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Radiologic Pathology > Lesson 2: Skeletal > Flashcards

Lesson 2: Skeletal Flashcards

passed midterm exams

1
Q

FUNCTION OF THE SKELETAL SYSTEM:

A
  1. SUPPORT AND PROTECTION
  2. MOVEMENT
  3. HEMATOPOIESIS
  4. STORAGE
  5. GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT
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2
Q

serious dominant, congenital disease that
affects the newborn skeletal system.

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

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3
Q

Also called BRITTLE BONE SYNDROME

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

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4
Q

Due to its abnormal fragile bone, infants
afflicted are born with multiple fractures.

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

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5
Q

most common inherited disorder that results in malformation and dwarfism.
cartilage located in the epiphyses of long bones that does not convert to a bone.

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

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6
Q

Term characterizing various disorders that involves increase in bone density and defective bone contour (skeletal modeling)

A

OSTEOPETROSIS (MARBLE BONE)

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7
Q

a common form of osteosclerotic osteoporosis that is considered a benign skeletal anomaly involving bone density

A

ALBERS-SCHONBERG

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8
Q

failure of the fingers and toes to separate that gives a physical appearance of webbed digit

A

SYNDACTYLY

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9
Q

the presence of extra digits

A

POLYDACTYLY

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10
Q

HAND AND FOOT MALFORMATIONS

A

SYNDACTYLY & POLYDACTYLY

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11
Q
  • malformation of the acetabulum due to incomplete formation resulting in displacement of thebhead of the femur.
  • Very common in females and can be created through castingbor splinting of the affected hip.
A

CONGENITAL DISLOCATION OF THE HIP

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12
Q

soft brace that helps hold the baby’s legs in a position that allows their hip joint to be aligned and stable so that it develops correctly.
a “dynamic brace,” meaning that it is not rigid and allows the baby to move their legs

A

Pavlik Harness

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13
Q

an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that tends tobaffect female more frequently
: can either be convex to the right in the thoracic regionbor left in the lumbar region.
: can be corrected surgically or by placing a brace or body cast.

A

SCOLIOSIS:

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14
Q

an incomplete closure of the vertebral canal particularly in the lumbosacral area which results in failure of bony fusion of the two laminae that is visible radiographically.

A

SPINA BIFIDA

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15
Q

: premature or early closure of any of the cranial suture.
: causes an overgrowth in the fused
sutures allowing the brainbto grow, thus altering the shape of the head

A

CRANIOSYNOSTOSIS

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16
Q

results in no formation if the brain and
cranial vault leaving only the facial bones to be formed. This result in death can be diagnosed by sonography and radiography

A

ANENCEPHALY

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17
Q

An infection of the bone and bone marrow resulting from a direct infection such as an open fracture.
* Generally affected are the infants and children because of low resistance combined with the virulence of the organism.
* In adults, it affects the ends of the long bones of the lower limbs

A

OSTEOMYELITIS

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18
Q

A chronic inflammatory disease affecting the ends of long bones or of the spine.
Radiographically displays a worm-eaten appearance infecting the joint spaces

A

TUBERCULOSIS

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19
Q

the tuberculosis of the spine causing softening and eventual collapse of the vertebrae resulting in the abscess formation and pressure in spinal cord.

A

POTT’S DISEASE:

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19
Q

Defined as inflammation of the joints

A

ARTHRITIS

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20
Q

commonly pyogenic arthritis caused by
staphylocci, streptocci and gonococci.

A

ACUTE ARTHRITIS

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21
Q

chronic inflammatory disorder affecting the synovial joints; common in women aged 20 to 50

A

RHEUMATOID
ARTHRITIS:

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22
Q

A progressive form of arthritis that is a chronic condition affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints of males aged 10 to 30 years

A

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

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23
Q

It leads to rigidity and fixation making the spine a rigid block of bone referred to as a bamboo spine resulting in bone fusion (ankylosis

A

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

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23
Q

The most common type of arthritis known for as degenerative joint disease.
Affects male and female equally resulting from a noninflammatory deterioration of the joint cartilage that occurs with the normal wear and tear of aging

A

OSTEOARTHRITIS

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24
Q

: inflammation of the bursa (bursea) which is surrounded with synovial membrane

A

BURSITIS

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25
Q

inflammation of the tendons (connective tissues attaching the muscles to the bones, enclosed in a sheath

A

TENDONITIS

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26
Q

A metabolic disorder common in women post menopause. There is an abnormal decrease in bone density.
* In postmenopausal women, hormone estrogen is decreased or lost causing the bones to become “porous”.
* Its severity leads to a compression fracture.

A

OSTEOPOROSIS

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27
Q

Metabolic condition due to lack of calcium in the tissues and a failure of bone to calcify.
* Results from inadequate intake of calcium, phosphorous, vitamin D.

