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a+p2 > lecture unit #3 > Flashcards

lecture unit #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Monocytes move from the systemic circulatory system into general connective tissues, where they differentiate into what phagocytic cell type?

A

macrophage

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2
Q

Removal of the ________ would be very harmful to a 1-year-old child but less so to an adult.

A

thymus

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3
Q

Which of the following cell types of the innate immune system does NOT perform phagocytosis?

A

plasma cells

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4
Q

The lymph nodes function to:

A
  • filter lymph
  • destroy and remove microorganisms
    prevent microorganisms and debris from getting into the bloodstream
  • house immune cells
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5
Q

B-cells are produced and matured in the _____ while T-cells are matured in the _____.

A

bone marrow & thymus

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6
Q

T-cell activation leads to the formation of Cytotoxic T-cells and Memory T-cells that provide:

A

cell - mediated immunity

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7
Q

Disease-causing organisms such as bacteria and viruses are correctly referred to as:

A

pathogens

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8
Q

Which of the following is an example an innate immunological defense in the respiratory system?

A

Alveolar macrophages phagocytizing pathogens

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9
Q

If the pressure is greater inside of the lungs compared to the environment, air will move:

A

out of the lungs (exhalation)

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10
Q

As CO2 builds up in the blood, this would cause:

A

pH to decrease (more acidic)

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11
Q

During carbon dioxide transport in the blood, ______ moves out of RBC, in exchange for _______.

A

HCO3-;CL-

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12
Q

The binding of oxygen in red blood cells is accomplished by?

A

hemoglobin

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13
Q

T OR F: Hemoglobin contains oxygen molecules bound to the iron atom contained within heme.

A

True

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14
Q

In reference to the equation F=▵P/R, what would happen to the the rate of flow if a patient was diagnosed with pneumonia and their air sacs became filled with mucus?

A

decrease flow

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15
Q

Viruses, bacteria, fungi and other disease causing agents can be referred to as:

A

pathogens

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16
Q

Lymph is a combination of interstitial fluid and
blank

A

cellular debris

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17
Q

Which of the following best describes the flow of lymph?

A

Tissues > lympatic vessels > vena cava

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18
Q

Which of the following is an example of a primary lymph organ?

A

thymus gland

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19
Q

Where is lymph ultimately drained?

A

lymph nodes

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20
Q

Imagine you are a foreign pathogen entering a lymph node. You are trapped and surrounded by epithelial reticular cells. What part of the lymph node are you most likely occupying?

A

medulla

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21
Q

Swollen lymph nodes in your throat indicates:

A

the rapid expansion of immune cells within the lymph node.

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the thymus?

A

site of B cell maturation

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23
Q

Lymphoid stem cells migrate from the __________ to the __________ to become __________.

A

Red bone marrow; thymus; mature T cells

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24
Q

In lymphocyte differentiation, what is the earliest progenitor cell found in red bone marrow?

A

hemocytoblast

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25
Q

________ selection ensures lymphocytes are able to respond to a foreign antigen, and ________ selection removes those that respond to self antigen

A

positive, negative

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26
Q

Which of the following types of immunity requires exposure to a pathogen to create a memory for future exposures?

A

adaptive

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27
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding innate immunity?

A

The largest component of the innate immune system is the skin.

Stomach acid is an external barrier to foreign threats.

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28
Q

Why is it important that the epidermal surface of the skin be maintained at a pH between 3-5?

A

his prevents the growth of most microorganisms on the surface of the skin.

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29
Q

Apart from the skin, select the other physical barriers which would be considered a “first line” of defense?

A

gastric acid
mucous membranes in mouth
tears
ciliated epithelium in bronchi

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30
Q

Which innate cell type is typically the first responder at the site of infection?

A

neutrophils

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31
Q

What do mast cells and basophils have in common?

A

Both secrete histamine

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32
Q

Which of the following cells attacks and kills other cells are by the release of perforins?

