Lesson 6: Supporting Network Services Flashcards

1
Q

A network technician troubleshoots an issue where the video conferencing system keeps freezing up and dropping out. The technician determines that the network is not congested and the signal is not being processed fast enough to meet the streaming requirement. What is this type of issue known as?

A. Latency
B. VoIP
C. QoS
D. Jitter

A

A. Latency

This issue is known as latency which is the time it takes for a signal to reach the recipient. Processing delays at intermediate systems, such as routers, can cause latency to be worse.

Other options

B. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is a generic name for protocols that carry voice traffic over data networks.

C. Quality of service (QoS) means that switches, access points, and routers are all configured to identify VoIP data and prioritize it over bursty data.

D. Jitter is the amount of variation in delay over time and network technicians can measure it by sampling the elapsed time between packets arriving. Jitter is typically caused by network congestion.

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2
Q

A network technician securely connects to a remote server on port 3389. What protocol does the technician use?

A.LDAP
B.SSH
C.Telnet
D.RDP

A

D. RDP

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is Microsoft’s protocol for operating remote graphical user interface (GUI) connections to a Windows machine. RDP uses port TCP/3389.

Other options

A. The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a TCP/IP protocol used to query and update an X.500 directory, and current directory products widely support it.

B. Secure Shell (SSH) is the principal means of obtaining secure remote access to UNIX and Linux servers and most types of network appliances (switches, routers, and firewalls).

C. Telnet is both a protocol and a terminal emulation software tool that transmits shell commands and output between a client and the remote host.

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3
Q

As traffic is overloading an organization’s website, the network administrator sets up another web server. What will the administrator configure to distribute traffic between the two servers?

A.NAT
B.Proxy server
C.UTM
D.Load balancer

A

D. Load Balancer

A load balancer distributes client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool and can deploy in any situation where there are multiple servers providing the same function.

Other options

A. In a port-based or overloaded network address translation (NAT), a NAT device translates between the private IP addresses used on the LAN and the public IP address on the router’s WAN interface.

B. A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to the destination server on the Internet, and reverses the process when the reply comes back.

C. A unified threat management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security policies and controls, combining the work of multiple security functions

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4
Q

A network technician troubleshoots a computer that is getting a limited connectivity message and an address in the automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) 169.254.x.y range instead of receiving a lease for an IP configuration from the DHCP server. What are some steps the technician should take to troubleshoot this issue? (Select all that apply.)

A.Establish the scope of the issue.
B.Check the configuration of patch cords.
C.Check the VLAN configuration.
D.Sample the elapsed time between arriving packets.

A

A. Establish the scope of the issue, B. Check the configuration of patch cords and C. Check the VLAN configuration

A. The technician should establish the scope of the issue. If the issue affects multiple users, the problem is likely to be the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server itself.

B. The technician should check the configuration of the patch cords and verify that the wall port connects to an appropriate port on a switch via the patch panel.

C. The technician should check the virtual LAN (VLAN) configuration. If the switch port does not have the correct VLAN ID, it can have the same effect as connecting the host to the wrong switch port.

Other options

D. Sampling the elapsed time between arriving packets is a method the technician would use to test for jitter in a voice over IP network.

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5
Q

A network technician uses a switch configuration interface and sees that a port is continually transitioning between up and down states. What does the network technician witness?

A.Port flapping
B.Slow network speeds
C.RSSI
D.QoS

A

A. Port Flapping

Port flapping is when the network interface card (NIC) or switch interface transitions continually between up and down states. Bad cabling, external interference, or a faulty NIC at the host end can cause this to happen.

Other options

B. There are a variety of problems that can cause slow network speeds and they can be difficult to diagnose. A technician should apply a structured process to investigate possible causes.

C. The received signal strength indicator (RSSI) is the signal strength as measured at the receiver, using either decibel units or an index value.

D. Quality of service (QoS) means that switches, access points, and routers are all configured to identify voice over internet protocol (VoIP) data and prioritize it over bursty data.

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6
Q

A network technician troubleshoots a computer on the wired network that is experiencing slow network speeds. Which of the following would NOT be a possible cause for the technician to troubleshoot?

