Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clin Path > Leukocytes > Flashcards

Leukocytes Flashcards

1
Q

What are common things about all WBCs?

A
  • all white
  • all nucleated
  • common function:defense
  • all made in bone marrow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How many times a day are Neutrophils being replaced?

A

2.5X day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does the number of WBCs in the peripheral blood circulation reflect?

A

conditions in the tissue and bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the normal WBC range for canine?

A

6,000-7,000/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the normal WBC range for feline?

A

5,500-19,500/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is important in defining disease states?

A
  • evaluation of WBC numbers

- morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are 3 ways to classify WBCs?

A
  • type of defense function
  • shape of nucleus
  • presence or absence of staining granules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the 2 types of defense functions?

A
  • phagocytosis

- immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What WBCs are responsible for phagocytosis?

A
  • neutrophil
  • monocyte/macrophage
  • eosinophil
  • basophil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What WBC is responsible for immunity?

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What 2 types of Lymphocytes are responsible for immunity?

A
  • B-Cell

- TCell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the functions of a B-Cell?

A
  • provide immunity
  • humoral immunity
  • plasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the functions of a T-Cell?

A
  • cytokines
  • cell mediated immunity
  • tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the shapes of WBC nuclei?

A
  • polymorphic
  • mononuclear
  • pleomorphic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the characteristics of a Polymorphic nucleus?

A
  • multi lobed

- segmented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What WBCs have a polymorphic nucleus?

A
  • neutrophil
  • basophil
  • eosinophil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are characteristics of a mononucleated WBC?

A

oval or round

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What WBC has a mononuclear nucleus?

A

lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are characteristics of a Pleomorphic nucleated WBC?

A
  • kidney shaped

- horseshoe shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What WBC has a pleomorphic nucleus?

A

monocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which WBCs are Agranulocytes?

A
  • lymphocytes

- monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which WBCs are Granulocytes?

A
  • neutrophil
  • basophil
  • eosinophil
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What color do Eosinophils stain?

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What color do Basophil’s stain?

A

blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What stains are considered Romanoski Stains?

A
  • Wright’s Stain
  • Modified Wright’s
  • Geimsa
  • Wright’s-Geimsa
  • Leishman’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What type of stain is Diff-Quik?

A

Wright’s Stain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the 3 solutions in a stain?

A
  • alcohol fixative
  • acidic red stain
  • basic blue stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What WBC does an Acidic Red Stain stain?

A

eosinophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What WBC does a Basic Blue Stain stain?

A

basophil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 3 solutions in Diff Quik?

A
  • methylalcohol
  • eosin red
  • methylene blue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Color and Function of Methylalcohol

A
  • light blue

- fixative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Color and Function of Eosin Red

A
  • pink
  • stains
  • acidic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Color and Function of Methylene Blue

A
  • purple/dark blue
  • counterstain
  • alkaline
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Leukopoiesis?

A

production of all WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are Cytokines?

A

WBC stimuli for production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the 3 Cytokines?

A
  • interleukins
  • colony stimulating factors
  • interferons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the maturation process of Granulopoiesis?

A
  • PPSC
  • myeloid stem cells
  • myeloblasts
  • promyelocytes
  • myelocytes
  • metamyelocytes
  • band granulocyte
  • segmented granulocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Nucleus of Granulocyte

A

transforms from a large round structure with loose chromatin patter into a segmented multi-lobed structure with more dense chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are Chromatin Strands?

A

thin filaments that connect lobes in nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens as a cell becomes sensecent?

A

segments break apart and become pykontic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Pyknosis?

A

sign of a dying cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How many lobes does a typical Granulocyte have?

A

2-3 lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is a hypersegmented granulocyte?

A

has more tha 5 lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

When should hypersegmented granulocytes be visible in the tissue?

A
  • seen as artifact when blood is helod longer than 24 hours prior to making a smear
  • steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What color is a cytoplasm of a granulocyte initially?

A

intense dark blue due to lots of metabolic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What color cytoplasm does a mature granulocyte have?

A

clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the average size of a mature neutrophil?

A

10-12 microns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What produces the granules in the granulocyte?

A

gogli apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are 2 sets of granules found in granulocytes?

A
  • primary

- secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are primary granules?

A
  • “non specific”
  • contain no chemicals
  • stain intense red
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are secondary granules?

A
  • “specific”
  • contain chemicals
  • found in myelocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What granulocytes are found in leukemia?

