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Microbiology > Lecture Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Lecture Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Metabolism?

A

the SUM of the chemical reactions in an organism

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2
Q

What is Catabolism?

A

the energy-RELEASING processes (break down)

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3
Q

What is Anabolism?

A

the energy-USING processes (build up)

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4
Q

What provides the building blocks and energy for anabolism?

A

Catabolism

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5
Q

What is Metabolic Pathway?

A

a SEQUENCE of enzymatically catalyzed chemical reactions in a cell

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6
Q

How are metabolic pathways determined?

A

by enzymes

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7
Q

What encodes enzymes?

A

genes

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8
Q

What is the Collision Theory?

A

states that chemical reactions can occur when atoms, ions, and molecules COLLIDE

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9
Q

What type of energy is needed to DISRUPT electronic configurations?

A

ACTIVATION energy

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10
Q

What is Refraction rate?

A

FREQUENCY of collision with enough energy to bring about a reaction

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11
Q

How can refraction rate be increased?

A
  1. increasing enzymes

2. increasing temperature or pressure

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12
Q

What is a Biological catalyst?

A
  • substrate specific (reacts to one particular cite)

- not used ip in that reaction

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13
Q

What is Apoenzyme?

A

protein

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14
Q

What is Cofactor?

A

nonprotein component

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15
Q

What are 2 types of cofactors?

A
  1. coenzyme

2. holoenzyme

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16
Q

What is Coenzyme?

A

organic cofactor

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17
Q

What is holoenzyme?

A

apoenzyme plus cofactor

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18
Q

Name 4 important coenzymes.

A
  1. NAD+
  2. NADP+
  3. FAD
  4. Coenzyme A
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19
Q

Coenzymes are what type of carriers?

A

electron carriers

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20
Q

What is the turnover number for enzymes?

A

1-10,000 molecules per second

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21
Q

most enzymes end with what?

A

ase

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22
Q

Name 5 Enzyme Classification.

A
  1. phosphatase
  2. polymerase
  3. amylase
  4. protease
  5. ligase
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23
Q

What is the function of Phosphatase?

A

removes phosphates

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24
Q

What is the function of Polymerase?

A

add nucleotides to make polymers

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25
Q

What is the function of Amylase?

A

breaks down starch

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26
Q

What is the function of Protease?

A

breaks down protein

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27
Q

What is the function of Ligase?

A

joining of molecules, uses ATP

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28
Q

What are some examples of non-ase enzymes?

A

pepcid, triptin, bromelin

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29
Q

How can enzymes be denatured?

A

denatured by:

  • temperature
  • pH
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30
Q

Do enzymes speed up when it’s hot?

A

YES

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31
Q

What are the four levels of temperature?

A
  • 1 degree
  • 2 degree
  • 3 degree
  • 4 degree
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32
Q

What happens to enzymes when it is cold?

A

SLOWS down

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33
Q

What is oxidation?

A

REMOVAL of electrons (O.I.L.)

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34
Q

What is reduction?

A

GAIN of electrons (R.I.G.)

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35
Q

What is redox reaction?

A

an oxidation reaction paired with a reduction reaction

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36
Q

In biological systems, electrons are often associated with what?

A

HYDROGEN ATOMS

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37
Q

Are Biological oxidations often dehydrogenations?

A

YES

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38
Q

How is ATP generated?

A

it is generated by the PHOSPHORYLATION of ADP

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39
Q

What is Substrate-level phosphorylation?

A

the transfer of a HIGH-energy PO4- to ADP

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40
Q

What is Oxidative Phosphorylation?

A

Energy released from the transfer of electrons (oxidation) of one compound to another (reduction) is used to generate ATP by chemiosmosis.

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41
Q

Light causes what to give up electrons?

A

Chlorophyll

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42
Q

What is photophosphorylation?

A

Energy released from the transfer of electrons (oxidation) of chlorophyll through a system of CARRIER MOLECULES is used to generate ATP.

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43
Q

What are the three steps of Carbohydrate Catabolism (to release energy)?

