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vtt 117 - surgical tech > lecture exam 1 > Flashcards

lecture exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

how is rust formed? what is it also called?

A

compound formed when iron is exposed to oxygen and water over time, causes metal to break down and become weak; also called iron oxide

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2
Q

what is stainless steel composed of?

A

chromium and nickel

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3
Q

what is tungsten carbide? how do we identify it? why do we use it?

A

strong, durable metal; gold colored handles; can be replaced when worn out

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4
Q

when do we want to clean instruments?

A

prior to autoclaving to remove debris

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5
Q

list 3 things we want to check to inspect instruments for damage

A

alignment of jaws
stiffness/looseness of box lock
sharpness/dullness of blades

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6
Q

what can be used to lubricate instruments and protect them from rust before autoclaving?

A

surgical milk

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7
Q

Clean

A

the physical removal of organic or inorganic soils and microbial contaminants

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8
Q

Sanitize

A

removal of infectious material and pathogens

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9
Q

Contamination

A

process by which something is rendered unclean or unsterile

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10
Q

Asepsis

A

absence of pathogenic organisms

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11
Q

Sterile

A

absence of all living microorganisms including spores

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12
Q

Disinfectant

A

substance that inhibits or prevents the growth of microbes on an inanimate object

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13
Q

Antiseptic

A

substance that inhibits or prevents the growth of microbes on living tissue

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14
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

agents that prevents the growth of bacteria

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15
Q

Bactericidal

A

substance that destroys or kills bacteria

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16
Q

list 3 factors that impact the control of contamination

A

time
temperature
concentration and preparation

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17
Q

what are the 7 methods of sterilization? (know how each works)

A
  • autoclaving
  • flashing
  • boiling
  • dry heat
  • gas
  • radiation
  • cold disinfecting
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18
Q

what 3 factors does an autoclave use to sterilize?

A

heat
steam
pressure

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19
Q

3 examples of antiseptics

A

alcohol
chlorohexidine
idophors

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20
Q

3 examples of disinfectants

A

alcohol
decon quat
roccal d

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21
Q

what is the difference between aseptic and sterile?

A

sterile is the absence of all living microorganisms and spores, not just pathogens

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22
Q

what are 3 advantages to avagard?

A

quicker
not as harmful to the skin
easier (brushless and waterless)

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23
Q

to anesthetize an animal, the _______ must be anesthetized

A

brain

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24
Q

General anesthesia

A

a reversible state of unconsciousness, immobility, muscle relaxation, loss of sensation throughout the entire body

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25
Q

Topical anesthesia

A

loss of sensation of a localized area by administration of a local anesthetic applied directly to the body surface or wound

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26
Q

Local anesthesia

A

loss of sensation in a small area of the body by the administration of a local anesthetic agent

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27
Q

Regional anesthesia

A

loss of sensation in a limited area of the body by administration of a local anesthetic agent in close proximity to sensory nerves

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28
Q

Pre medication

A

administration of medications and anesthetic agents to calm and prepare the patient for anesthetic induction

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29
Q

Anesthetic induction

A

process by which an animal loses consciousness and enters surgical anesthesia

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30
Q

Anesthetic maintenance

A

the process of keeping a patient unconscious/under general anesthesia

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31
Q

name 3 reasons we perform anesthesia

A

surgery
restraint
pain control

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32
Q

what are 3 roles of a cvt during anesthesia

A
  • anesthetic control
  • operate and maintain anesthetic equipment
  • patient monitoring
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33
Q

where is the central respiratory system located?

A

medulla oblongata

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34
Q

what is the equation to calculate the
rebreathing bag size?

A

tidal volume x 6

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35
Q

what is the equation to calculate oxygen flow rate at maintenance and
induction?

A

maintenance: kg x 30 mL/kg/hr
induction: kg x 100 mL/kg/hr

36
Q

name the 3 main body systems effected by anesthesia

A

CNS
pulmonary
cardiovascular

37
Q

what causes an animal to inhale?

A

when there is an increase in levels of CO2

38
Q

mechanical dead space?

A

endotracheal tube, Y piece (machine)

39
Q

anatomical dead space?

A

conducting passageways (trachea, bronchi)

40
Q

what is 1 advantage and 1 disadvantage of an active scavenger system?

A

efficient; expensive

41
Q

what is 1 advantage and 1
disadvantage of a passive scavenger?

A

portable and cheaper; less efficient

42
Q

how do we control the amount of inhalant gas that goes to the patient?

A

the vaporizer

43
Q

saturated vapor pressure

A
  • Measures how likely the inhalant is to vaporize in the oxygen
  • Increased SVP = less amount of inhalant
44
Q

minimum alveolar concentration?
does mac increase or decrease with
age?

A

MAC = Vapor concentration in alveoli to prevent motor response to surgical stimulus in 50% of patients; decreases with age

45
Q

what is the blood:gas coefficient? is a lower blood:gas coefficient more or less soluble in the blood? is a lower blood:gas coeffient associated with a quicker or slower induction and recovery?

