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Bacte > Lesson 2 > Flashcards

Lesson 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Chemicals produced by microorganisms that inhibit the growth of other
microorganisms

A

Antibiotics

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2
Q

Antibiotic has

A

Antibacterial agents

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3
Q

Antibiotic can be

A

Bactericidal or bacteriostatic

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4
Q

Antibiotic can be

A

Bactericidal or bacteriostatic

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5
Q

Classified as NARROW spectrum or BROAD Spectrum

A

Antibiotics

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6
Q

with limited coverage against some specific bacteria

A

Narrow spectrum

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7
Q

have a wide coverage to groups of bacteria

A

Broad spectrum

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8
Q

Antibiotics Routes of Administration

A

Oral
Intravenous (IV)
Intramuscular (IM)

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9
Q

occurs when microbes evolve mechanisms that protect them from the effects of antimicrobials/antibiotics

A

Bacterial resistance

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10
Q

Bacteria develop resistrance to antibiotic through evolution by changing their structure or
components.

A

Intrinsic Resistance:

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11
Q

Bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics through a new genetic mutation that helps the
bacterium survive or by getting DNA from a bacterium that already is
resistant.

A

Acquired resistance

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12
Q

Example of intrinsic resitance

A

antibiotic that affects the wall-building mechanism of the
bacteria, such as penicillin, cannot affect bacteria that do not have a cell wall.

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13
Q

Type of AR where Resistant strains outgrow Susceptible strains and
new strains are R

A

Chromosomal Mutations

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14
Q

Type of AR where extrachromosomal elements of DNA that are assoc with virulence and antibiotic R

A

Plasmids

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15
Q

can transfer from plasmid to
plasmid or from DNA chromosome to plasmid

A

Transposons “jumping genes”

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16
Q

Bacterium DNA change and alter the production of protein, different bacterial components and
receptors, bacteria unrecognized by the antibiotic

A

Genetic change

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17
Q

Example of genetic change

A

Escherichia coli (E. coli) and Haemophilus influenza resistance to trimethoprim

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18
Q

Bacteria can share genetic components with other bacteria
and transfer the resistant DNA through a horizontal gene transfer.

A

DNA Transfer

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19
Q

How can a Bacteria develop R to antibiotics?

A
  1. Intrinsic resistance
  2. Acquired resistance
  3. Genetic change
  4. DNA Transfer
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20
Q

Factors for Antibiotic Resistance

A

•Natural Occurrence/Selection
• Self-medication
•Clinical Misuse/Overuse
• Environmental Pollution/Improper discarding of
unsused/used antibiotics
• Overuse of disinfectants

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21
Q

Laboratory test/procedure in microbiology to determine which
drug will inhibit/kill the microorganism and which drug is
resistant to the microorganism

A

Antimicrobial susceptibility test

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22
Q

The result will help the physician to decide which drug
(antibiotic) is effective in killing the bacteria causing the
infection as well as what bacteria is present or causing the
infection

A

Antimicrobial susceptibility test

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23
Q

Standards in analyzing the results, agar used, methods and
incubation is set by CLSI and EUCAST

A

Antimicrobial susceptibility test

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24
Q

CLSI means

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

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25
Q

EUCAST means

A

European Committee on Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing

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26
Q

AMST means

A

Academy for Medical Science Technology

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27
Q

AMST antimicrobial susceptibility test

A

Media
Disc
Inoculum

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28
Q

low in Ca and Mg ions that interfere activity of antibiotic
- gives favorable growth on fastidious bacteria)

A

Mueller-Hinton agar

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29
Q

Best media culture to use is

A

Mueller-Hinton Agar

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30
Q

Concentration of bacteria that will be added to the agar or broth

A

Inoculum

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31
Q

Standardize by comparing the turbidity to McFarlands

A

Inoculum

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32
Q

used as a reference to adjust the turbidity
of bacterial suspensions so that the number of
bacteria will be within a given range to standardize
microbial testing

A

McFarland standards

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33
Q

McFarland standard usually at

A

0.5

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34
Q

Commercially prepared _______ strips at different
concentrations

A

Antibiotics

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35
Q

Selection is base from the bacteria isolated and identified, and
from the availability of _________ discs/strips

A

Antibiotics

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36
Q
  • Disc Diffusion method
  • Qualitative test
A