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Krebs cycle
  3. Electron transport chain
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44
Q

What is Glycolysis?

A

The oxidation of glucose to PYRUVIC acid produces ATP and NADH

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45
Q

What is the universal pathway?

A

Glycolysis

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46
Q

What is the Preparatory stage?

A

2 ATPs are used to initiate the process (going to burn)

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47
Q

What is the Energy-Conserving stage?

A
  • end result is the production of 2 Pyruvic acids (pyruvate)
  • 4 ATP produced (net production of 2)
  • 2 NADH produced
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48
Q

What liberates electrons for an electron transport chain?

A

Oxidation of molecules

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49
Q

Majority of ATP is generated by what?

A

Oxidative phosphorylation

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50
Q

What happens to Pyruvic acid during the intermediate step?

A

Oxidized and decarboxylated

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51
Q

How many NADH re produced during the intermediate step?

A

2

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52
Q

What happens during the Krebs Cycle?

A

Oxidation of acetyl CoA produces NADH and FADH2 and ATP

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53
Q

What happens during the electron transport chain?

A

A series of carrier molecules that are, in turn, oxidized and reduced as electrons are passed down the chain

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54
Q

Energy released in the ETC can be used to produce by ATP through what ?

A

Chemiosmosis

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55
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

The final electron acceptor in the ETC is MOLECULAR OXYGEN (O2)

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56
Q

What is anaerobic respiration?

A

The final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain is NOT O2.

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57
Q

Why does anaerobic respiration yields less energy than Aerobic respiration?

A

Because only part of the Krebs cycles operations unders anaerobic conditions

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58
Q

What is the product of the electron acceptor, NO3-? (During anaerobic respiration)

A

NO2-, N2 + H2O

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59
Q

What is the product of the electron acceptor, SO4-? (During anaerobic respiration)

A

H2S + H2O

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60
Q

What is the product of the electron acceptor, CO3^2-? (During anaerobic respiration)

A

CH4+ H2O

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61
Q

What is fermentation?

A
  • releases energy from oxidation of organic molecules
  • DOES NOT REQUIRE OXYGEN
  • DOES NOT USE THE KREBS CYCLE
  • USES an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor
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62
Q

What is alcohol fermentation?

A

Produces ethyl alcohol and CO2

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63
Q

What is lactic acid fermentation?

A

Produces lactic acid

64
Q

What are the two different types of lactic acid fermentation?

A
  1. Homolactic fermentation

2. Heterolactic fermentation

65
Q

What is homolactic fermentation?

A

Produces LACTIC ACID ONLY

66
Q

What is heterolactic fermentation?

A

Produces lactic acid and other compounds

67
Q

What color indicated a positive fermentation test during fermentation?

A

Yellow

68
Q

What are biochemical tests used for?

A
  • to identity bacteria

- look for products of enzymatic reactions

69
Q

What does halo bacterium use to generate electrons for a chemiosmotic proton pump?

A

Bacteriorhodopsin NOT chlorophyll

70
Q

What is Microbial Growth?

A

Is the increase in NUMBER of cells, NOT size

71
Q

What is a physical requirement for microbial growth?

A

Temperature

72
Q

What are three types of temperature in microbial growth?

A
  1. Minimum growth temperature
  2. Optimum growth temperature (best time to grow)
  3. Maximum growth temperature (can be tolerated)
73
Q

What are 5 categories of temperature?

A
  1. Psychrophiles
  2. Psychotrophs
  3. Mesophiles
  4. Thermophiles
  5. Psychotrophs
74
Q

What is psychrophiles?

A

like it cold, just below freezing, ~20 degrees Celsius

75
Q

What is psychrotrophs?

A
  • grow between 0 degrees Celsius to 20 and up o 30 degrees Celsius
  • prefer ROOM temperature
  • tolerate cold
  • cause FOOD SPOILAGE
76
Q

What is Mesophiles?

A

Prefer moderately warm temperatures, ~20-45 degree Celsius

77
Q

What is Thermophiles?

