A

Operations and Dispatch

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46
Q

Who’s responsibility is parking on stands 11-15 and the North Apron?

A

AFS.

Marshallers guidance is required for these parking positions

LSA Jet Centre may be responsible for marshalling on to stands 11-15

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47
Q

What is the phraseology for cancelling takeoff clearance when the aircraft has not yet commenced it’s takeoff run?

A

“G-CD hold position, cancel take-off I say again cancel take-off, acknowledge”

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48
Q

What is the phraseology for cancelling takeoff clearance when the aircraft has commenced it’s takeoff run?

A

“G-CD stop immediately, I say again, G-CD stop immediately, acknowledge.”

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49
Q

Where on the aerodrome is the compass swing located?

A

TWY Foxtrot

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50
Q

What is the largest aircraft type that can use the compass swing?

A

B752

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51
Q

What pressure setting should aircraft operating in/out and in the vicinity of Southend be issued?

A

Southend QNH

QFE may be requested by the pilot

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52
Q

Within which ASR is Southend Located?

A

Chatham

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53
Q

What is the transition Altitude?

A

6000ft

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54
Q

During which hours does the Section 106 agreement apply?

A

2300-0630(L)

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55
Q

What is the Runway Preferential Scheme?

A

Depart RWY05 and Land RWY23

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56
Q

When may ATC deviate from the Runway Preferential Scheme?

A
  • 2 Minute tailwind component greater than 5 knots
  • Significant weather is present
  • Pilots report they are unable to accept the out of wind runway
  • The aircraft is in an emergency
  • The aircraft is in the circuit
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57
Q

What are the noise abatement procedures and to which aircraft types do they apply?

A

RWY 23 - Straight ahead 2.5DME and 1500ft before turn

RWY 05 - Straight ahead 1.5DME and 1500ft before turn

When making a visual approach to either runway, aircraft are to be established on the final approach track not less than 3NM from the threshold and at a height not below the PAPI indicated slope.

Noise abatement procedures apply to aircraft with an MTOM of 5700KG or greater.

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58
Q

During which hours should engine running not be permitted?

A
  • Monday to Saturday 2000 to 0800L
  • 1800 Saturday evening to 0900 Sunday morning
  • 1800 Sunday evening to 0800 Monday morning

No individual engine run should last longer than 90 minutes.

High power engine runs must not last longer than 60 minutes

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59
Q

Where may engine runs be permitted on the aerodrome?

A

Taxiways Bravo and Foxtrot

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60
Q

What are the restrictions of running APUs?

A

APUs on passenger aircraft shall not be used for more than 30 minutes before departure or after arrival, this limit may be extended to 40 minutes when air temperature is less than minus 5’C, or more than 20’C. During stand positioning, the APU is not to be started prior to 10 minutes before the aircraft is moved.

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61
Q

What SSR code should be issued to aircraft who intend to carry out aerobatics?

How long before commencing aerobatics should the code be selected for?

A

7004

5 minutes

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62
Q

When should Wake turbulence distances be applied on final approach?

A
  • When an aircraft is operating directly behind another aircraft at the same altitude or less than 1000ft below
  • When an aircraft is crossing directly behind another aircraft at the same altitude or less than 1000ft below
  • Both aircraft are using the same runway or parallel runways separated by less than 760m
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63
Q

How should helicopters be routed around the aerodrome?

A

As if they were fixed wing aircraft, and if possible they should be instructed to ground taxi.

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64
Q

What are the procedures if a helicopter is landing out of sight of the controller?

A

The helicopter should be instructed to “Land at you discretion, report landed”. If no such report is received within 1 minute, AFS should be alerted as a matter of urgency.

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65
Q

During hours should helicopter operations not be permitted?

A

2300-0630L

Except weather diversions, emergencies, HEMS, Military, UKP, and SAR

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66
Q

What are the levels for circuit training?

A

Not above 1000ft by day
Not above 1500ft by night

Coordination is not required for circuit training (unless coordinating NAB 1500ft night CCTs or the aircraft has no transponder).

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67
Q

What are the procedures if an aircraft of 5700KG or greater wants to conduct CCTs?

A

If the aircraft is requesting more than 4 consecutive circuits, permission from the HoATS or SCOD should be sought.

These circuits should be conducted Not above 1500ft regardless of the time of day.

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68
Q

What are the procedures for PEFATO on RWY 23?