A.Improperly terminated patch cords
B.Improper speed/duplex configuration
C.Another radio source broadcasting at the same frequency
D.External interference on the cable

A

C. Another radio source broadcasting at the same frequency

Another radio source broadcasting at the same frequency would cause interference and result in slow speeds for wireless devices, but this would not be relevant to a wired network.

Other options

A. Improperly terminated patch cords can cause slow network speeds on a wired network. The technician should substitute the patch cord with a known good cable or verify patch cords using a cable tester.

B. An improper speed/duplex configuration on the switch interface and network interface card (NIC) can cause slow network speeds on a wired network. This should usually be set to auto-negotiate.

D. External interference on the structured cabling can cause slow network speeds on a wired network. A cable tester called a “certifier” can report detailed information about cable interference.

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7
Q

A security technician is installing a doorbell/video entry system for a customer so that the customer can see and communicate with people who come to their home when they aren’t there. What kind of device is the doorbell/video entry system?

A.Zigbee
B.Hub and control system
C.OT
D.Smart device

A

D. Smart Device

The doorbell/video entry system is a smart device which is a device or appliance that users can configure and monitor over an IoT network.

Other options

A. Zigbee is a wireless technology. While the control system is typically joined to the Wi-Fi network, smart devices may use other wireless technologies, such as Z-Wave or Zigbee, to exchange data via the hub.

B. A hub and control system are each required by IoT devices. The hub facilitates wireless networking while the control system operates the device.

C. An embedded system network is known as an operational technology (OT) network to distinguish it from an IT network.

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8
Q

A web designer is securely uploading files to a web server. What protocol is the designer using to do this?

A.SMB
B.NetBIOS
C.FTPS
D.FTP

A

D. FTP

The plain File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows a client to upload files to a web server, but it is unencrypted and poses a high-security risk. FTP-Secure (FTPS) encrypts FTP sessions and is more prevalent than FTP now.

Other options

A. Server Message Block (SMB) is the application protocol underpinning file and printer sharing on Windows networks. SMB usually runs directly over the TCP/445 port.

B. Windows previously used Network Basic Input/Output System (NetBIOS) instead of TCP/IP. NetBIOS allowed computers to address one another by name and establish sessions for other protocols, such as SMB.

C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) allows a client to upload and download files from a network server. A common use of FTP is uploading files to websites.

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9
Q

A network technician is configuring an email connection that will have a permanent connection to the mail server. What kind of email connection is the technician configuring?

A.SMTP
B.HTML
C.POP3
D.IMAP

A

D. IMAP

The Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is a mail retrieval protocol that supports permanent connections to a server and connecting multiple clients to the same mailbox simultaneously.

Other options

A. In Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP), the SMTP server of the sender discovers the IP address of the recipient SMTP server by using the domain name part of the recipient’s email address.

B. HyperText Markup Language (HTML) web pages are plain text files with coded tags describing how to format the document.

C. The Post Office Protocol (POP) is an early example of a mailbox access protocol. POP is generally known as POP3 because the active version of the protocol is version 3. example of a mailbox access protocol. POP is generally known as POP3 because the active version of the protocol is version 3.

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10
Q

An energy company is upgrading its systems across multiple sites. The company would like to control the systems with software that communicates with the current programmable logic controllers (PLCs) and new RTUs. What kind of system is the company upgrading to?

A.OT
B.SCADA
C.Embedded system
D.ICS

A

B. SCADA

The company is upgrading to a supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) system which takes the place of a control server in large-scale, multiple-site ICSs.

Other options

A. An embedded system network is known as an operational technology (OT) network to distinguish it from an IT network.

C. An embedded system is an electronic device that performs a specific, dedicated function. Embedded systems might typically have operated within a closed network.

D. An industrial control system (ICS) provides mechanisms for workflow and process automation. An ICS controls machinery used in critical infrastructures, such as power and water suppliers.

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11
Q

A network technician is troubleshooting an issue where a wireless device only receives an intermittent signal. What could be a possible cause of this? (Select all that apply.)

A. Another radio source is broadcasting at the same frequency.
B. There is Wi-Fi analyzer software running.
C. There is an electromagnetic source nearby.
D. Something is blocking the signal.