A
  • myeloblasts
  • promyeloblasts
  • myelocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How long does it take fo make a mature Neutrophil?

A

3-6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a toxi neutrophil?

A

represents a decrease in the maturation time in the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

How long do neutrophils circulate in the blood?

A

5-10 days then enter tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the primary function of a neutrophil?

A

phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What do neutrophils phagocytize?

A

bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the granules located in the neutrophil called?

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What do the lysosomes in neutrophils contain?

A

lysosomal enzymes with antibacterial properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What locations have the highest number of neutrophils?

A

GI tract

respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is Diapedesis?

A

process by which WBCs leave blood vessels and enter tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What WBC does not have a pseudopod?

A

lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the 2 “phrases that pay”?

A
  • steroids inhibit diapedesis

- steroids lyse lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the 5 steps of Phagocytosis (neutrophi)?

A
  • attraction
  • attachment/adherence
  • ingestion
  • fusion
  • digestion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is Chemotaxis?

A

movement of WBCs into an area of inflammation in response to chemical mediators released at the site by injured tissue or other WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is Opsonins?

A
  • “sauces”

- plasma proteins that coat microorganisms to attract phagocytes, enabling recognition of foreign substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the 2 functions of Opsoninization?

A
  • makes foreign invaders positively charged to attract neutrophils
  • coats encapsulated microorganisms to reveal them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Step 3: Ingestion

A
  • cell surrounds microorganisms with its pseudopod

- phagosome is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Step 4: Fusion

A

lysosomes line up along edge of phagosome, fuse with the membrane, then secrete contents into psuedovacuole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Step 5: Digestion

A
  • neutrophil rapidly absorbs oxygen and reduces it to super-oxide
  • super-oxide reacts with hydrogen ions in tissue fluid to form hydrogen peroxide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is Myeloperoxidase?

A

lysosomal enzyme produces hypochlorite (bleach) from chloride in tissue fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the normal neutrophil range for canine?

A

3,000-11,400/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the normal neutrophil range for feline?

A

2,500-12,500/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is the normal total WBC range for canine?

A

6,000-17,000/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is the normal total WBC range for feline?

A

5,500-19,500/microliter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is an increase in neutrophils?

A

neutrophilia=leukocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is a decrease in neutrophils?

A

neutropenia=leukopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the predominant WBC in cattle, sheep and goats?

A

lymphocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is the predominant WBC in pigs and horses?

A

lymphocytes and neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the 3 factors that control the number of neutrophils in the blood?

A
  • rate of release of mature neutrophils from storage pool in bone marrow into circulation
  • rate of escape from blood into tissues
  • rate of maturation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What does the rate of escape from blood into tissues depend on (neutrophil)?

A

demand in tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the 2 type of neutrophil pools?

A
  • blood pools

- bone marrow pools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are the 2 types of blood pools?

A
  • circulating neutrophil pool

- marginal neutrohil pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the circulating neutrophil pool?

A
  • neutrohils circulating through blood vessel
  • where blood is sampled
  • normal ranges come from here
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is the marginal neutrophil pool?

A
  • loosly lining inside of small blood vessels in abdominal vessels
  • spleen and lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

True or False: neutrophils can move freely between CNP and MNP

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What can cause De-margination?

A
  • fear
  • excitement
  • pain
  • epinephrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the ratio of CNP:MNP in canine?

A

50:50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the ration of CNP:MNP in a feline?

A

30:70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What are the 2 bone marrow pools?

A
  • storage pool

- mitotic pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the storage pool?

A

consists of neutrophils that aren’t dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What WBCs are in the storage pool?

A
  • segs
  • bands
  • metamyelocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the mitotic pool?

A
  • dividing pool

- “proliferative pool”

94
Q

What WBCs are in the mitotic pool?

A
  • myelocytes
  • promyelocytes
  • myeloblasts
95
Q

What is the normal band neutrophil range?

A

0-300/microliter

96
Q

What is a “left shift”?

A

greater than 300/microliter (bands)

97
Q

What is a regenerative left shift?

A

segmented neutrophils outnumber band neutrophils

98
Q

What is a degenerative left shift?

A
  • bands outnumber segmented neutrophils

- implies granulopoiesis can’t keep up with demand

99
Q

What is a “right shift”?

A
  • increase in hypersegmented neutrophils

- caused by steroids, or blood being held for 24hrs prior to making smear (artifact)

100
Q

What is Neutropenia?