A

To avoid built up areas, an early right turn should be requested and the fan stop conducted on the crosswind leg.

Pilots should be asked to report climbing away.

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69
Q

What are the procedures for first solo flights?

A

Consider the prevailing traffic levels to minimise airborne delay

FPS to be marked with correct POB

Callsign = * GABCD *

AFS to be notified with 5 minutes warning via landline

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70
Q

What are the procedures for QXCs?

A

Permission required by a duty ATCO

FPS to be annotated as QXC and callsign marked as student.

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71
Q

When may 1 minute departure separation be applied?

A

Provided that the a/c fly on tracks diverging by 45 degrees or more immediately after take-off.

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72
Q

When may 2 minute departure separation be applied?

A

Provided that the preceding a/c has filed a true airspeed 40kt or faster than the following and neither a/c is cleared to execute any manoeuvre that would decrease the 2-minute separation between them.

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73
Q

When may 5 minute departure separation be applied based on speed?

A

Provided that the preceding a/c has filed a true airspeed of 20kt or faster than the following a/c

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74
Q

When may 5 minute departure separation be applied based on reporting points?

A

Provided that the 5 minutes separation is maintained up to a
reporting point, within or adjacent to a control zone or terminal
control area and the aircraft will subsequently be separated either:
(1) vertically;
(2) by tracks which diverge by 30° or more; or
(3) by ATS Surveillance.

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75
Q

What departure separation interval should be used if no reduction is possible?

A

10 minutes

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76
Q

When may standard separation be reduced in the vicinity of an aerodrome?

A

In the vicinity of aerodromes, the standard separation minima may be reduced if:

-Adequate separation can be provided by the aerodrome controller when each aircraft is continuously visible to this controller.

-Each aircraft is continuously visible to the pilots of other aircraft concerned and the pilots report that they can maintain their own separation.

-When one aircraft is following another, the pilot of the succeeding aircraft reports that he has the other aircraft in sight and can maintain own separation.

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77
Q

What should be passed as essential traffic information?

A

(1) Direction of flight of conflicting aircraft;

(2) Type of conflicting aircraft;

(3) Cruising level of conflicting aircraft and ETA for the reporting point, or for
aircraft passing through the level of another with less than the normal
separation; the ETA for the reporting point nearest to where the aircraft will
cross levels; and

(4) Any alternative clearance

Usually only used when an ATS surveillance system is not available.

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78
Q

What is TCAS?

A

Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System

TCAS will react to the presence of other aircraft transponders and determine if a risk of collision is present.

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79
Q

At what time before an assumed collision will a TCAS TA (Traffic Advisory) be issued?

A

45 Seconds before assumed collision.

Pilots advised not to take immediate action but to instead ask for traffic information.

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80
Q

At what time before an assumed collision will a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory) be issued?

A

30 seconds before assumed collision.

Pilots are advised to respond immediately to TCAS instructions, advise ATC and resume original flight path as soon as safe to do so.

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81
Q

If no alternative clearance has been given by Thames radar, how should Southend present traffic on a LYD or DVR PDR?

A

On a heading through the EKNIV gate, climbing to 3000ft.

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82
Q

What is the full CLN PDR routing?

A

CLN

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83
Q

What is the full DVR PDR routing?

A

DET - DVR

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84
Q

What is the full LYD PDR routing?

A

DET - LYD

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85
Q

What is the full CPT PDR routing?

A

EVNAS - LAM - BPK - HEN - CPT

86
Q

What is the full BPK PDR routing?

A

EVNAS - LAM - BPK

87
Q

For departing VFR aircraft, what can be considered a standard departure on RWY 23?

A

Direct track departure, routing no further East than South Woodham Ferrers and no further East than Sheerness.

Not above 1500ft

88
Q

For departing VFR aircraft, what can be considered a standard departure on RWY 05?

A

Direct track departure, routing no further West than South Woodham Ferrers and no further West than Sheerness.

Not above 1500ft

89
Q

What is required from APC to depart a SVFR aircraft?

A

A departure clearance and a release

90
Q

How does ADC handle transiting aircraft?

A

ADC can choose to work a transit if they wish.

If ADC do not wish to work a transit, they may issue a level restriction and pass any pertinent traffic information.

91
Q

What are the tolerances on a CTOT?

A
  • 5 minutes, + 10 minutes
92
Q

What action should be taken if an aircraft misses it’s slot?