A

A. Another radio source is broadcasting at the same frequency, B. There is WI-Fi analyzer software running and D. Something is blocking the signal

A. If a device is within the supported range but the signal is intermittent, there is likely to be interference from another radio source broadcasting at the same frequency.

C. Interference from a powerful electromagnetic source, such as a motor or a microwave oven, can cause an intermittent wireless signal.

D. Radio waves do not pass easily through metal or dense objects. Construction materials, such as wire mesh, foil-backed plasterboard, concrete, and mirrors, can block or degrade signals.

Other options

B. Wi-Fi analyzer software identifies the signal strength of nearby networks on each channel. It shows the signal strength with values close to zero representing a stronger signal.

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12
Q

A web developer plans out a new website, including the uniform resource locators (URLs) for each page. What are parts of the URL that the web developer will need to consider? (Select all that apply.)

A.File server
B.FQDN
C.Protocol
D.File path

A

B. FQDN, C. Protocol and D. File Path

B. The developer will need to consider the fully qualified domain name (FQDN) which is not case sensitive. The host location can also be an IP address; an IPv6 address must be in square brackets.

C. The developer will need to consider the protocol which describes the access method and will likely be HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) or HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS).

D. The developer will need to consider the file path, which specifies the directory and file name location of the resource (if required). The file path may or may not be case-sensitive.

Other options

A. In file server-based networks, a central machine provides dedicated file and print services to workstations. Benefits of server-based networks include ease of administration through centralization.

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13
Q

Company employees access the same resources on the internet many times a day. As such, a network administrator configures a solution that forwards traffic to and from the internet and also caches content to improve performance and reduce bandwidth consumption. What solution is the administrator implementing?

A.NAT
B.Proxy server
C.UTM
D.Load balancer

A

B. Proxy server

A proxy server takes a whole HTTP request from a client, checks it, then forwards it to and from the destination server on the internet. It also caches content to improve performance.

Other options

A. In a port-based or overloaded network address translation (NAT), a NAT device translates between the private IP addresses used on the LAN and the public IP address on the router’s WAN interface.

C. A unified threat management (UTM) appliance enforces a variety of security policies and controls, combining the work of multiple security functions.

D. A load balancer distributes client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool and can deploy in any situation where multiple servers are providing the same function.

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14
Q

A network administrator configures an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) server. Which component in the AAA server setup does not store authentication credentials, but acts as a transit to forward data between devices?

A.Supplicant
B.NAP
C.RADIUS
D.AAA

A

B. NAP

The network access point (NAP) or network access server (NAS) are appliances, such as switches, access points, and VPN gateways. These do not store authentication credentials but simply act as a transit to forward this data between the AAA server and the supplicant.

Other options

A. The supplicant is a component of the authentication, authorization, and accounting server and is the device requesting access, such as a user’s PC or laptop.

C. Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS) is a protocol that manages remote and wireless authentication infrastructures and implements AAA.

D. In an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) configuration, the AAA server is the authentication server positioned within the local network.

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15
Q

A company uses a database that a developer wrote in-house. Since the database is not supported and the developer has left the organization, what is the database considered to be?

A.BYOD
B.Legacy system
C.Embedded system
D.UTM

A

B. Legacy system

When a vendor no longer supports a system, it is a legacy system. This might be because the vendor has gone out of business or formally deprecated the use of the product.

Other options

A. Bring your own device (BYOD) is a provisioning model that allows employees to use personal mobile devices to access corporate systems and data.

C. An embedded system is an electronic device that performs a specific, dedicated function. Embedded systems represent a risk in terms of maintenance and troubleshooting as well as security because they tend to require more specialized knowledge than modern, off-the-shelf computing systems.

D. A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance is one that enforces a variety of security policies and controls, combining the work of multiple security functions.

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16
Q

True or false? An HTTP application secured using the SSL/TLS protocol should use a different port to unencrypted HTTP.

A

True

By default, HTTPS uses port TCP/443. It is possible in theory to apply SSL/TLS to port TCP/80, but most browsers would not support this configuration.

17
Q

A firewall filters applications based on their port number. If you want to configure a firewall on a mail server to allow clients to download email messages, which port(s) might you have to open?