A

NK cells

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33
Q

Natural killer cells release __________ which triggers __________ of virally infected and/ or cancer cells.

A

perforin; cell lysis

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34
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events that a Natural Killer cell uses to destroy foreign cells?

A

Binding to foreign cell
Perforin secretion
Formation of a pore
Cell lysis

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35
Q

What is a role of macrophages in the immune response?

A

Phagocytosis of debris

Antigen presentation

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36
Q

_ at site of infection causes __, which results in phagocyte attraction to the site.

A

damaged tissue cells, Chemotaxis

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37
Q

What the is term used for the process by which enemy cells are “tagged” and made more appealing to incoming phagocytes?

A

opsonization

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38
Q

Imagine a pathogen enters your lungs as you breathe. In chronological order, list the events that occur as it pertains to how a macrophage responds to this pathogen.

A

Macrophage is drawn to the site by chemotaxis
Macrophage physically interacts with the pathogen
Macrophage produces pseudopodia that extend around the pathogen
Pseudopodia fuse the pathogen within a vesicle which forms a phagosome
The phagosome is internalized and fuses with a lysosome
The lysosome contains proteases and toxic chemicals that destroy the pathogen
Parts of the pathogen are presented on the surface of the cell complexed with MHC to become an antigen-presenting cell

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39
Q

Which of the following is NOT a result of the complement system?

A

atrophy

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40
Q

During inflammation, which is NOT a physiological effect caused by chemical mediators?

A

Vasoconstriction at the site of infection

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41
Q

Inflammation can be:

A

Good because it brings more blood and immune cells to the area to fight infection/injury.

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42
Q

_______________ utilizes memory cells and antibodies to adapt to a given pathogen and destroy it more easily during a second exposure, while ____________uses more general defenses to respond to pathogens.

A

Adaptive immunity; innate immunity

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43
Q

match cells

A

basophils - releases histamines; results in allergies and anaphylaxis

eosinophils - effective against parasites

macrophages - performs phagocytosis and presents antigens on its cell membrane

NK cells - secretes perforins to break down cell membranes of target pathogen

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44
Q

match cells

A

basophils - releases histamines; results in allergies and anaphylaxis

eosinophils - effective against parasites

macrophages - performs phagocytosis and presents antigens on its cell membrane

NK cells - secretes perforins to break down cell membranes of target pathogen

45
Q

Your innate immune response __ while the adaptive response is __.

A

acts quickly because the components are already working; slower because it requires specific cells to divide and create a memory

46
Q

All human cells except erythrocytes have __________ on their surface.

A

MHC Class 1

47
Q

What are the three common types of “professional” antigen-presenting cells in humans?

A

Macrophages, Dendritic Cells, B-lymphocytes

48
Q

In chronological order, list the process by which cells with MHC I can present antigens on their surface.

A

Foreign antigen enters the cell
Foreign antigen is degraded into small peptide fragments
Peptide fragments are transported to the endoplasmic reticulum
Peptide fragments are loaded onto the surface of MHC I proteins and presented on the cell surface

49
Q

Cellular immunity is _______-mediated, and humoral immunity is ______-mediated.

A

cell, antibody

50
Q

T OR F: B cells are considered antigen presenting cells that perform the function of antigen presentation in humoral immunity.

A

TRUE

51
Q

Antibodies:

A

Have the ability to recognize antigens that a person has never been exposed to before.

52
Q

Place the steps of antigen-antibody interaction in the correct order.
Drag and drop options into corr

A

Antigen neutralization - antibodies cover and block the surface of an antigen
Antigen agglutination - antigens are comped together by antibodies
Antigen precipitation - antigens become more recognizable by macrophages
Complement activation and Lymphocyte Recruitment - cell lysis and apoptosis occurs

53
Q

During B-cell activation, helper T-cells:

A

Bind B-cells and activate them to divide and produce plasma and memory cells.

54
Q

Memory cells:

A

Produce the second immune response.

55
Q

When activated as part of a primary immune response, specific B-lymphocytes:

A

Undergo cell division.

Differentiate into plasma cells.

Differentiate into memory cells.

56
Q

Cytotoxic T-cells recognize antigens presented by ______ on its ______.

A

An infected cell; MHC I protein

57
Q

Cytotoxic T cells are activated by docking with ________ on the surface of infected cells, while helper T calls are activated by docking with ________ on the surface of B Cells.

A

MHC I; MHC II

58
Q

Cytotoxic T cells perform a “lethal hit” to destroy a pathogen cell or an infected self cell. Select all the components of this “lethal hit”.Cytokines

A

Cytokines

Perforins

Lymphotoxin

59
Q

Working in the lab one day, you are given a flask of cells and asked to identify what type of cells they are. Upon the addition of an antigen into the cell culture media, you detect that the cells release antibodies to this antigen. What type of cells are in the plate?

A

Plasma B lymphocytes

60
Q

Which cells produce the “lethal hit”? And what type of immunity would you expect this to occur?

A

Cytotoxic T lymphocytes; cellular immunity

61
Q

__ cells produce antibodies used for the __ immune response.

A

Plasma B lymphocytes; humoral

62
Q

T OR F: Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) I allows for all nucleated cells to present a self antigen and signal to T-cells that they are infected.

A

T

63
Q

Select all that apply. Where would you find MHC II?

A

B lymphocytes

Dendritic cells

Macrophages

64
Q

Match the type of T-cell to the MHC complex it will bind to.

A

helper t - MHC II on professional antigen presenting cells
cytotoxic t lymphocyte - MHC I on cells infected by some pathogen

65
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?

A

Maintain temperature homeostasis

66
Q

Respiration is best described as ________.

A

Exchange of gas across cells/membranes

67
Q

Sort these structures into the correct pathway for air entering the lungs from the atmosphere.

A

Exchange of gas across cells/membranes

68
Q

Match the respiratory organ with the correct zone it is found in.

A

Nose
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles
Alveoli

69
Q

Match the respiratory organ with the correct zone it is found in.

A

Nose
Conducting zone
Nasal cavity
Conducting zone
Trachea
Conducting zone
Bronchioles
Conducting zone
Pharynx
Conducting zone
Larynx
Conducting zone
Alveoli
Respiratory zone
Respiratory bronchioles
Respiratory zone

70
Q

Which tissue traps debris in the trachea and moves them to the pharynx?

A

mucociliary escalator

71
Q

What would likely happen if a person had poorly functioning mucous membranes throughout their respiratory tract?

A

The person would be at increased risk of respiratory infections.

72
Q

Which of the following contains a layer of smooth muscle?

A

bronchioles

73
Q

The majority of cells in the alveoli are:

A

Squamous epithelial cells

74
Q

Which of the following is the best definition of the role of surfactant in respiration?

A

Surfactant allows for alveoli to expand more easily

75
Q

Which of the following processes does not involve diffusion of oxygen?

A

Ventilation

76
Q

Which of the following is true about volume and pressure?

A

An increase in volume causes a decrease in pressure

A decrease in volume causes an increase in pressure

77
Q

If a gas volume and amount are constant, how does the pressure change if the temperature increases?

A

it increases

78
Q

What happens when the diaphragm contracts?

A

Air enters the alveoli

79
Q

What is the pressure inside the alveoli between breaths if the atmospheric pressure is 760 mm Hg?

A

760 mmHg

80
Q

What happens when air is flowing out of the lungs and into the atmosphere?

A

The pressure in the trachea becomes higher than the pressure in the pharynx.

81
Q

Expiration mainly occurs as a result of contraction of the ______________

A

Expiration is not caused by muscle contraction

82
Q

When breathing under conditions of exertion, which of the following tend to increase?

A

Volume of air inhaled/exhaled

Flow rate

83
Q

If you were just injected with an Epi-pen, your bronchioles would become dilated. This would then __ resistance, and therefore ___ flow of air through your respiratory system.