A
  • absolute decrease in neutrophils

- leads to leukopenia

101
Q

What are the 3 causes of Neutropenia?

A
  • reduced or ineffective granulopoiesis
  • increased demand in tissue
  • margination
102
Q

What are the causes for reduced/ineffective granulopoiesis?

A
  • myelopathies
  • radiation
  • drugs/toxins
  • canine parvovirus,ehrlichia
  • feline panleukopenia, FIV, FeLv
103
Q

What are the causes of increased demand in tissue?

A
  • overwhelming infection (septicemia, bacteremia)

- acute inflammation

104
Q

What are the causes of margination?

A

endotoxemia

105
Q

What is Margination?

A

neutrophils from CNP move into MNP and line the vessel wall

106
Q

What is the “panic range” of Neutropenia?

A

<1,000/microliter

107
Q

What is “Cyclic Neutropenia”?

A

neutrophils decrease substantially for idopathic reasons on regular basis

108
Q

True or False: Neutropenia has a poor prognosis

A

True

109
Q

What is Neutrophilia?

A

absolute increase in neutrophils that leads to leukocytosis

110
Q

What are the causes of Neutrophilia?

A
  • chronic or acute inflammation
  • infection
  • leukemia
  • physiological response
  • stress response
111
Q

What is the range for extreme neutrophilia?

A

> 5,000/microliter

112
Q

What are the causes of extreme neutrophilia?

A
  • pancreatitis
  • pyometra
  • prostatisis
  • periodontitis
113
Q

What are the 2 types of Pyometra?

A
  • open

- closed

114
Q

What is Open Pyometra?

A
  • patient has green/white smelly discharge from uterus

- fixed by IV antibiotics

115
Q

What is Closed Pyometra?

A
  • progression of open pyometra
  • cervix closes off
  • requires historectomy
116
Q

What is Prostatitis?

A

inflammation of prostate gland

117
Q

What is the range for leukemoid response?

A

> 100,000/microliter

118
Q

What are the 3 types of leukograms?

A
  • physiologic
  • stress
  • inflammatory
119
Q

What is the cause of a physiologcal response?

A

ephinephrin release

120
Q

What are clinical signs of physiological response?

A
  • increased bp
  • increased hr
  • increased pulse
  • vasoconstriction
  • muscle contraction
121
Q

What species do physiological responses mostly affect?

A
  • cats

- young animals

122
Q

Physiologcal Leukogram: Total WBC count

A

increased because increase in neutrophils

123
Q

PL: Neutrophils

A
  • increased (demargination)

- no bands

124
Q

PL: lymphocytes

A

increased because of splenic contractions

125
Q

PL:eosinophils

A

decreased

126
Q

PL:monocytes

A

stays same

127
Q

PL: basophils

A

stays same

128
Q

How long does it take for a physiological response to take place and resolve?

A
  • instantly

- 30 minutes

129
Q

What is the cause of a stress response?

A
  • steroids

- either endogenous (produced by body), or exogenous (administered)

130
Q

What species do stress responses effect?

A

dogs

131
Q

SL: Total WBC count

A

increase

132
Q

SL: neutrophils

A

increases (steroids inhibit diapedesis)

133
Q

SL: lymphocytes

A

decrease (steroids lyse lymphocytes)

134
Q

SL: eosinophils

A

decrease

135
Q

SL: monocytes

A

increases (follow neutrophils, has time to follow)

136
Q

SL: basophils

A

stays same

137
Q

How long does it take for a stress response to take place and resolve?

A
  • days to show

- days to over a week to resolve

138
Q

What is the casue of Inflammatory Response?

A
  • inflammation
  • either acute or chronic
  • infectious or non infectious
139
Q

What species does inflammatory response affect?

A

any

140
Q

IL: total WBC count

A

increase then decrease

141
Q

IL:neutrophils

A

increase then decrease

142
Q

IL: lymphocytes

A

usually increase

143
Q

IL:eosinophils

A
  • increased (parasitic infections and allergies)

- same (other)

144
Q

IL: monocytes

A

increased (chronic)

145
Q

IL: basophils

A

same or increased (hypersensitivity reactions)

146
Q

What is the normal time for inflammatory response to show and resolve?

A
  • acute:fast

- chronic:slow

147
Q

What are the 2 toxic changes in neutrophils?