KIRBY BAUER DISK DIFFUSION TEST

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37
Q

MIC method
– Quantitative test

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration

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38
Q

placing a strip impregnated with antimicrobials onto an agar
plate

A

E test

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39
Q

can be determined by culturing microorganisms in liquid media or on plates of solid growth medium

A

Mic method

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40
Q

VITEK 2, BD Phoenix, and Microscan systems, are
the most common methodology for AST

A

Automated systems

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41
Q

Antibiotic sensitivity test (diffusion)

A

Kirby-Bauer method
Strokes method

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42
Q

Antibiotic sensitivity test (dilution)

A

Tube dilution
Agar dilution

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43
Q

Antibiotic sensitivity test (diffusion and dilution)

A

E test

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44
Q

Antibiotic sensitivity test (diffusion) =

A

Qualitative methods

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45
Q

Antibiotic sensitivity test (dilution) =

A

Quantitative method

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46
Q

culture-based microbiology assay used in diagnostic and drug
discovery laboratories

A

Kirby-Bauer test method

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47
Q

performed by inoculating the surface of an agar plate with
bacteria isolated from a patient’s infection

A

Kirby-Bauer test method

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48
Q

circular area around the spot of the antibiotic
in which the bacteria colonies do not grow

A

Zone of inhibition

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49
Q

Qualitative method:

A

Sensitivity
Intermediate
Resistant

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50
Q
  1. Inoculated agar plate
  2. Addition of antibiotic discs
  3. Incubation
  4. Measurement of zone of inhibition
A

Kirby-Bauer disc diffusion method

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51
Q

Quantitative method to determine the lowest concentration of an
antibiotic to prevent visible in vitro growth of bacteria

A

Minimum Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

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52
Q

the lowest
concentration of an antibacterial agent required to kill a
bacterium over a fixed, somewhat extended period

A

Minimum Bactericidal Concentration (MBC)

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53
Q

a way of determining antimicrobial sensitivity by placing a strip impregnated with antimicrobials onto an agar plate.

A

E test

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54
Q

Etest (previously known as the

A

Epsilometer test

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55
Q

a computer system that perform organism detection and susceptibilities on specimens

A

Automation (automated system)

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56
Q

Methods of controlling microbial growth

A

Physical
Chemical

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57
Q

Under physical

A
  1. Sterilization by heat
  2. Sterilization by irradiation
  3. Sterilization by filtration
  4. Low temperature
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58
Q

Under physical by sterilization by heat

A
  1. Dry heat
  2. Moist heat
  3. Boiling
  4. Pasteurization
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59
Q

Under chemical

A
  1. Alcohol
  2. Oxidizing agents
  3. Halogens
  4. Alkalies
  5. Acids
  6. Gases
  7. Quarternary Ammonium Compounds
  8. Soaps
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60
Q

purpose is to destroy all microorganisms and their spores on inanimate objects

A

Sterilization

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61
Q

purpose is to destroy or irreversibly inactivate microorganisms (but
not their spores) on inanimate objects

A

Disinfectant

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62
Q

chemical germicide for use on the skin or tissues and should not be
substituted for disinfectant

A

Antiseptic

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63
Q

inhibits/ suppresses growth of bacteria

A

Bacteriostatic

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64
Q

kills bacteria

A

Bactericidal

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65
Q

Spores killed in 2hrs

A

160°C Hot air oven

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66
Q

Pathogenic bacteria killed in 3 sec

A

140°C Ultra Heat Treatment (UHT) method

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67
Q

Most bacteria killed in 15 min.
Most spores killed in 30 min.

A

121°C autoclave

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68
Q

Spores killed in 2 hrs

A

100°C boiling water

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69
Q

Pathogenic bacteria killed in 15 sec

A

72°C flash pasteurization

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70
Q

Pathogenic bacteria killed in 30 min

A

63°C Holding method pasteurization

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71
Q

Human body temp

A

37°C

72
Q

Refrigerator temp

A

4°C

73
Q

Home freezer temp

A

-18°C

74
Q

Kills microorganisms by denaturing/coagulating their proteins and enzymes

A

Sterilization by heat

75
Q

Sterilization by heat Indicators of Effectiveness:

A
  1. Thermal Death Time (TDT)
  2. Thermal Death Point (TDP)
  3. Decimal Reduction Time (DRT)
76
Q

minimum time it takes to kill a population of
microbes at a specific temperature

A

Themal Death Time (TDT)

77
Q

lowest temperature that is required to kill a
population of microbes when applied for a specific time.

