Lab Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

What enzyme is found in the liver and bone?

A

alkaline phosphatase (ALP)

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2
Q

Which 2 tests from the chemistry profile can be used to assess liver and/or striated muscle (cardiac etc.)?

A

AST and LDH

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3
Q

How is bilirubin formed?

A

degradation of hemoglobin

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4
Q

What type of bilirubin can be detected in the urine?

A

conjugated/direct

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5
Q

____ bilirubin is prehepatic and not water soluble.

A

unconjugated

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6
Q

____ bilirubin is hepatic and water soluble.

A

conjugated

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7
Q

What are the tests for renal function?

A

BUN
creatinine

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8
Q

____ is produced by protein catabolism in the liver, but used to assess the kidneys (renal clearance), and is affected by dietary protein intake.

A

BUN

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9
Q

What are the fasting blood glucose levels for pre-diabetes and diabetes?

A

pre = 100-125 mg/dL
diabetes = 126+ mg/dL

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10
Q

What type of hypoglycemia is characterized by loss of glycemic control, often due to misuse of insulin therapy?

A

Fasting

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11
Q

What laboratory test is used to assess for glycemic control, diagnosis and monitoring of diabetes mellitus?

A

fasting blood glucose (FBG)

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12
Q

What chemistry profile test is most subject to increase due to hemolysis?

A

potassium (K+)

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13
Q

According to the ADA, which test is most beneficial in monitoring long-term (6-8 weeks) glycemic control?

A

HgbA1c

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14
Q

What are the relevant lab findings for hyperparathyroidism?

A
  • ^Ca++
  • ⬇️PO4
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15
Q

What are the relevant chemistry profile findings for blastic metastasis?

A

^ALP

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16
Q

What are the relevant chemistry profile findings for lytic metastasis?

A

^calcium
⬇️phosphate

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17
Q

What serological test can give evidence of a past Strep infection (weeks or months after infection) that was not initially diagnosed?

A

ASO (anti-streptolysin O)

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18
Q

All serologic tests are based on what 2 types of serologic principles?

A
  • tests to detect antibody production
  • tests to detect antigen production
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19
Q

What immunologic test is a sensitive marker of inflammation?

A

CRP (most sensitive APR; not specific)

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20
Q

Pregnancy tests use immunologic principles by detecting the presence of what placental hormone in blood or urine?

21
Q

What antibody is detected in the patient’s blood when testing for infectious mononucleosis (Mono or EBV)?

A

heterophile antibodies

22
Q

What antigen is incorporated in the test kit for infectious mononucleosis?

A

Paul-Bunnell antigens
(used to find heterophile antibodies)

23
Q

What test is performed directly from a patient throat swab to detect strep pyogenes?

A

Rapid group A Strep

24
Q

What antigen is detected in the patient sample in a positive case of strep pyogenes?

A

carbohydrate A
(rapid group A strep test)

25
Q

A throat swab for rapid group A test looks for evidence of what etiologic agent?

A

strep pyogenes

26
Q

In testing for RA, we are looking for RF. How would you describe Rheumatoid Factor (RF)?

A

an IgM autoantibody that binds with the Fc region of patient’s normally circulating IgG (acting as the antigen)

27
Q

This special procedure uses a reaction well coated with an antibody that will react with an antigen in the patient’s serum. A second antibody conjugated with an enzyme is then added to evidence the immune complex formation.

A

ELISA-Sandwich enzyme immunoassay

28
Q

ELISA testing is utilized to screen for what antigen which is the initial screening test for HIV?

A

P24 antigen
(earliest detector of HIV)

29
Q

Give an example of a commonly ordered lab test that utilizes the basic principles of flow cytometry.

A

CBC
(greatest or most used)

30
Q

Give an example of a specific lab test that utilizes flow cytometry analysis of cell markers in the monitoring of an immunocompromised patient.

A

CD4:CD8 ratio

31
Q

What special procedure amplifies DNA by sequentially copying small fragments cut from the original sample using restriction enzymes?

32
Q

In a patient with Hepatitis C, what special procedure can be used to monitor the patient and the response to therapy by determining their viral load?

A

Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR)

33
Q

What special procedure incorporates both immunologic and electrophoretic principles?

A

Western blot

34
Q

Western blot testing allows visualization of ____ by incubation of the strip with an alkaline phosphatase substrate.

A

reactive bands
(= reagent strip + pt serum)

35
Q

The initial screening for Lyme disease is done using ELISA antibody detection method. Any positive test for Lyme disease is confirmed and better evaluated with what test?

A

Western blot
(Lyme Dz has high false positive rate)

36
Q

What type of bilirubin is detected by routine urinalysis?

A

Direct or conjugated

37
Q

If the chem strip shows positive finding for blood, what are 4 possible causes?

A
  • trauma
  • renal system infection
  • renal calculi
  • renal/bladder carcinoma
38
Q

Microscopic findings of RBC casts are indicative of ____

A

glomerular nephritis
(positive: blood, protein, RBC, WBC, casts)

39
Q

Can the chem strip determine any type of WBC?

40
Q

What specific leukocytes (WBC) can be tested on a chem strip?

A

neutrophil

41
Q

What positive chemistries on a urine test strip determine the need for a microscopic exam?

A
  • protein
  • blood
  • leukocytes esterase
  • nitrite
42
Q

What positive urinalysis findings may be considered normal?

A
  • protein in presence of bacteria or mucous, or w/ strenuous exercise
  • crystals after sample sits for a while
43
Q

What is the best diagnosis for a patient with the following urinalysis and microscopic analysis findings:
Colour: amber
Blood: 2+
Protein: Trace
RBC/HPF: 15-20
Crystals: 2+ uric acid

A

renal calculi

44
Q

What is the renal threshold of glucose?

45
Q

What are the 3 parts of a routine urinalysis? (list in order)

A
  • physical
  • chemical
  • microscopic
46
Q

What abnormal protein is associated with the formation of urinary casts?

A

Tamm-Horsfall protein

47
Q

What other sample is compared to bilirubin?

A

urobilinogen

48
Q

If the patient comes with specific symptoms of a UTI, what collection of urine could you use that will be sterile?

A

midstream clean catch

49
Q

Bonus

A

flow cytometry
10