A
  • toxic neutrophil

- giant neutrophil

148
Q

What are causes of a toxic neutrophil?

A
  • inflammation
  • infection
  • drugs/toxins
149
Q

What species are toxic neutrophils most significant in?

A

dogs

150
Q

What are 4 critera of toxic neutrophils?

A
  • dohle bodies
  • diffuse cytoplasmic basophilia
  • cytoplasmic vacuolization
  • toxic granulation
151
Q

What are Dohle Bodies?

A
  • light blue inclusions that occur near periphery of cytoplasm
  • retained rough endoplasmic reticulum
152
Q

What is the normal size of a Dohle Body?

A

1-2 microns

153
Q

What is cytoplasmic vacuolization?

A
  • disruption in membrane formation

- “foamy appearance”

154
Q

What is toxic granulation?

A
  • disruption of cytoplasmic granules in precursor cells

- granules are azurophilic

155
Q

What is a giant neutrophil?

A
  • results from decreased maturation time in bone marrow

- dysgranulopoiesis

156
Q

What is Dysgranulopoiesis?

A

mitotic division step is skipped by a precursor cell

157
Q

Where are giant neutrophils seen?

A

cats with FeLv/FIV

158
Q

What WBC do giant neutrophils get mistaken for?

A

monocytes

159
Q

What are the 4 other morphological changes in neutrophils?

A
  • pelger-huet anomaly
  • canine distemper viral inclusions
  • pathogenic microorganisms
  • barr bodies
160
Q

What are Pelger-Huet Anomalies?

A
  • congenital defect
  • hyposegmentation of all granulocyte nuclei
  • chromatin is very dense, yet nucleus is unsegmented
161
Q

What is Pseudo Pelger-Huet Anomaly?

A
  • not congenital
  • results from idosyncratic drug reaction or normal variation of inflammatory response
  • only some neutrophils are affected
162
Q

What are canine distemper viral inclusions?

A
  • variable in size, shape, color and number
  • not diagnostic
  • rare
163
Q

What are pathogenic microorganisms?

A

bacteria

164
Q

What are examples of pathogenic microorganisms?

A
  • hepatazoon canis
  • cytauxzoon felis
  • histoplasma spp
  • ehrlichia ewingii
165
Q

What are Barr Bodies?

A
  • “drumstick appendages”
  • “sex lobes”
  • rare
  • affects 2nd inactive X chromosome
166
Q

Where are Barr Bodies seen?

A
  • only in healthy females

- male calico cats

167
Q

What is the normal range for eosinophils in canines?

A

100-750/microliter

168
Q

What is the normal range for Eosinophils in feline?

A

0-750/microliter

169
Q

How long does it take for eosinophils to reproduce?

A

2-6 days

170
Q

What is the blood transit time for eosionphils?

A

0.5-18hrs

171
Q

What cytokine regulates eosinophil?

A
  • interleukin 5

- produced by t cells

172
Q

What is the tissue life span of eosinophil?

A

1 week

173
Q

Where is the highest concentration of Eosinophils located?

A
  • GI tract
  • respiratory tract
  • skin
174
Q

Nucleus (Eosinophil)

A

2-3 lobes

175
Q

Cytoplasm (Eosinophil)

A

clear

176
Q

Granules (Eosinophil)

A

vary by species

177
Q

What do granules in Canine Eosinophils look like?

A
  • round
  • variable sizes
  • stains light pink
178
Q

What do granules in Feline Eosinophils look like?

A
  • rod shaped
  • small
  • numerous
  • frequently seen across nucleus
  • stains darker than dog’s
179
Q

What do granules in Horse Eosinophils look like?

A
  • very large
  • round-oval
  • stain light color
180
Q

What do granules in Sheep, Pigs and Cattle Eosinophils look like?

A
  • round
  • stain pink/red (orange)
  • similar to dog, but not variable in size
181
Q

What do Eosinophil Granules contain?

A
  • myeloperoxidase
  • major base protein
  • histaminase
182
Q

What are the key functions of Eosinophil?

A
  • anti inflammatory/anti allergy response
  • parasites
  • have limited bacterialcidal activity
183
Q

What is a normal anti inflammatory response?

A
  • in tissues

- mast cells degranulate and release histamine and heparin

184
Q

What does Histamase do?

A

deactivate histamine

185
Q

What does Major Basic Protein do?

A
  • deactivates heparin

- digest parasites in tissues

186
Q

What does Myeloperoxidase do?