A

Thermal Death Point (TDP)

78
Q

Time in minutes at which 90% of bacteria is
killed within a given period of time. 🡪 canning industry

A

Decimal Reduction Time (DRT)

79
Q

Heating to 100C at boiling point
• Kills vegetative forms of bacteria (water-borne), most virus, and fungi within
1 minute

A

Boiling

80
Q

can survive up to 30 minutes of boiling

A

Hepatitis virus

81
Q

can survive up to 20 minutes of boiling

A

Endospores

82
Q

Temperatures of about 160C for 60minutes – necessary to kill most spores
• Use primarily on glassware, metals and fatty substance which are not
permeable to water
• Ex: Hot Air Oven

A

Dry heat

83
Q

Most effective method of sterilization (Autoclave)
• Requires moist heat at 121C, 15-30min
• Kills microorganisms by coagulating their proteins

A

Moist heat

84
Q

2 methods of mosit heat

A

• 1. Tyndallization
• 2. Autoclaving

85
Q

the steaming process performed at 100°C done in steam sterilizer for 15-20
minutes followed by incubation at 37°C overnight and this cycle is repeated
for successive 3 days
• Use to kill spores
• Uses Arnold Sterilizer

A

Tyndallization

86
Q

Tyndallization AKA

A

Fractional sterilization

87
Q

Most reliable method of heat sterilization
• More modern
• Use to sterilize culture media and surgical supplies

A

Autoclave

88
Q

Autoclave

A

121°C, 15 mins, 15 lbs pressure

89
Q

process of food preservation in which packaged and unpacked foods (e.g.,
milk and fruit juices) are treated with mild heat, usually to less than 100 °C
(212 °F), to eliminate pathogens and extend shelf life

A

Pasteurization

90
Q

destroys or deactivates microorganisms and enzymes that contribute to food
spoilage or the risk of disease

A

Pasteurization

91
Q

Types of pasteurization

A
  1. High-temperature short time (HTST) pasteurization
  2. Ultra-high temperature (UHT) pasteurization
92
Q

for milk; (71.5 °C
(160.7 °F) for 15 seconds) which ensures safety of milk and provides a
refrigerated shelf life of approximately two weeks

A

High-temperature short time (HTSHT) pasteurization

93
Q

milk is pasteurized at 135 °C
(275 °F) for 1–2 seconds, which provides the same level of safety, but along
with the packaging, extends shelf life to three months under refrigeration

A

Ultra-high temperature (UHT) pasteurization

94
Q

UV rays with shorter WL are more effective in killing bacteria

A

Irradiation

95
Q

used to sterilize rooms

A

Mercury vapor lamps with WL 240-280

96
Q

Use if heat is not feasible (some carbohydrates solutions, serum, body fluids)
• Removes microbes by passage of liquid or gas through a screen like material with
small pores

A

Filtration

97
Q

A typical microfiltration membrane pore size range is

A

0.1 to 10 micrometer

98
Q

most
commonly used being____which is sufficient to eliminate bacteria
and fungi

A

0.2 to 0.45 micrometer

99
Q

use in operating rooms to
eliminate bacteria; mostly filters particles that are 0.3um; capture pollen, dirt, dust,
moisture, bacteria (0.2–2.0 μm), viruses (0.02–0.3 μm), and submicron liquid
aerosol (0.02–0.5 μm).

A

High Efficiency Particulate Air filter (HEPA)

100
Q

usually inhibit or stop microbial growth and proliferation but often do not
kill bacteria (BACTERIOSTATIC)
• Refrigeration (4ºC) and freezing (-20ºC or less) are commonly used in the
food, pharmaceuticals and biotechnology industry

A

Low temperature

101
Q

three types of alcohol

A

Ethanol
Methanol
Isopropanol

102
Q

works by denaturing and coagulating proteins, disrupting their cell wall, and
killing them; dissolves lipid membranes
• highly efficient against viruses and can be used in adjunct with other
alcohols to obtain a powerful synergistic effect against microorganisms

A

Alcohol

103
Q

• act by oxidizing the cell membrane of microorganisms, which results in a loss
of structure and leads to cell lysis and death

A

Oxidizing agents

104
Q

destroy the cellular protein, nucleic acid, and cell wall or membrane of
microorganisms
• Disrupts oxidative phosphorylation, which is the most important process in cel

A

Halogens

105
Q

Example of halogens

A

Iodide, Chlorines

106
Q

Porous surface:
Hard Surfaces:
Concentrated infectious agents:

A

1:10 dilution
1:100 dilution
1:5 dilution

107
Q

Example of oxidizing agent

A

H2O2, K-permanganate

108
Q

Example of oxidizing agent

A

H2O2, K-permanganate

109
Q

produce saponification of the fatty acids within cell membranes, resulting in
the loss of membrane integrity.