A

Delay the flight plan and await a new slot

In some cases ADC may call CFMU and request a slot extension.

93
Q

What is a SAM?

A

Slot allocation message

94
Q

What is a SLC?

A

Slot cancellation message

95
Q

What is a SRM?

A

Slot revision message

96
Q

What is a SIP?

A

Slot improvement message

97
Q

What is a FLS?

A

Flight plan suspended message

98
Q

What is a DES?

A

Flight plan de-suspended message

99
Q

What coordination is required for VFR departures?

A

Standard - None, a prenote will suffice

Non-standard - A clearance must be sought

100
Q

What coordination is required for IFR (SVFR) departures?

A

PDR -

Pass a start time, PDR designator and Squawk
Request a release

Non-PDR/ SVFR -

Pass a start time and request a clearance.
Request a release

101
Q

What should aerodrome control coordinate with APC in relation to arriving aircraft?

A

Aircraft which have made their first call on the TWR frequency

102
Q

What will APC coordinate with ADC when joining a VFR aircraft?

A

Current position
Squawk
Joining Instructions

103
Q

What will APC coordinate with ADC when joining an IFR aircraft?

A

Range Checks
Landing Order
Squawk (If not received from the estimate)
(Missed approach instructions)

104
Q

What will APC coordinate with ADC when joining a SVFR aircraft?

A

Range Checks
Potential for RSIVA

105
Q

Can a VFR transit of the ATZ take place if the aerodrome is in SVFR?

A

No, the VFR transit must remain clear of the ATZ unless they are able to accept a SVFR clearance. RSIVA should then be used as appropriate

106
Q

Up t what distance from the end of the runway can a primary contact be identified on departure?

A

1NM

107
Q

How does TWR validate and verify a departure?

A

Check the Squawk and callsign are correct on the ATM - Tick both.

Request a passing altitude report from the pilot. If +/- 200ft strike through the squawk tick.

Validate = Mode A
Verify = Mode C

108
Q

Who should be informed if there is reported to be any unserviceability with essential equipment (ILS, DME, NDB)?

A

ATE, APC, Pilots

109
Q

What is it worth considering when there is grass cutting in progress?

A

If the grass cutter is near to the localiser antennae, there may be fluctuations. It is worth passing this onto pilots.

110
Q

What types of instrument approach procedures are available?

A

ILS RWY 23/05 (Vectored / Procedural)
Hold
RLLZ DME / LLZ DME 23/05
SRA 23/05

111
Q

When in LVOs, what is considered to be an essential vehicle?

A

AFS/OPS vehicles
ATE/AGL
LSA Tugs
LSA Bowsers

112
Q

What are the trigger points for Visibility Condition 2?

A

Met visibility < 2000m
OR
IRVR 1500m or less
OR
Cloud Ceiling < 300ft

113
Q

What are the trigger points for Visibility Condition 3?

A

RVR < 600m
OR
Cloud Ceiling < 200ft

114
Q

What are the trigger points for Visibility Condition 4?

A

RVR < 400m

115
Q

What are the ATC actions when in VIS CON 2?

(10)

A
  • Notify AFS + Request safeguarding
  • Cancel Free ranging
  • Turn on the Standby Generator (AGL panel)
  • Withdraw non-essential activities
  • Remove all traffic from the ILS sensitive areas
  • Select CAT 1 AGL
  • Helicopters use Taxiways and Runways
    -Inform AFS when TWY D barrier needs moving
    -Select stop-bars for intermediate holding points
  • “All stations, Southend broadcast, airport safeguarded”
116
Q

What are the AFS actions when in VIS CON 2?

(8)

A
  • Inform other departments
  • Block TWY D
  • Block TWY E
  • Block TWY F
  • Display airport safeguarded sign at APN
  • Block Charlie vehicle roadway
  • Make staff available for inspections/Follow me duties
  • Advise ATC when the above is completed
117
Q

What are the VIS CON 2 restrictions?

(5)

A
  • Approvals for individual works must be done in consultation with the SCOD (Eng. Runs/Compass Swing)
  • Aircraft are to make regular position reports
  • If the TWY D / F barriers are not yet in place, ATC will not approve any arrivals or departures
  • Vehicles that use TWY E must report when they have replaced the TWY D / E barriers
  • Only use CX if the controller has continuous sight of TWY C
118
Q

What are the ATC actions in VIS CON 3?