A

Like it HOT, ~50-70 degrees Celsius

78
Q

What is psychrotrophs?

A
  • grow between 0 degrees Celsius and 20-30 degrees Celsius

- cause food spoilage

79
Q

Between what ph levels do most bacteria grow?

A

pH 6.5 and 7.5

80
Q

Between what ph levels do molds and yeasts grow?

A

pH 5 and 6

81
Q

What type of environment do acidophiles grow in?

A

Acidic environments

82
Q

Hypertonic environments increase what to cause plasmolysis? (During osmotic pressure)

A

Salt or sugar

83
Q

What type of halophile require high osmotic pressure?

A

High or obligate halophiles

84
Q

What type of halophiles tolerate high osmotic pressure?

A

Facultative

85
Q

What are halophiles ?

A
  • salt loving
86
Q

How much percent of salt (halophiles) concentration do we have in our body?

A

~0.9%

87
Q

How much percent of salt (halophiles) concentration are in the ocean?

A

~3%

88
Q

How much percent of salt (halophiles) concentration in Dead Sea and Great Salt Lake?

A

~15-30%

89
Q

What are the 4 chemical requirements for microbial growth?

A
  1. carbon
  2. N, S, P
  3. trace elements
  4. organic growth factors
90
Q

What is carbon?

A
  • backbone of all molecules
  • structural organic molecules, energy source
  • chemoheterotrophs use organic carbon sources
91
Q

Do autotrophs use CO2?

A

YES

92
Q

What do N, S, P stand for?

A

Nitrogen, sulfur, phosphorus

93
Q

What are trace elements?

A
  • inorganic elements required in small amounts

- usually as enzyme cofactors

94
Q

What are 4 toxic forms of oxygen?

A
  1. Singlet oxygen
  2. Superoxide free radicals
  3. Peroxide anion
  4. Hydroxyl radical
95
Q

What is Singlet oxygen?

A

O2 boosted to a higher-energy state

96
Q

What is superoxide free radicals?

A
  • O2- (refer to picture on the packet)

- uses superoxide dismutase

97
Q

What is peroxide anion?

A
  • O2^2- (refer to picture in the packet)

- uses catalase and peroxidase

98
Q

What is organic growth factors?

A
  • organic compounds obtained from the environment

- vitamins, amino acids, purines, and pyrimidase

99
Q

What is a culture medium?

A

Nutrients prepared for microbial growth

100
Q

Define sterile.

A

No living microbes

101
Q

Define inoculum.

A

Introduction of microbes into medium

102
Q

Define culture.

A

Microbes are growing in/on culture medium

103
Q

Define agar.

A
  • complex polysaccharide
  • used as solidifying agent for culture media I. Petri plates, slants, and deeps
  • generally NOT metabolized by microbes
  • Liquifies at 100 degrees Celsius
  • solidifies at ~40 degrees Celsius
104
Q

What is a chemically defined media?

A
  • SYNTHETHIC

- exact chemical composition is known

105
Q

Why is complex media?

A
  • NON-SYNTHETIC
  • extracts and digests of yeasts, meat or plants
  • nutrient broth
  • nutrient agar
106
Q

List one anaerobic culture method.

A

Reducing media

107
Q

What happens while reducing media?

A
  • contain chemicals (thioglycollate or oxyrase) that combine O2
  • heated to grove off O2
108
Q

What are 2 canophiles that require high CO2?

A
  • candle jar

- CO2 packet

109
Q

What is selective media?

A

Suppress unwanted microbes and encourage desired microbes

110
Q

What is differential media?

A

Make it east to distinguish COLONIES of different microbes (from one to another)

111
Q

What is a colony?

A
  • Aka Colony-Forming Unit (CFU)

- a population of cells arising from one single cell or spore or from a group of attached cells

112
Q

How many species or strains does a pure culture contain?

A

ONE

113
Q

What is a streak plate?

