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AUBF > Lesson 2,3,4 > Flashcards

Lesson 2,3,4 Flashcards

1
Q

Its function is to filter blood and crate urine as a waste by-product

A

Urinary system

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2
Q

Remove waste and extra water from the blood and help keep chemicals balanced in the body

A

Kidney

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3
Q

A tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder

A

ureter

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4
Q

A sac that’s serves as a reservoir for urine

A

Urinary bladder

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5
Q

The tube that lets urine leave your bladder and your body

A

urethra

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6
Q

Size of urethra for female

A

3-4 cm

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7
Q

Size of urethra for male

A

20 cm

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8
Q

Is actually a fluid biopsy of the kidney

A

urine

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9
Q

Basic structural and functional unit of the kidney

A

Nephron

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10
Q

How many nephrons per kidney?

A

1 to 1.5 million

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11
Q

2 type of nephron

A
  1. Cortical nephrons
  2. Juxtamedulary nephrons
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12
Q

Are situated primarily in the cortex of the kidney, approximately 85% of nephrons

A

Cortical nephrons

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13
Q

Are responsible primarily for removal of waste products and reabsorption of nutrients

A

Cortical nephrons

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14
Q

Their primary function is concentration of the urine

A

Juxtamedulary nephron

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15
Q

Have a longer loop of Henle that extends deep into the medulla of the kidney

A

Juxtamedulary nephron

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16
Q

Detects low blood pressure and low blood volume which triggers RAAS

A

Juxtamedulary nephron

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17
Q

Order of urine formation

A
  1. Glomerulus
  2. Proximal convoluted tumble (PCT)
  3. Loof of Henle
  4. Distal Convoluted Tubule
  5. Collecting duct
  6. Calyx
  7. Renal pelvis
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18
Q

Responsible for selective reabsorption of blood and salt

A

Loop of henle

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19
Q

it is the major side of reabsorption

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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20
Q

What are the 4 renal function?

A
  1. Renal blood flow
  2. Glomerular filtration
  3. Tubular reabsorption
  4. Tubular secretion
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21
Q

The human kidneys receive approximately ____ of the blood pumped through the heart at all times

A

25%

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22
Q

What is the total renal blood flow?

A

1,200 mL/min

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23
Q

What is the total renal plasma flow?

A

600-700mL/min

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24
Q

What is the order of renal blood flow?

A
  1. Renal artery
  2. Afferent arteriole
  3. Glomerulus
  4. Efferent arteriole
  5. Peritubular capillaries
  6. Vasa recta
  7. Renal vein
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25
Q

It is the working portion of the kidney

A

glomerulus

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26
Q

A coil of approximately eight capillary lobes, located within the Bowman’ capsule

A

glomerulus

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27
Q

A nonselective filter of plasma substances with MW <70,000 dalton

A

Glomerulus

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28
Q

Glomerulus is a non selective filter of plasma substances with MW __________

A

<70,000 Dalton

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29
Q

It is a capillary endothelium with its large pores

A

Glomerular filtration barrier

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30
Q

It has trilayer basement membrane

A

Glomerular filtration barrier

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31
Q

What are the trilayer basement of the glomerular filtration barrier?

A
  1. Lamina rara interna
  2. Lamina densa
  3. Lamina rara externa
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32
Q

It is a filtration diaphragm found between the podocytes of Bowman’s space

A

Glomerular filtration barrier

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33
Q

What is the maximum of glomerular filtrate?

A

70,000

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34
Q

What is the maximum of albumin?

A

69,000

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35
Q

Glomerular filtrate has an S.G of _____ and ____ albumin

A

1.010
No

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36
Q

What are the glomerular filtrate that is usually filtered?

A

Salt
Water
Amino acid
Glucose
urea

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37
Q

If it were not for the __________________, all routine urine would have a positive readings on reagent strip for protein and albumin

A

Shield of negativity

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38
Q

1st function to be affected in renal disease

A

Tubular reabsorption

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39
Q

How many percent does tubular reabsorption has in renal function?

A

65%

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40
Q

It is responsible for when the filtrate concentration exceeds the maximal reabsorptive capacity (Tm) of the tubules, and the substance begins appearing in the urine.

A

Tubular reabsorption

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41
Q

It is the plasma concentration at which active transport stops

A

Renal threshold

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42
Q

What is the renal threshold for glucose?