(4)

A
  • Notify AFS and request local standby for each aircraft
  • Remove all non essential vehicles and personnel from the manoeuvring area
    -Inspection of the manoeuvring area completed within 15 minutes of aircraft ETA/ETD
  • No engine running on TWY Foxtrot
119
Q

What are the restrictions of VIS CON 3?

A
  • ILS critical areas to be protected prior to an aircraft reaching a 6NM final - If not by a 4NM final, Arriving aircraft must go around
  • All runway stop bars selected prior to issuing landing or takeoff clearance
  • Only one aircraft between each set of stop bars (if not visual)
  • Only one aircraft to remote hold on TWY B. If the aerodrome enters Vis Con 4, a follow me is required on TWY B
  • When approving a pushback from stand 10, traffic info should be passed on aircraft holding at C3
120
Q

What are the ATC Actions of VIS CON 4?

A
  • Only 1 aircraft between C3 and A1
  • Do not use TWY B or Z without a follow me
  • Pilots to the N/APR should wait with their aircraft until transport arrives.
121
Q

What are the TWY D procedures during LVOs for Departures?

A

-Advise the pilots of the presence of the barriers at D
- When ready for departure the barriers may be removed
- If they pilot can see the runway lights, they may line up without a follow me
- Barriers must be replaced before the aircraft departs

122
Q

What are the TWY D procedures during LVOs for Arrivals?

A
  • Follow me vehicle removes the barriers and positions vehicle at runway edge
  • Follow me vehicle guides the aircraft to beyond Holding point D
123
Q

When may aerodrome safeguarding be cancelled?

A

Taking into account the forecast -

Met visibility is 2000m or above and the cloud ceiling is 300ft or above

124
Q

What are the actions when cancelling safeguarding?

A
  • Inform AFS
  • Make a general broadcast
  • Remove ATIS message
125
Q

When shall RVR be reported on the ATIS?

A

When the system is activated (i.e. below 2000m)

126
Q

What are the two methods of RVR reporting?

A

IRVR - Instrumented RVR
HoRVR - Human observer method

127
Q

What RVR reading shall be transmitted on a METAR?

A

The 10 minute average for the TDZ of the runway in use.

128
Q

What RVR reading shall be passed to pilots?

A

The 1 minute average for for the touch down zone and the stop end

129
Q

When is the IRVR unserviceable for a particular runway?

A

When the TDZ IRVR has failed.

On RWY 05, HoRVR can be arranged.

130
Q

What software do AFS use to determine HoRVR?

A

Airstar

131
Q

What is the meaning of MSA?

A

Minimum Sector Altitude

The Lowest altitude which may be used to provide a minimum of 1000ft above all objects in a 25nm radius

132
Q

What is the southend MSA(s)?

A

NW / NE / SE - 1800ft
SW - 2300ft

133
Q

When should noise abatement not be the deciding factor when determining the RWY in use?

A

When the crosswind component is greater that 15kts or the tailwind component is greater than 5kts

134
Q

During which conditions should controllers be alert to the presence of windshear?

A

Frontal/Squall/TS
Low level inversions
Around local terrain or buildings

135
Q

What should a report to a pilot of windshear contain?

A
  1. A warning of the presence of windshear
  2. The height at which the windshear was encountered
  3. The time at which it was encountered
  4. Speed loss/gain, Vertical speed, change in drift
136
Q

What is the radio fail procedure on the aerodrome?

A

Hold at the runway holding point and contact ATC by mobile phone. If unable, await a follow me vehicle.

137
Q

What is the radio fail procedure in the Circuit?

A

A7600
Continue to fly the circuit and await a green signal from ATC

138
Q

What is the radio fail procedure if joining the circuit and CAS entry has been approved?

A

A7600
Continue as cleared and follow the procedure as if they were in the circuit.

139
Q

How can a club aircarft join the CTR if they have a radio failure?

A

A7600
Not above 1500ft
Beginning of the downwind leg for the runway in use
Follow in circuit procedure

140
Q

Steady Green Aldis signal

A

Cleared for take-off / Cleared to land

141
Q

Flashing green Aldis signal

A

Cleared for taxi / Return for landing

142
Q

Steady red Aldis signal

A

Stop

143
Q

Flashing red Aldis signal

A

Taxi clear of runway / Airport unsafe, do not land

144
Q

Flashing white Aldis signal

A

Return to starting point

145
Q

How can non radio aircraft be pre-booked?