A

Either TCP port 993 (IMAPS) or 995 (POP3S), depending on the mail access protocol in use (IMAP or POP). These are the default ports for secure connections.

Unsecure default ports are TCP port 143 and TCP port 110.

Port 25 (SMTP) is used to send mail between servers and not to access messages stored on a server.

Port 587 is often used by a client to submit messages for delivery by an SMTP server.

18
Q

You are configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol(s) could you use to allow access to Windows, Linux, and Apple macOS clients?

A

Most clients should support Server Message Block (SMB). Another option is to configure File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

19
Q
  1. True or false? AAA allows switches and access points to hold directory information so that they can authenticate clients as they connect to the network.
A

False

One of the purposes of authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) is to authenticate clients as they connect to the network, but the directory information and credentials are not stored on or verified by switches and access points. These devices are configured as clients of an AAA server and act only to transit authentication data between the end user device (the supplicant) and the AAA server.

20
Q

You are advising a company on configuring systems to provide better information about
network device status. Why would you recommend the use of both SNMP and syslog?

A

The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) provides a means for devices to report operational statistics to a management server and to send a trap if a threshold for some critical value is exceeded.

Syslog provides a means for devices to send log entries to a remote server.

Both of these types of information are required for effective monitoring.

21
Q

You are advising a customer about replacing the basic network address translation (NAT) function performed by a SOHO router with a device that can work as a proxy. The customer understands the security advantages of this configuration. What other benefit can it have?

A

The proxy can be configured to cache data that is commonly requested by multiple clients, reducing bandwidth consumption and speeding up requests.

22
Q

You are recommending that a small business owner replace separate firewall and antimalware appliances with a UTM. What is the principal advantage of doing this?

A

A Unified Threat Management (UTM) appliance:

  • Consolidates the configuration, monitoring, and reporting of multiple security functions to a single console or dashboard.
  • Might provide additional functionality not currently available, such as intrusion detection, spam filtering, or data loss prevention.
23
Q

A network owner has configured three web servers to host a website. What device can be deployed to allow them to work together to service client requests more quickly?

A

A Load Balancer

24
Q

You are writing an advisory to identify training requirements for support staff and have included OT networks as one area not currently covered. Another technician thinks you should have written IT. Are they correct?

A

No

Operational Technology (OT) refers to networks that connect embedded systems in industrial and process automation systems.

25
Q

You are auditing your network for the presence of legacy systems. Should you focus exclusively on identifying devices and software whose vendor has gone out of business?

A

No

While this can be one reason for products becoming unsupported, vendors can also deprecate use of products that they will no longer support by classifying them as End of Life (EOL)

26
Q

You are updating a support knowledge base article to help technicians identify port flapping. How can port flapping be identified?

A

Use the switch configuration interface to observe how long the port remains in an up state. Port flapping means that the port transitions rapidly between up and down states

27
Q

A user reports that the Internet is slow. What first step should you take to identify the problem?

A

Verify the link speed independently of user apps, such as web browsing, to determine if there is a cable or port problem

28
Q

You are trying to add a computer to a wireless network but cannot detect the network name. What possible causes should you consider?

A
  • The network name is configured as nonbroadcast and must be entered manually
  • The wireless standard supported by the adapter is not supported by the access point
  • The station is not in range
  • There is some sort of interference
29
Q

What readings would you expect to gather with a Wi-Fi analyzer?

A

The signal strength of different Wi-Fi networks and their channels that are operating within range of the analyzer

30
Q

A probe reports that the Internet connection has RTT latency of 200 ms. What is the likely impact on VoIP call quality?

A

Most vendors recommend that one-way latency should not exceed 150 ms

Round trip time (RTT) measures two-way latency, so 200 ms is within the recommended 300 ms tolerance.

Call quality should not be severely impacted, but if latency is persistently that high, it might be worth investigating the cause.

31
Q

A user reports that a “Limited connectivity” desktop notification is displayed on their computer, and they cannot connect to the Internet. Will you need to replace the NIC in the computer?

A

No

Limited connectivity reported by the OS means that the link has been established, but the host has not been able to contact a DHCP server to obtain a lease for a valid configuration.