A

Alkalies

110
Q

Examples of alkalies

A

KOH, NaOH

111
Q

disrupts the amphoteric matter in microbial surface structures and increases
the permeability of cell membrane, subsequently metabolic processes are
hindered

A

Acids

112
Q

Ex. Of acids

A

Nitric Acid, Sulfuric Acid

113
Q

inactivates microorganisms by alkylating the amino and sulfhydral groups of
proteins and ring nitrogen atoms of purine bases

A

Gases

114
Q

Example of gases

A

Formaldehyde

115
Q

bactericidal and fungicidal activity
• permeate into the membrane and disrupt its physical and biochemical
properties

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

116
Q

Example of Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

A

hexadecyltrimethylammonium (‘cetrimide’), chlorhexidine, and benzalkonium
chloride

117
Q

disrupt the chemical bonds that allow bacteria, viruses and grime to stick to
surfaces, lifting them off the skin
• Antimicrobial soaps 🡪 triclosan and triclocarban

A

Soap

118
Q

Any chemical use to treat an infections either by inhibiting or killing
pathogens
• Antibacterial
• Antifungal
• Antiprotozoals
• Antiviral

A

Antimicrobial agents

119
Q

substance produced by microorganism that is effective in killing or
inhibiting growth of microorganisms

A

Antibiotics

120
Q

Antimicrobial Agents
• Ideal Qualities

A
  1. kill/inhibit pathogens
  2. Cause no damage to the host
  3. Cause no allergic reactions
  4. Stable when stored in solid or liquid form
  5. Remain in specific tissue of the body long enough to be effective
  6. Kills the pathogens before they mutate and become resistant to it
121
Q

trap bacteria with the assistance of cilia

A

Mucus (respiratory tract)

122
Q

present in respiratory secretions lyses bacterial cell wall

A

Lysozymes

123
Q

possess hydrolytic enzymes that breakdown bacteria

A

Saliva

124
Q

destroys bacteria that are acid labile

A

Gastric acid of the stomach

125
Q

constant flushing action

A

Eyes tears

126
Q

Normal flora of the ________
• _______ of the urine and constant flushing action
• ____________ – normal flora

A

Large intestines
Acidic pH
Vaginal lactic acid

127
Q

total changes occurring in tissue factors upon injury

A

Inflammation

128
Q

increased blood flow 🡪 WBC, other cells, plasma proteins (complement,
interferons), antibodies migrate to the injured site 🡪 arrest the
insulting foreign organism

A

Inflammatory response

129
Q

Acquired in the hospital or other health care setting

A

Nosocomial infection

130
Q
  1. ______ – result from organisms that are part of the patient’s NF
  2. _______ – from external sources (contamination, inanimate objects)
A

Endogenous
Exogenous

131
Q

presence and multiplication of microorganisms within a host
with no clinical signs of infections 🡪 Reservoir

A

Colonization

132
Q

the entrance and multiplication of a microorganism in a host

A

Infection

133
Q

condition assoc with functional and structural harm to
the host 🡪 s/s

A

Infectious disease

134
Q

Common Nosocomial Infections

A

UTI
• Surgical wound infections
• LRTI
• Bacteremia
• Aspiration Pneumonia

135
Q

Common Pathogens causing NI

A

S. aureus
• E. coli
• P. aeruginosa
• Coagulase negative Staph
• Enterococcus
• Klebsiella

136
Q

Susceptible Patients to NI

A

Elderly
• Pregnant women
• Premature Infants
• Surgical and Burn Px
• Diabetic and Cancer Px
• On medications with steroids, chemotherapy, radiation,
• Immunosuppressed px
• Undergoing renal dialysis, catheterization, or intubated

137
Q

Routes of Infection

A

Direct
Indirect

138
Q

across the placenta (Syphillis) or through the vaginal canal
(Gonorrhea)