A

Southend is PPR to non-radio a/c.
Will only be accepted into CAS if an LoA exists with a/c operator. All requests will be referred to SCOD to consider time of movement, prevailing and forecast weather and anticipated traffic situation before permission. Squawk code issued and controllers shall provide traffic information to a/c in the vicinity of the flight.
All requests without LoA shall be referred to HoATS or SCOD.

146
Q

When may the standby generator be switched off during LVOs?

A

2230-0600, Provided that:

It is switched back on 30 minutes prior to arrivals and 15 minutes after departures.

147
Q

How long will the UPS last?

A

30 minutes

148
Q

How long will the Standby generator last?

How long does it take to power up?

A

48 hours

13 seconds
1 second when set to LVPs on in ACR

149
Q

For which danger areas is Southend the DAAIS

A

Shoeburyness complex

D136, D138A, D138B, D138C, D138D

The range authority is QinetiQ

150
Q

What is a TMZ?

A

A Transponder mandatory zone

Airspace of defined dimensions where carriage of a transponder is mandatory.

151
Q

What are the dimensions of the Runway restricted area?

A

105m either side of the runway centreline

Reducing to 75m near the end of each runway

152
Q

At what range on approach should controllers aim to have the ILS critical area clear of obstruction?

A

4NM final

153
Q

What is the DOC of the APP/DIR/RAD frequencies?

A

40NM
10,000ft

154
Q

What is the DOC of the TWR frequency?

A

25NM
4000ft

155
Q

What is the DOC of the ATIS frequency?

A

60NM
20,000ft

156
Q

How will an ATCO find out about cranes?

A

On the daily brief, an OPNOT will be produced

There may be IFR limitations to cranes, but at other times it may just be essential aerodrome information.

157
Q

Per Mats pt. 1, When is a runway surface inspection required?

A
  • First light
  • Prior to night flying
  • At cessation of work on manoeuvring area.
  • When runway not previously inspected brought into use.
  • Following a/c accident.
  • Following abandoned take off by turbine engine a/c due to engine malfunction, or nay a/c due burst tyre.
  • During snow and ice conditions.
  • When considered necessary by ATC, the Ao or detailed in local instructions.
158
Q

When should a lighting inspection be carried out?

A

Prior to night flying

As required by aerodrome maintenance

159
Q

What are ATC actions when a significant presence of birds is observed?

A

Issue a warning to aircraft and request their intentions
Request wildlife control from AFS
Hold departures

Issue a NOTAM for persistent bird activity

160
Q

What should ATC action be if a wildlife strike is reported?

A
  • Inform the pilot if it’s an ATC observation
  • Suspend all runway operations
  • Request immediate inspection
  • Record all information on for SAF-S-AOPS-007
  • Submit form to wildlife email list
  • Complete an MOR if appropriate
161
Q

What is the published AFS category?

A

CAT A7

162
Q

In an emergency, what would constitute a small aircraft?

A

RFFS CAT 4 and below:

Falcon 900
Challenger 300/600
ATR 42

163
Q

In an emergency, what would constitute a large aircraft?

A

RFFS CAT 5 and above:

ATR72
Airbus
Boeing
Embraer 170-195

164
Q

What should be contained within the initial exchange to RFFS during an emergency?

A
  • Category of emergency
  • Aircraft type
  • Large / Small
  • Nature of incident
  • ETA
  • Clearance to proceed
  • Registration / Callsign
  • Persons on board
165
Q

What is the response to an aircraft accident occurring on the aerodrome?

A
  • Alert AFS
  • Call 999
  • Inform Control Centre
  • Inform HoATS
  • Inform AAIB
  • Inform LACC Watch Sup
  • Send SPECI
  • Record stand down time
  • Send ACCID
166
Q

What is the Distress call?

A

MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY

167
Q

What is the Urgency call?

A

PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN

168
Q

What should be passed from the pilot to ATC in a distress or urgency call?

A
  • PAN / MAYDAY
  • Name of Station
  • Nature of emergency
  • Intentions
  • Qualifications
  • Other info
169
Q

When may the AFS attend a domestic incident?

A
  • When the incident is liable to constitute a danger to flying or airport property.
  • If they have an agreement with the local authority
  • Response on humanitarian grounds
170
Q

What is the AFS radius of action?