A

OSTEOMALACIA

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28
Q

caused by vitamin D deficiency in children

A

Rickets

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29
Q
  • It is the most common in elderly of unknown etiology.
  • Affects the pelvis, spine, skull and the long bones.
  • Complications may lead to hearing and vision disturbances and even to malignant neoplastic disease of the skeletal system, osteogenic sarcoma
A

PAGET’S DISEASE

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30
Q
  • An endocrine disorder due to disturbance of the pituitary gland.
  • It is a slowly progressive disease in which there is an increase in growth of the hormone that will thicken and make the bone coarse because of the epiphyses closing and bone that does not grow in length anymore.
A

ACROMEGALY

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30
Q

A discontinuity of bone caused by mechanical forces either applied to the bone or transmitted directly along the line of a bone.

A

FRACTURES

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31
Q

one in which the bone penetrate the
skin

A

OPEN OR COMPOUND FRACTURES

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32
Q

one in which the skin is not penetrated, thus reducing the chance of infection.

A

CLOSED FRACTURE

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33
Q

those in which the bone has separated in two fragments.

A

COMPLETE, NON-COMMINUTED FRACTURE:

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34
Q

complete fractures that are at right angles to the long axis of the bone

A

TRANSVERSE:

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34
Q

those in which only part of the bony structure gives way, with little or no displacement

A

INCOMPLETE

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35
Q

a type of incomplete fracture that extends from the surface into but not all the way
through a long bone.

A

FISSURE:

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36
Q

the axis of the fracture is neither parallel nor perpendicular to the bone. The length and
angle of the fracture depend on the rotational stress

A

Oblique:

36
Q

the bone appears to be twisted apart.
- This is very common in the humerus, and especially the tibia of skiers

A

Spiral:

37
Q

one bone fragment is driven into another

A

Impacted

37
Q

a lengthwise break in bone

A

Longitudinal

37
Q

: a type oof impacted fracture that is especially common in the distal radius of children.

A

Torus

37
Q

the bone is separated into two or more and often numerous fragment

A

Comminuted:

38
Q

fracture of a bone in two district places

A

Double

39
Q

fractures that usually occur as a result of a strong, violent force
- Occur at sites of maximal strain on a bone, usually in connection with unaccustomed
activity

A

Stress/Fatigue:

39
Q

occur when fragment of bone is pulled away from the shaft

A

Avulsion

40
Q

commonly a transverse fracture occurring in abnormal bone that is weakened by various disease

A

Pathologic

41
Q

a fracture through the distal one-inch of the radius

A

Colle’s:

42
Q

a fractures of the base of the first metacarpal with involvement of the first carpometacarpal joint

A

Bennett’s Fracture:

43
Q

a reverse Colle’s fracture with displacement toward the palmar aspect of the hand

A

Smith’s:

44
Q

a common pediatric fracture in which there is an alteration in the alignment of the condyles may come to lie directly under the shaft of the humerus

A

Supracondylar:

45
Q

usually caused by falling on one’s han

A

Carpal-Navicular Fracture

46
Q

involves both malleoli, with dislocations of the ankle joint

A

Pott’s

47
Q

the exact location and severity of a hip fracture depend on the direction of the
forces involved.
- The most common type of hip fractures include subcapital, transcervical and interthrocanteric.

A

Hip Fractures

48
Q

a fracture of the lateral and medial mallelous.

A

Bimalleolar Fracture

49
Q

has three components: the medial and lateral mallelous and the posterior distal tibia

A

Trimalleolar Fracture

50
Q

a common transverse fracture that occurs when the foot is
suddenly twisted when the ankle pronates

A

Fracture of the Base of the Fifth Metatarsal

51
Q

occurs when a person falls directly on the patellae, shattering it

A

Stellate Fracture

52
Q

a communited fracture in which there are one or more butterfly wing or wedge shaped
fragments split off from the main fragments

A

Butterfly:

53
Q

: in which the cortex breaks on one side without separation or breaking of the opposing cortex

A

Greenstick:

54
Q

another type of complete, non-communited fracture in which two or more complete
fractures occur involving the shaft of a single bone

A

Multiple

55
Q

an avulsion fracture of a small fragment or chip of bone from the cornet of a phalanx or other long bone

A

Chip

56
Q

type of incomplete fracture resulting from penetration by a sharp object such a bullet or a knife

A

Penetrating

57
Q

occurs when the fifth metacarpal fractures as a result of a blow to or with the hand

A

Boxer’s

58
Q

one of the proximal third of the ulna shift, with anterior dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia

59
Q

generally result from a blow to
the face

A

FACIAL BONE

59
Q

appear as straight sharply defined, non-branching lines and are intensely radiolucent

A

LINEAR

60
Q

maybe difficult to recognize initially because of the edema.

A

ZYGOMATIC ARCH FRACTURE:

60
Q

appears as curvilinear density because the
fracture edges are overlapped.

A

DEPRESSED

60
Q

-very difficult to demonstrate
radiographically.

-Air-fluid levels in the sphenoid sinus and/or
clouding of the mastoid air cells are often the only radiographic finding suggesting a fracture

A

BASILAR SKULL FRACTURES

60
Q

generally detected by the patients inability to open the mouth and pain when moving the mandible.

