Lent - Lecture 12 - Exchange Rates in the Classical Model Flashcards
What is the definition (equation) for the real exchange rate, ε?
- (price of home goods in home currency x nominal exchange rate) / price of foreign goods in foreign currency
- ε = eP / P*
- where the nominal exchange rate, e, is defined as units of foreign currency per unit of home currency
What are two ways in which a real appreciation of the exchange rate affect NX? Which of these do we assume to dominate?
- real appreciation ⇒ home goods more expensive ⇒ quantity of exports falls, quantity of imports rises
- real appreciation ⇒ real price of imports lower ⇒ value of imports falls
- general assumption is that the first of these dominates
Derive the Marshall Lerner condition
- NX = X - (1/ε)(M)
- d(NX)/dε = dX/dε - (1/ε)(dM/dε) + M/(ε^2)
- we will have d(NX)/dε < 0 whenever:
- 0 > (ε^2/M)(dX/dε) - (ε/M)(dM/dε) + 1
- if we are close to trade balance then X ≈ M/ε, in which case this becomes:
- −(ε/X)(dX/dε) + (ε/M)(dM/dε) > 1
- −(ε/X)(dX/dε) = η(X) > 0: elasticity of exports with respect to ε
- (ε/M)(dM/dε) = η(M) > 0: elasticity of imports with respect to ε
- so for a real appreciation to worsen NX, we need:
- η(X) + η(M) > 1
Given that NX(ε) = S - I(r*), what is the role of ε in this classical model
ε adjusts to ensure aggregate demand equals Y̅
Do we graph NX as increasing or decreasing in ε?
NX as decreasing in ε
In the Classical small open economy, what drives the equilibrating mechanism?
ε
In this model, explain what happens as G increases
- an increase in G causes an inward shift of the savings curve
- causing ε to rise and NX to contract
- increase in G by ∆G puts pressure on market for loanable funds (r)
- foreign lenders attracted to invest ⇒ capital inflows, ensuring r = r∗ still holds
- inflows cause e to appreciate ⇒ ε appreciates, until eqm restored
- note that it is NX, not I, that ends up being crowded out here!
What is the law of one price? What is the logic behind this law?
- should be no difference between price at home in home currency, and price in foreign country in foreign currency, corrected by nominal exchange rate
- p = p*/e
- logic based on arbitrage, a difference from this would lead to a profitable opportunity
What is the purchasing power parity (PPP) hypothesis?
- when the law of one price is applied to an entire basket of goods
- P = P*/e
- or in terms of ε: ε = 1
Give 2 reasons why PPP (ε = 1, P=P*/e) is unlikely to occur in the real world
- trade costs, tariffs, taxes ⇒ scope for arbitrage limited
- some goods in consumer ‘basket’ cannot be traded (haircut, restaurant meals, etc)
From the data, what is the relationship between ε and how rich the country is
apparent tendency for richer countries to have a more appreciated ε
Derive the Balassa-Samuelson effect
- suppose t of goods are tradable and (1 − t) are non-tradable
- P = t(p-t) + (1 − t)(p-nt)
- suppose also that when growth happens, it reduces costs more quickly in tradable sectors (electronics vs haircuts)
- will lead to more developed countries have higher relative price for non-tradables, p-nt /p-t (relative cost of production is higher)
- law of one price holds only in terms of tradables
- ε = eP/P* = e(t(p-t) + (1 − t)(p-nt)) / (t(p٭-t) + (1 − t)(p*-nt))
- = e(t + (1 − t)(p-nt / p-t)) / (t + (1 − t)(p٭-nt / p*-t))
- the real exchange rate will be more appreciated the higher is the relative price of home non-tradables vs tradables, compared to foreign