A

1000m underneath the end of each runway.

171
Q

What should ATC actions be initially for an off aerodrome accident?

A

If close, a full response (as with on aerodrome accident)

If further away, Alert D+D and in turn JRCC. Also the ACC Watch Sup

172
Q

What is the DOC of the D+D Cell?

A

2000ft and above within 40NM of Heathrow

3000ft elsewhere up to Manchester and east of Wales

173
Q

Where are the closest NPAS Units?

A

EGSX - UKP??
EGKR - UKP037

174
Q

Where are the closest HEMS units based?

A

EGSX - HLE55
EGSR - HLE07

175
Q

Where the closest SAR unit based?

A

EGMD - SRD/SRG163

176
Q

What must be done with a diversion (AMHS)?

A

Send a DIV ARR message to the filed destination aerodrome.

Write this in the log book.

177
Q

What is the overdue procedure for non-radio aircraft?

A

Non-radio a/c preliminary action – commenced not later than 30 mins after ETA.
- Check FPL for obvious errors.
- Consult operating company.
- Confirm ATD with departure aerodrome.
- Inform ACC Sup and check alternate aerodromes, send RQS message and check likely aerodrome on and adjacent to proposed route.
Non-radio a/c full overdue action – commenced not later than 1 hour after ETA.
- Notify parent ACC that a/c now fully overdue.
- Continue endeavours to trace a/c.

178
Q

What is the overdue procedure for non-radio aircraft?

A

Radio equipped a/c preliminary action - If a/c fails to make a position report when expected, commenced not later than estimated time plus 30 minutes.
- Advise ACC sup a/c is overdue.
- Confirm ATD from departure aerodrome.
- Ensure RQS message sent.
Radio equipped a/c full overdue action – If, after action above, no news is received or 1 hour has elapsed since a scheduled position report, or fuel is considered to be exhausted, whichever sooner, the controller shall inform ACC sup that a/c is fully overdue.

179
Q

What action should be taken in the event that an aircraft fails to land within 5 minutes of estimated time?

A
  • Alert radar.
  • Request a/c flying in vicinity to be on lookout.
  • Exercise caution when authorising movement of aerodrome traffic.
  • Alert emergency services.
  • Check other aerodromes in the vicinity.
  • Send RQS message.
  • Advise ACC SUP.
180
Q

What must happen if an aircraft has departed Southend after taking on fuel and has been involved in an incident?

A

Inform the fuel department so that an investigation can take place and the fuel can be checked.

181
Q

Where should unserviceability’s be reported?

A

TELS directly and also on Eforsair

182
Q

What should be contained within an airprox report?

A
  1. Airprox Report
  2. Position
  3. Time
  4. Altitude
  5. Heading
  6. Details of the incident (sighting and miss distance)
  7. Weather conditions
183
Q

How should an unauthorised crane be dealt with?

A
  1. Assess the rough location of the crane
  2. Contact Sam Petrie
  3. Dispatch security to the location
  4. Cancel IFR training until the crane is lowered
184
Q

What action should be taken if a drone is sighted by ADC inside the FRZ/RPZ?

A
  • Pass essential information to aircraft on frequency and request intentions. Add to the ATIS.
  • Stop further movements if drone is directly affecting airfield - inside boundary / on final APP or climb out).
  • Inform radar.
  • Inform Police (999) – record incident number.
  • Inform Airport Authority and Head of Security (via Control Room)
  • Inform SCOD and HoATS
  • Inform TC Group Supervisor
185
Q

What action should be taken if a drone is reported inside the FRZ/RPZ but not sighted by ADC?

A
  • Pass essential aerodrome information. If report of drone is from a pilot, pass in a similar format to windshear phraseology:
    “(callsign) at time …… the pilot of a landing / departing ….. reported drone at height / position” etc.
  • Inform SCOD and HoATS.
  • Inform radar of report.
  • Inform Airport Authority and Head of Security (via Control Room).
186
Q

What action should be taken if a drone is reported inside CAS but outside of the FRZ/RPZ?

A
  • Where possible avoid the area when vectoring aircraft for 30 minutes after any report.
  • Pass traffic information to traffic and transiting traffic.
  • Inform adjacent TC sectors when sighting is within 1000ft of the base of their airspace.
  • Inform TC Group Supervisor – confirm who will be reporting to the police (record incident number).
  • Inform Airport Authority and Head of Security (via Control Room).
  • Inform SCOD and HoATS.
187
Q

Anti collision light failure by day?