A

MANDIBULAR FRACTURE

61
Q

results from a direct blow to the front of the orbit, thus transferring the force to the orbital walls and floor.

A

BLOW-OUT

61
Q

serious because of the adjacent nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, orbit and close proximity of the brain

A

FRACTURES OF THE MAXILLA

61
Q

implies that a bone is out of its joint and not in contact with its normal articulation

A

Dislocation

61
Q

occurs when the zygomatic or malar bone is fractured at all three sutures: frontal, temporal and maxillary.

A

TRIPOD

61
Q

may be accompanied by a fracture of the ascending process of the maxillae and/or the nasal septum, which is composed of the vomer and the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone

A

NASAL BONE FRACTURE

61
Q

Disk disease

A

cause muscle spasm with pain referral throughout the
back.

61
Q

a partial dislocation, often occurring with a fracture

A

Subluxation

61
Q

most frequent type of injury involving a
vertebral body

A

Compression fractures

61
Q

causes of vertebral column injuries

A

direct trauma,
hyperextension-flexion injuries (whiplash),
osteoporosis or metastatic destruction.

61
Q

When forward slippage of the vertebral column off a vertebrae occurs because
of spondylolysis,

A

spondylolithesis

61
Q

a fracture of the arch of he second cervical vertebrae and is usually accompanied by anterior subluxation of the second cervical
vertebrae or the third cervical vertebrae

A

Hangman’s fracture

62
Q

exists when there is a cleft or breaking down, of the body of the vertebral between the superior and inferior articular processes (pars
interarticularis).
Typically this occurs in the arch of the fifth lumbar vertebrae and appears radiographically as a “collar” or “broken neck” on the Scotty dog appearance and is demonstrated on an oblique projection of the lumbar spine

A

Spondylolysis

62
Q
  • The most common benign bone tumor, which arises from the growth zone between the epiphysis and diaphysis of long bones, also called the metaphysis.
  • Most commonly it involves the lower femur or upper tibia and is capped by growing cartilage. Many times osteochondromas are asymptomatic unless the affected long bone is traumatized, which results in a pathologic fracture of the diseased bone.
A

OSTEOCHONDROMA

62
Q

a slowgrowing benign tumor composed of cartilage.
* It grows in the marrow space and most commonly affects the small bones of the hands and feet in individuals between the ages of 10 and 30 years.
* Multiple growths termed endochondromatosis, may also occur in childhood and like multiple osteochondromas may undergo malignant transformation

A

ENDOCHONDROMA

62
Q
  • Refers to a group of tumors characterized by the presence of numerous, multinucleated, osteoclastic giant cells.
  • This neoplasms affects the sexes equally and is found in individuals between the ages of 20 to 30 years.
  • Anatomically thus disease tends to affect the ends of epiphyses of long bones, especially the lower femur, upper tibia and lower radius.
A

OSTEOCLASTOMA (GIANT CELL TUMOR)

62
Q

These fibrous tumors occur twice as often in males compared with females and almost always develop before the age of 30 years.
* Osteoid osteomas are commonly found in the femur, tibia or spine of the young adult.

A

OSTEOID OSTEOMA

62
Q
  • is a fairly rare growth most commonly
    located in the skull.
  • These lesions are composed of very dense,
    well circumscribe, normal bone tissue that usually projects into the orbits or paranasal sinuses.
  • Another term associated with osteoma of the skull is hyperostosis frontalis interna.
A

OSTEOMA

63
Q

Except for myeloma, the most common primary malignancy of the skeleton is the osteosarcoma, which arises from osteoblasts.
* This neoplasm is most frequently found in the metaphysis of long bones, with approximately 50% affecting the knee

A

OSTEOSARCOMA (OSTEOGENIC SARCOMA)

64
Q
  • Another primary malignant bone tumor is an Ewing’s sarcoma. This neoplasm occurs at a younger age than any other primary malignant bone neoplasm, usually between the ages of 5 to 15 years and rarely occurs after the age of 30 years.
  • Unlike osteosarcoma, Ewing’s sarcoma arises from the medullary canal and involves the bone more diffusely, giving rise to uniform thickening of the bone.
A

EWING’S SARCOMA

64
Q
  • A chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumor of cartilaginous origin and is composed of a typical cartilage.
  • It is about half as common as osteosarcoma and comprises approximately 10% of all malignant tumors of the skeletal system.
  • Males are three times as likely as females to develop chondrosarcoma and it is more common in older adults.
A

CHONDROSARCOMA

65
Q

most common malignant tumor of the skeleton, with secondary bone tumors of any origin far outnumbering primary bine tumors.

A

metastatic disease from carcinomas

66
Q

most common primary sites for metastatic bone cancer

A

breast, lung, prostate, kidney and thyroid gland

(the tumor spreading via proximity, the blood stream or the lymphatic system)

67
Q
A
68
Q
A
69
Q
A

Radiologic Pathology (3 decks)

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