A

Congenital

139
Q

across the placenta (Syphillis) or through the vaginal canal
(Gonorrhea)

A

Congenital

140
Q

common colds, skin infections, GI pathogens

A

Hand to hand contact

141
Q

Strep throat, common colds, URTI

A

Droplets

142
Q

Direct Route

A
  1. Droplets
  2. Sexual
  3. Congenital
  4. Hand to hand contact
143
Q

Fomites – includes inanimate objects
• Ingestion of contaminated food and water
• Airborne
• Animal or arthropod vectors

A

Indirect route

144
Q

describe the handling of clinical
specimens where BLOOD and other body fluids should be treated as
INFECTIOUS

A

Universal precautions

145
Q

Guidelines to ensure safety in the laboratory 🡪

A

OHSA, CDC, CAP, JCAHO

146
Q

Publication of standards for Bloodborne Pathogens

A

(OSHA)

147
Q

a significant part of the Universal
Precaution

A

Ppe

148
Q

(GHS)

A

Globally Harmonized System of Classification
and Labeling of Chemicals

149
Q

General Considerations for Safety

A

No food and Drink
• No smoking
• Cosmetics are prohibited
• Use proper and recommended protective
eyewear
• Use Face shields with googles
• Use proper and appropriate mask
• Hair should be worn so as to prevent in
contact with surfaces
• Handwashing
• Accessible eyewash stations
• Emergency Showers
• Sharp object should be handled
with care
• Avoid spillage of blood and other
liquid specimens

150
Q

an enclosed, ventilated laboratory workspace for safely working with
materials contaminated with (or potentially contaminated with) pathogens
requiring a defined biosafety level.

A

Biological safety cabinets

151
Q

primary purpose of a ___ is to serve as a means to protect the laboratory
worker and the surrounding environment from pathogens.

A

Biological safety cabinets

152
Q

provides protection for the user and surrounding environment, but no
protection for the sample being manipulated
• Open-front, negative pressure, ventilated cabinets
• Unsterilized room air enters and circulates within the cabinet and exhaust air
from the cabinet is filtered via HEPA filter

A

Class I BSC

153
Q

Sterilize both the air entering and circulating the cabinet and exhaust air
• USED BY MOST HOSPITAL MICROBIOLOGICAL
LABORATORIES
• Also known as LAMINAR FLOW

A

Class II BSC

154
Q

Provides the highest level of safety
• All air entering and leaving the cabinet is STERILIZED with HEPA filter
• System is entirely closed and all infectious material are handled with rubber
gloves that are sealed to the cabinet

A

Class III BSC

155
Q

Lowest safety lecvel
Not known to cause disease in afult human
Non-pathogenic microbe

A

BSL-1

156
Q

Moderate danger if inhale, swallow, or expose to skin
Influenza

A

BSL-2

157
Q

Moderate danger if inhale, swallow, or expose to skin

A

BSL-2

158
Q

Severe or potentially lethal disease
HIV, H5N1 Flu

A

BSL-3

159
Q

Highest safety level
Life threathening disease
Ebola, SARs, CoV2

A

BSL-4

160
Q

BSL means

A

Biosafety level

161
Q

Protein antigen
Secondary immune response

A

IgG

162
Q

Polysaccharude antigen
Primary immune response

A

IgM

163
Q

Polysaccharude antigen
Primary immune response

A

IgM

164
Q

Preventipn of bacterial or viral infection
Found in tears, milk, saliva

A

IgA

165
Q

B cell receptor
Plays a role in Autoallergic diseases

A

IgD

166
Q

Major role in allergic response

A

IgE

167
Q

Dilates blood vessel

A

Histamine

168
Q

Increase vascular permeability and enhance release of other mediators from WBC

A

Kinins

169
Q

Affects WBC mobility and metabolism

A

Leukotrienes

170
Q

Formed in hypothalamus
Induce fever

A

Prostaglandins

171
Q

Liver protein play role im acute response

A

C-reactive protein

172
Q

Stimulates cell immune response

A

Interleukin-1

173
Q

Causes proliferation of activated T and B cells

A

Interleukin-2

174
Q

Stimulate WBC promoting growth and differentation

A

Cytokines

175
Q

Promote growth of T and B cells

A

Gamma interferon

176
Q

Promote growth of T and B cells

A

Gamma interferon

Bacte (4 decks)

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