A

have limited bacterialcidal properties

187
Q

What are the causes of Eosinopenia?

A
  • any problem in bone marrow
  • steroids
  • ephinephrine
  • acute infection or inflammation
188
Q

What are the things that affect eosinophilia?

A
  • allergies
  • parasites
  • leukemia
  • granulomatous inflammation
  • neoplasia
  • asthma
189
Q

What allergies affect Eosinophilia?

A
  • food
  • fleas
  • environment
190
Q

What is the normal range of basophils?

A

rare

191
Q

What is the maturation time of basophils?

A

2.5 days

192
Q

What is the blood transit time of basophils?

A

6 hours

193
Q

What is the tissue life span of basophils?

A

2 weeks

194
Q

Nucleus (basophil)

A

2-3 lobes (usually 2)

195
Q

Cytoplasm (basophil)

A

light grey

196
Q

Granules (basophil)

A
  • water soluble
  • wash out during staining process
  • cats have more than dogs
197
Q

What is the normal size of basophil?

A

12-20 microns

198
Q

What do the granules of basophil contain?

A
  • histamine
  • heparin
  • eosniophilic chemotactic factor
199
Q

Histamine (basophil)

A
  • start of inflammation
  • causes vasodilation
  • causes increased capillary permeability
200
Q

Eosinophilc Chemotactic Factor

A

attracts eosinophils

201
Q

Eosinophils are similart to mast cells except:

A

mast cells are larger, have round nucleus, originate (and stay) in tissue, granules are not water soluble

202
Q

Where are mast cell tumors most prevalent?

A
  • skin

- GI tract

203
Q

What is a decrease in basophils?

A
  • basopenia

- doesn’t exist

204
Q

What is an increase in basophils?

A

basophilia

205
Q

What are causes of basophilia?

A
  • acute allergic reactions
  • hypersensitivity
  • anaphlaxysis
206
Q

What is the normal range for monocytes in dogs?

A

150-1,350/microliter

207
Q

What is the normal range of monocytes in cats?

A

0-850/microliter

208
Q

What is the production of Monocytes?

A

monocytopoiesis

209
Q

What is the maturation process of a monocyte?

A
  • PPSC
  • myeloid stem cell
  • monoblast
  • promonocyte
  • monocyte
  • tissue macrophage
210
Q

What is the size of a monocyte?

A

15-20/microns

211
Q

Monocyte:nucleus

A
  • kidney or band shaped
  • pleomorphic
  • does not segment
212
Q

Monocyte: cytoplasm

A
  • gray/blue

- fine granular appearance (ground glass)

213
Q

Monocyte: vacuoles

A
  • “activated monocyte”

- activated by EDTA

214
Q

What is the bone marrow maturation time of monocyte?

A

24-36 hours

215
Q

What is the blood transport time for monocytes?

A

24-36 hours

216
Q

How long do monocytes live in the tissue?

A

weeks to months

217
Q

What type of infection are monocytes associated with?

A

chronic

218
Q

Where are macrophages most prevalent?

A
  • “filter organs”
  • liver
  • spleen
  • lungs
  • lymph nodes
219
Q

Macrophage in liver

A

Kuppffer’s cells

220
Q

Macrophage in connective tissue

A

Histiocytes

221
Q

Macrophage in CNS

A

microglial cells

222
Q

Macrophage in Spleen

A

reticular cells

223
Q

What is the mononuclear phagocyte system?

A

tissue macrophages + monocytes = MPS

224
Q

Why cant neutrophils be in the MPS?

A

cant eat as much as macrophage

225
Q

What are the functions of the MPS?

A
  • follow neutrophils to clean up cellular debris and products of inflammation/infection
  • phagocytosis of large particles
  • role in immunity
  • release tumor necrosis factor
226
Q

What is the Macrophage’s role in immunity?

A

processes antigens and presents them (on cell membrane) to T cells

227
Q

What is monocytopenia?

A

decrease in monocytes

228
Q

What is the cause of monocytopenia?

A

acute inflammation/infection

229
Q

What is monocytosis?

A

increase in monocytes

230
Q

What are causes of monocytosis?

A
  • chronic inflammation/infection
  • stress response (steroids)
  • monocytic leukemia
231
Q

What are Smudge Cells?

A
  • “basket cell”
  • can be any WBC
  • created while making blood smear
  • always an artifact
  • stain hot pink/magenta

Clin Path (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions