Lecture MT 1 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the term for immature cells in the peripheral pool?

A

shift to the left

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2
Q

What is the most common adulthood leukemia?

A

CLL

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3
Q

What leukemia has smudge cells?

A

CLL

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4
Q

The study of blood and its formed elements is termed ____

A

hematology

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5
Q

What are the 3 major criteria for polycythemia vera?

A
  • splenomegaly
  • normal O2 sat
  • ^RBC mass
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6
Q

What test is used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemias?

A

DAT/Coomb’s test

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7
Q

Total WBCs multiplied by the percent of cell type is called ____, and should be considered when evaluating a WBC differential for disease.

A

absolute concentration

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8
Q

Hemophilia B is a deficiency in what factor?

A

IX

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9
Q

What is the main storage form of iron?

A

Ferritin

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10
Q

What is the most useful test in evaluating iron status?

A

Ferritin

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11
Q

What type of test is used to evaluate the course of a disease, effectiveness of drug therapies, and/or detect complications?

A

monitoring

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12
Q

What test is used to monitor warfarin (coumadin) therapy?

A

prothrombin time (PT)

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13
Q

What test is used to evaluate the extrinsic and common pathways?

A

Prothrombin time (PT)

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14
Q

What is the primary regulator of erythropoiesis?

A

EPO
(produced in kidney)

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15
Q

A WBC count greater than 50,000 cubic millimetres with the WBC differential showing more than 5% immature cells which is not neoplastic is called ____

A

leukemoid reaction

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16
Q

What wintrobe indices is most commonly used to classify anemia?

A

MCV

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17
Q

What wintrobe indices evaluate the average red blood cell size and volume?

A

MCV

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18
Q

OSHA recommends ____ precautions to be followed when working with blood or bodily fluids

A

universal

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19
Q

Heparin exhibits an anticoagulant effect by working with which inhibitor of coagulation?

A

antithrombin 3
(ATIII)

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20
Q

What is the best lab test to monitor patients on heparin therapy?

A

APTT

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21
Q

The most common cause of neutrophilia is ____

A

bacterial infection / tissue necrosis

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22
Q

Hemoglobin A2 over what percent is diagnostic for beta thalassemia minor?

A

5%

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23
Q

What thalassemia is also called Cooleys Anemia?

A

beta thalassemia major

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24
Q

What coagulation test would be elevated in a patient with DIC due to the body’s attempt to lyse the abnormal clotting?

A

D-Dimer OR fibrin split products

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25
Q

What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)?

A

systemic activation of coagulation with widespread thrombosis consumes platelets & fibrinogen resulting in hemorrhage

26
Q

What determines the mean reference range from a sample of individuals in a lab test?

A

Gaussian Standard Deviation

27
Q

What statistical concept is used to calculate normal reference ranges?

A

Gaussian distribution

28
Q

What 2-part test was historically used for patients suspected of having pernicious anemia or malabsorption?

A

Schilling’s test

29
Q

One hemoglobin molecule consists of how many loosely bound globin chains?

30
Q

How are globin chains of a hemoglobin molecule arranged?

A

2 pairs:
- 2 alpha chains
- 2 of another type

31
Q

What statistical analysis term refers to the ability of a lab test to give normal results in a patient without a particular disease thus avoiding a false positive?

A

specificity

32
Q

What is the most reliable measure of RBC production rate?

A

reticulocyte count

33
Q

Which anemia is a RBC hypoproliferative disorder?

A

ACD (anemia of chronic disease)

34
Q

What terms of RBC morphology would apply to RBC indices findings on patients with ACD?

A

normocytic
normochromic

35
Q

What leukemia has Auer rods?

36
Q

What term applies to lab testing done when a patient is not ill and the results can usually offer a better reference value than standard normal ranges in interpreting a patient’s data?

A

baseline values

37
Q

What tests for the presence of hemoglobin in stool?

A

Guaiac/occult blood/hemoccult test

38
Q

What is the iron transport protein?

A

transferrin

39
Q

What reflects the rate of iron delivery to tissues?

A

transferrin

40
Q

What finding on RBC indices would indicate a macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia?

41
Q

What wintrobe indices evaluates the uniformity of RBC size and shape?

A

RDW (Red cell distribution width)

42
Q

What inhibits vitamin K dependent gamma carboxylation?

43
Q

What value allows for comparison from one lab to another to monitor a stable dose of a patient’s coumadin (warfarin)

A

INR (international normalized ratio)

44
Q

In primary hemostasis, the aggregation of additional platelets is mediated by what?

A

glycoprotein IIb & IIIa

45
Q

What anemia has Heinz bodies?

A

G6P deficiency

46
Q

What type of lab test looks for evidence of disease in asymptomatic people?

47
Q

Intrinsic coagulation protein activation activates what to convert factor XII to XIIa?

A

contact phase protein

48
Q

What test is used to evaluate the intrinsic and common pathways?

A

(activated) Partial thromboplastin time (APTT / PTT)

49
Q

What are the findings for RBCs, WBCs, and platelets in a patient with aplastic anemia?

A

all decreased

50
Q

What lab testing is currently most useful in confirming or ruling out pernicious anemia, replacing Schilling test?

A

Anti Parietal Cell Antibodies and Anti-Intrinsic Factor Antibodies

51
Q

What bleeding disorder would have lab results of increased APTT, normal PT, and a deficiency in factor VIII?

A

hemophilia A
(aaaaate = factor 8)

52
Q

What test evaluates the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and can be used to assess dysfibrinogenemia?

A

thrombin time

53
Q

What test assesses the quantity of platelets?

A

platelet count

54
Q

What test is an in-vivo assessment of platelet function assessing the adhesion and aggregation, and detects qualitative defects?

A

bleeding time (BT)

55
Q

Name the vitamin K dependent coagulation factors.

A
  • II (prothrombin)
  • VII
  • IX
  • X
56
Q

In the presence of heparin, what vitamin K-dependent factors are inhibited by ATIII?

A

II, IX, X
(NOT VII)

57
Q

What causes macrocytic (megaloblastic) anemia?

A

B12/folate deficiency

58
Q

What are the 4 steps of primary hemostasis?

A
  1. Adhesion to collagen
  2. Release of platelet contents
  3. Aggregation of additional platelets
  4. Provision of Phospholipid surface
59
Q

Name 4 hemolytic tests.

A
  • ^LDH
  • ^Total bilirubin
  • ^reticulocytes
  • decreased haptoglobin
60
Q

What are the lab findings for anemia of chronic disease?

A
  • low serum Fe
  • low TIBC
  • low O2 sat
  • normal ferritin