A

160-180 mg/dL

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43
Q

It is the movement of substance across call membrane into the bloodstream by electrochemical energy

A

Active transport

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44
Q

It is the movement of substance across a membrane by diffusion because of physical gradient

A

Passive transport

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45
Q

Patient with Normal blood glucose level + glucose in urine = _____________

A

Tubular damage

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46
Q

It involves the passage of substances from the blood in peritubular capillaries to the tubular fitrate

A

Tubular secretion

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47
Q

2 major functions of tubular secretion

A
  1. Regulation of the acid-base balance in the body through secretion of hydrogen ions
  2. Elimination of waste products not filtered by the glomerulus
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48
Q

It is the major site for removal of nonfiltered substances

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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49
Q

It is when the urine is alkaline

A

Renal tubular acidosis (RTA)

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50
Q

Failure to produce an acid urine due to inability to secrete hydrogen ions

A

Renal tubular acidosis (RTA)

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51
Q

It regulate water reabsorption in the DCT and CD

A

Anti-diuretic hormone

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52
Q

It is also known as anti-diuretic hormone

A

vasopressin

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53
Q

Responsible for controlling the urination

A

Anti-diuretic hormone

54
Q

It is the ADH deficiency which leads to polyuria

A

Diabetes insipidus (DI)

55
Q

It is when there is excess ADH which leads to oliguria

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

56
Q

It is when there is excess ADH which leads to oliguria

A

Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

57
Q

It is responsible for the salt concentration

A

Aldosterone

58
Q

It regulates salt reabsorption in the DCT

A

aldosterone

59
Q

It regulates the flow of blood to and within the glomerulus

A

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS)

60
Q

It responds to changes in blood pressure and plasma sodium content that are monitored by the juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System

61
Q

It is used to evaluate glomerular filtartion

A

Clearance test

62
Q

It measures the rate at which the kidneys are able to remove a filterable substance from the blood

A

Clearance test

63
Q

It is obsolete in the clearance test

A

Urea

64
Q

It is the most common in the clearance test

A

Creatinine

65
Q

It is the gold standard or the reference method in the clearance tests

A

Insulin with MW of 5,200 Dalton

66
Q

It is the better marker of renal tubular function in the clearance test

A

Beta 2-microglobulin with MW of 11,800 Dalton

67
Q

It is a measure of the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection

A

Creatinine clearance

68
Q

By far the greatest source or error in any clearance procedure utilizing urine is the ___________________

A

Use of improperly timed urine specimens

69
Q

Around_______ of creatinine is secreted by the renal tubules

A

7-10%

70
Q

It is used to evaluate tubular reabsorption

A

Concentration test

71
Q

What are the 2 obsolete concentration test

A
  1. Fishborg test
  2. Mosenthal
72
Q

What test is done when Patient is deprived of fluid up to 24 hours

A

Fishborg test

73
Q

In what test does a patient maintain normal diet and fluid intake, where the day and night urine are compared in terms of volume and S.G?

A

Mosenthal

74
Q

It is a test influenced by the number and density of particles in a solutuon

A

Specific gravity

75
Q

It is more precise than osmolarity because it does not vary with temperature. It is also influenced by the number and density of particles in a solution

A

Osmolality

76
Q

What are the tests for tubular secretion and renal blood flow

A
  1. p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) Test
  2. Phenolsulfonphthalein (PSP) Test
  3. Urine pH, titratable acidity, urinary ammonia
77
Q

who inferred diagnoses from urine evaluation?

A

Hippocrates
Aristotle
ancient Egyptians

78
Q

It was until when that uroscopy reached diagnostic dominance?

A

middle ages

79
Q

the publication of _________ is a major reason for the rise to prominence of uroscopy

A

Johannes de Ketham’s Fasciculus Medicinae in 1491

80
Q

It is the first illustrated medical book printed and it depicted the urine wheel

A

Johannes de Ketham’s Fasciculus Medicinae in 1491

81
Q

it is a large circle surrounded by thin-necked, urine flasks. this shows how the color and consistency of the urine could be matched to a diagnosis

A

urine wheel

82
Q

What are the 4 humours?

A

Sanguineous = blood
choleric = yellow bile
phlegmatic = phlegm
melancholic = black bile

83
Q

he first documented the importance of sputum examination; uroscopy

A

hippocrates

84
Q

he discovered albuminuria by boiling urine

A

Frederik Dekkers

85
Q

who wrote a book about “pisse prophets”

A

Thomas Bryant

86
Q

he contributed the examination of urine sediment

A

Thomas Addis

87
Q

He introduced urinalysis as part of doctor’s routine patient examination

A

Richard Bright

88
Q

he coined urochrome

A

Ludwig Thudichum

89
Q

it is the pigment of urine (yellow)

A

urochrome

90
Q

he discovered cerebrospinal fluid

A

Domenico Cotugno

91
Q

he termed Phenylketonuria

A

Ivan Falling

92
Q

he termed Alkaptonuria

A

Archibald Garrod

93
Q

he discovered Orthostatic or cyclic proteinuria

A

Frederick William Pavy

94
Q

cystine calculi

A

William Wollaston

95
Q

Benedict’s reagent

A

Stanley Benedict

96
Q

they used to detect diabetes by using the “taste test”

A

babylonians and egyptians

97
Q

they noticed that “honey urine” attracted ants

A

hindu physicians

98
Q

what is the water and solute composoition of urine?

A

95-97% water
3-5% solute

99
Q

it is the major organic substance

A

urea

100
Q

it is the major inorganic substance

A

chloride

101
Q

it is the principal salt

A

NaCl

102
Q

it is clean, dry, leaked-proof __________, with a wide base and an opening of at least 4cm

A

container

103
Q

the container should be made of _____ to allow for determination of color and clarity

A

clear material

104
Q

the recommended capacity of the container is ____ which allows ___ of specimen needed for microscopic analysis

A

50 mL
12 mL

105
Q

proper labeling of the specimen includes:

A
  1. patient’s last and first name
  2. identification number
  3. date and time of collection
  4. patient’s age
  5. location
  6. healthcare provider’s name
  7. preservative used if any
  8. patient’s sex
106
Q

it must be attached to the container, not to the lid, and should not be detached

A

label

107
Q

this must accompany specimens delivered to the laboratory, its information should match the information on the specimen label

A

requisition form

108
Q

routine screening
can be collected anytime
ideal for cytology studies

A

random/occasional/single

109
Q

random urine specimen is ideal for cytology studies only if with prior ____________ and __________ 5 mins before collection

A

exercise and hydration

110
Q

ideal for routine analysis
essential for preventing false-negative pregnancy tests
most acidic and most concentrated
for evaluating orthostatic proteinuria

A

first morning

111
Q

2nd voided urine after a period of fasting
for glucose determination

A

second morning/fasting

112
Q

for diabetic screening and monitoring
preferred for testing glucose

A

2-hour post-prandial

113
Q

optional with blood samples in glucose tolerance

A

glucose tolerance

114
Q

at least 2 voided collection
used in diagnosis of diabetes

A

fractional specimen

115
Q

for routine screening and bacterial culture

A

midstream clean-catch

116
Q

for bacterial culture
may be urethral or ureteral

A

catherized

117
Q

bladder urine for anaerobic bacterial culture and urine cytology

A

suprapubic aspiration

118
Q

use soft, clear plastic bag with adhesive

A

pediatric specimen

119
Q

for prostatic infection

A

three-glass technique

120
Q

three-glass technique normal result

A

slight contam
sterile
sterile

121
Q

three-glass technique for prostatitis

A

slight contam
sterile
incresed wbc +bacteria

122
Q

three-glass technique for UTI

A

contam
contam
invalid

123
Q

it has VB1, VB2, EPS, VB3

A

Stamey-Mears test for prostatitis

124
Q

for quantitative testing:
24 hr =
12 hr =
4 hr (first morning) =
afternoon (2-4pm) =

A

timed specimen

requires preservatives
for addis count
for nitrite determination
for urobilinogen determination

125
Q

it is the process providing documentation of proper sample ID from the time of collection to the receipt of laboratory result

A

chain of reaction

126
Q

required urine volume for drug testing

A

30-40 ml

127
Q

container capacity for drug testing

A

60 ml

128
Q

temperature within 4 mins.

A

32.5-37.7 C

129
Q

it is added to toilet water reservoir during drug testing

A

bluing agent

130
Q
A

AUBF (5 decks)

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