A

technique for separating bacteria to obtain discrete, isolated colonies

114
Q

What are some ways to preserve bacteria cultures?

A
  • deep freezing

- lyophilization

115
Q

What is the temperature for deep freezing?

A

-50 to -95 degrees celsius

116
Q

What is the temperature for lyophilization?

A

-54 to -72 degrees celsius

117
Q

What is lyophilization?

A

freeze-drying

118
Q

What happens in reproduction in prokaryotes?

A
  • binary fission
  • budding
  • conidiospores (actinomycetes)
  • fragmentation of filaments
119
Q

What is a batch culture?

A

closed system, nothing added or removed

120
Q

What are the 4 phases of exponential growth curve?

A
  1. lag
  2. log
  3. stationary
  4. death
121
Q

What happens in lag? ( during exponential growth curve)

A

bacteria gearing up metabolically

122
Q

What happens in log? ( during exponential growth curve)

A

division begins, exponential

123
Q

What happens in stationary? ( during exponential growth curve)

A
  • state equilibrium balance between death and growing cells
  • nutrients being used up, wastes accumulating
  • cells surviving not dividing, endospores forming
124
Q

What are persisters?

A
  • DORMANT cells
  • NOT a spore
  • antibiotic tolerant
125
Q

What happens in death? ( during exponential growth curve)

A

cells aging, starving, toxic environment

126
Q

What does the graph represent?

A

closed system of BATCH CULTURE

127
Q

What is chemostat?

A

Continuous culture - Fresh nutrients and media added while some culture removed

128
Q

When is the continual state of exponential growth?

A

Chemostat

129
Q

What are plate counts?

A

Perform serial dilutions of a sample

130
Q

Where do u inoculate petri plates from?

A

Serial dilutions

131
Q

After incubation, how many colonies are there supposed to be?

A

25-250 but we use 30-300 CFUs

132
Q

What is the flow of genetic information?

A

DNA -> RNA -> protein

133
Q

What is genetics?

A

The study of what genes are, how they carry information, how information is expressed, and how genes are replicated

134
Q

What is a gene?

A

A segment of DNA that encodes a functional product, usually a PROTEIN

135
Q

What is a genome?

A

All of the genetic material in a cell

136
Q

What is genomics?

A

The molecular study of genomes

137
Q

What is genotype?

A

Genes of an organism

138
Q

What is phenotype?

A

Expression of the gene

139
Q

What is DNA?

A
  • double helix associated with proteins
  • stands are held together by hydrogen bonds between AT and CG
  • strands are ANTIPARALLEL
140
Q

What is the backbone of DNA?

A

Deoxyribose-phosphate

141
Q

What are the 4 polymer of nucleotides in DNA?

A

adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine

142
Q

What enzyme is used to copy DNA?

A

DNA polymerase

143
Q

What direction is DNA being copied by?

A

5’ -> 3’

144
Q

What is leading strand?

A

Synthesized CONTINUOUSLY

145
Q

What is lagging strand?

A

Synthesized DISCONTINUOUSLY

146
Q

What type of fragments are used when DNA is being copied ?

A

Okazaki fragments

147
Q

What happens to RNA primers and Okazaki fragments while DNA is being copied?

A

RNA primers are REMOVED. And Okazaki fragments are JOINED by DNA polymerase and DNA ligase

148
Q

What type of replication is DNA ?

A

SEMICONSERVATIVE

149
Q

What happens during Transcription?

A

DNA is transcribed to make RNA (mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA)

150
Q

When does transcription begins?

A

When RNA polymerase bungs to the PROMOTER SEQUENCE

151
Q

Does the transcription process proceed in the 5’ -> 3’ direction?

A

YES

152
Q

When does transcription stop?

A

When it reaches the TERMINATOR SEQUENCE

153
Q

mRNA is translated in what ?

A

Codons (3 nucleotides)

154
Q

Translation of mRNA begins at the what start codon?

A

AUG

155
Q

Translation ends at what stop codon?

A

UAA, UAG. UGA

Microbiology (11 decks)

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