A

decrease, increase

84
Q

How would decreasing the number of alveoli available affect the flow of gases?

A

decrease flow

85
Q

Which of the following would increase resistance to ventilation flow?

A

Bronchoconstriction

Decreased surfactant

Decreased number of alveoli

Decreased respiratory rate

86
Q

Which of the following would increase flow?

A

Bronchodilation

Increased surfactant

Increased number of alveoli

Increased respiratory rate

87
Q

When the diaphragm contracts:

A

Thoracic volume increases, decreasing pressure

88
Q

Sort the steps of ventilation starting with inhalation

A

Diaphragm contracts
Thoracic volume increases
Thoracic volume decreases
Air particles move in the lungs
Diaphragm relaxes
Thoracic volume decreases
Thoracic volume increases
Air moves out of lungs

89
Q

If you were just injected with an Epi-pen, your bronchioles would become dilated. This would then __ resistance, and therefore ___ flow of air through your respiratory system.

A

decrease, increase

90
Q

Which of the following would increase resistance to ventilation flow?

A

Bronchoconstriction

Decreased surfactant

Decreased number of alveoli

Decreased respiratory rate

91
Q

Which of the following would increase flow?

A

Bronchodilation

Increased surfactant

Increased number of alveoli

Increased respiratory rate

92
Q

Where does gas exchange occur?

A

Respiratory zone of the lower respiratory tract

93
Q

Which process best describes how O2 moves from the alveoli in the lungs to the blood capillaries?

A

simple diffusion

94
Q

Diffusion of a gas occurs more quickly if ______________

A

The partial pressure gradient is large.

95
Q

If you have a mixture with only oxygen and carbon dioxide dissolved, where P(O_{2}) = 5 mmHG and P(CO_{2}) = 10 mmHg, what is the total pressure of the mixture?

A

15 mmHg

96
Q

The P_{O2} in the alveoli is ________ than the P_{O2} in the atmosphere and ________ than the P_{O2} in body tissues.

A

Less, greater

97
Q

Blood has a PCO2 of 40 mm Hg. The tissue has a PCO2 of 46 mm Hg and a PO2 of 35 mm Hg. Given this information you know ____________ will move from the _________ to the ________.

A

CO2; tissue; blood

98
Q

Choose which statements are accurate regarding gas exchange.

A

O_2 is at a higher concentration in blood than body tissues
b
CO_2 is at a higher concentration in exhaled air than inhaled air.
d
CO_2 is at a lower concentration in the alveoli than the pulmonary veins

99
Q

In order to determine the amount of gas dissolved in a liquid, you need both the partial pressure of the gas, and its ________.

A

solubility
solubility coefficient

100
Q

How many molecules of oxygen can one hemoglobin molecule carry when fully saturated?

A

4

101
Q

Besides on hemoglobin, how else is O2 transported from the lungs to the tissue?

A

Dissolved in the blood plasma

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT a way that carbon dioxide is transported in blood?

A

bound to albumins

103
Q

Most of oxygen is transported in blood via ___ while most of carbon dioxide is transported in blood via _.

A

Hemoglobin; Bicarbonate Ions

104
Q

If both O2 and CO2 are present, which one will bind to hemoglobin?

A

O2

105
Q

Carbon dioxide more readily binds to hemoglobin that is deoxygenated. This describes the:

A

haldane effect

106
Q

Increasing pH ________ hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen.

A

Increases

107
Q

Which of the following is the body more sensitive to?

A

Changes in blood CO2 levels

108
Q

Central chemoreceptors are located in the ________ and are sensitive to ________.

A

Brainstem; pH

109
Q

match

A

Dorsal respiratory group - Involuntary adaptations based on pH and levels of CO2

Pontine Respiratory Group - Play roles in the voluntary initiation of inspiration and expiration.

Ventral Respiratory Group - Responsible for producing the primary involuntary respiratory pattern.

a+p2 (4 decks)

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