A

Continue to fly provided that the light is fixed at the earliest opportunity.

188
Q

Anti collision light failure at night on the ground and in the air?

A

Ground: Do not fly

Air: Land as soon as possible

189
Q

Anti Collision light failure wholly contained inside Class A-D?

A

May continue to operate subject to approval from the ATS unit

190
Q

Who is exempt from the low flying rule?

A
  • All a/c landing, taking off or air taxiing.
  • A/c checking navaids or conducting procedures.
  • Training a/c or helicopters.
  • A/c flying in a display or air race if within 1000m.
  • Gliders when hill soaring.
  • A/c picking up or dropping tow ropes, banners or similar at an aerodrome.
  • Helicopters provided not operating closer than 60m to persons, vessels, vehicles, or structures located outside an aerodrome.
  • Police
191
Q

General responsibilities of the aerodrome controller?

A

Issue information and instructions to aircraft and vehicles in order to achieve a safe, orderly and expeditious flow of air traffic, with the objective of:

Preventing collisions between:
- Aircraft flying in and in the vicinity of the ATZ
-Aircraft taking off and landing
-Aircraft and vehicles, Obstructions and other aircraft on the manoeuvring area

Assist in preventing collisions on the apron.

192
Q

Specific responsibilities of the aerodrome controller?

A
  • Notify emergency services as per local instructions
  • Inform aircraft under you control when there has been a depletion of the RFFS
  • Providing an approach control service when carrying out functions delegated by approach control
  • Supplying to APC:
    1. Pertinent data on IFR, SVFR, VFR departures, missed approaches and overdue aircraft
    2. Appropriate items of essential aerodrome information.
  • Informing the aerodrome operator when it becomes apparent that there has been a deterioration in the state of the aerodrome or its associated facilities for which the aerodrome operator is responsible.
    -Initiating overdue action at units where no Approach control unit is established.
193
Q

What is ATIS?

A

Automatic Terminal Information Service

194
Q

What are the approved uses of the ATM?

A
  • Determine the landing order, spacing and distance from touchdown of arriving aircraft.
  • Assist in applying longitudinal separation for departing aircraft.
  • Enable the controller to confirm that the initial track of a departing aircraft conforms with the clearance issued.
  • Provide information to aircraft on the position of other aircraft in the circuit or carrying out an instrument approach.

Additionally, Southend has approval to validate and verify.

195
Q

What is the ILS frequency?

A

111.350MHz

196
Q

What is the NDB frequency and DOC?

A

362.5 - 30NM range

197
Q

What procedure should be followed if both of the recorders fail?

A

Initiate a controlled shutdown, and keep a written transcript of any movements that take place prior to the shutdown

198
Q

Which frequencies have Main and Standby Rx and Tx?

A

All Frequencies selectable on the IPOS

199
Q

Which frequency does not have an emergency Rx or Tx?

A

ATIS - 136.055

200
Q

What is the ISD?

A

Integrated status display.

This display will alert the controller to any failures to the transmitters, receivers and recorders as well as the UPS.

201
Q

What are the published hours of ATC?

A

H24 or as per NOTAM

202
Q

What are the published FBO hours?

A

H24

203
Q

How many diversions can Southend accept without consultation with airport operations?

A

One aircraft up to A320 size

204
Q

CAT A flight priority?

A
  • Emergency
  • Police Emergency
  • Ambulance/Medical/SAR when safety of life is involved
205
Q

CAT B flight priority?

A
  • SAR or other humanitarian flights
  • Normal ops Police
  • Other authorised flights, including Open Skies
206
Q

CAT C flight priority?

A
  • Royal Flights
  • Visiting Heads of State
207
Q

CAT D flight priority?

A
  • Prime Minister
  • Chancellor
    -Home Secretary
  • Foreign Secretary
  • Notified foreign Heads of Government
208
Q

CAT E flight priority?

A
  • HEMS/SAR positioning flights
  • Time critical calibration flights
  • Other flights authorised my the CAA
209
Q

What flight priority to Exam flights take?

A

Normal

210
Q

CAT Z flight priority?

A
  • Training, non-standard and other flights
211
Q
A

EGMC (5 decks)

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