A

gas partition coefficient quantifies solubility; less soluble; quicker induction and recovery

46
Q

what is the highest concentration of anesthetic gas when at the beginning of an anesthetic event? what about the end of an anesthetic event?

A

highest is in the machine (y-piece) in the beginning; highest in the brain during recovery

47
Q

name 2 advantages of isoflurane and 2 advantages of sevoflurane

A

most common and more cost efficient; faster induction and faster recovery

48
Q

normals:
* HR
* RR
* Blood Pressure
* SPO2
* EtCO2
* CRT
* MM color

A

HR: 60-120; 120-180 bpm
RR: 8-20 rpm
blood pressure: 100-150 mmHg
60-100 mmHg
40-60 mmHg
SPO2: 95-100%
EtCO2: 35-45 mmHg
CRT: 1-2 seconds
MM: pink

49
Q

what stage and plane of anesthesia is optimal? how are the eyes positioned during this plane? how are the eyes positioned if the animal is too light or too deep?

A

stage 3 plane 2; rolled ventrally; too light is central/slightly downward; too deep is central with large pupils since muscle tone is lost

50
Q

Pre-meds

A
  • Atropine
  • Butorphanol
  • Dexmedetomidine
51
Q

Induction Drugs

A
  • Ketamine
  • Midazolam
  • Propofol
52
Q

Reversals

A
  • Atipamezole
  • Naloxone
53
Q

Other

A
  • Epinephrine
  • Lidocaine
  • Doxapram
54
Q

which drugs that we will use are controlled?

A

hydromorphone
buprenorphine
ketamine
diazepam
midazolam
butorphanol

55
Q

how many schedules of controlled substances are there

A

5

56
Q

which drugs can be/are commonly mixed together?

A

Dexmedetomidine and butorphanol
Midazolam and ketamine

57
Q

which drugs that we use can be reversed and what is the name of the reversals?

A
  • Atipamezole reverses Dexmedetomidine
  • naloxone reverses opioids
58
Q

Tachycardia

A

fast heart rate

59
Q

Bradycardia

A

slow heart rate

60
Q

Hypertension

A

high blood pressure

61
Q

Hypotension

A

low blood pressure

62
Q

Dyspnea

A

difficulty breathing

63
Q

Apnea

A

repeatedly stoping and starting your breathing (while sleeping)

64
Q

Respiratory arrest

A

cessation of breathing; stopped breathing for a long period of tine

65
Q

Tachypnea

A

rapid breathing

66
Q

Bradynea

A

slow breathing

67
Q

Cyanosis

A

lack of oxygen in the blood

68
Q

Pulse deficit

A

there isn’t a pulse beat for every heart beat

69
Q

Cardiac arrest

A

the heart stops beating suddenly

70
Q

isoflurane

A

inhalant

71
Q

Sevoflurane

A

inhalant

72
Q

Desflurane

A

inhalant

73
Q

Nitrous Oxide – N2O

A

inhalant

74
Q

Atropine

A

administration: injectable

category: anticholinergic

mechanism of action: Blocks the receptors for acetylcholine and Inhibits the vagal nerve

75
Q

Butorphanol

A

administration: IV or IM

category: opioid tranquilizer

mechanism of action: Mixed agonist-antagonist

76
Q

Dexmedetomidine

A

administration: IM or IV

category: Alpha-2 agonist

mechanism of action: Decreases the production of norepinephrine

77
Q

Benzodiazepine

A

administration: IM or IV

category: tranquilizer

mechanism of action: Potentiate the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

78
Q

Midazolam

A

administration: IV

category: Benzodiazepine tranquilizer

mechanism of action: Depress the CNS by increasing GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)

79
Q

Diazepam

A

administration: IV

category: Benzodiazepine tranquilizer

mechanism of action: Depress the CNS by increasing GABA (inhibitory neurotransmitter)

80
Q

Ketamine

A

administration: IV

category: Dissociative general anesthetic

mechanism of action: Causes disruption of nerve transmission of some parts and stimulates other parts. Animal feels disoriented (apart) from body

81
Q

Propofol

A

administration: IV slowly

category: Hypnotic Induction agent

mechanism of action: Enhances the action of GABA inhibitory neurotransmitter

82
Q

Lidocaine

A

administration: IV

category: Local anesthetic

mechanism of action: Prevents transmission of nerve impulses

83
Q

Atipamezole

A

administration: Give IM (occasionally IV in emergency)

category: Alpha 2 Antagonist

mechanism of action: Displaces the agonist (dexmedetomidine)

84
Q

Naloxone

A

administration: IM or IV

category: Opioid antagonist

mechanism of action: Pure mu (μ) antagonist. Has a higher affinity for mu receptor than mu agonists

85
Q

Epinephrine

A

administration: IV or ET tube

category: Adrenergic Catecholamine, Sympathomimetic

mechanism of action: Acts on a1, β1, β2 receptors

86
Q

Doxapram

A

administration: sublingually

category: Analeptics

mechanism of action: Stimulates respiratory center

87
Q

Glycopyrrolate

A

administation: IM or IV

category: Anticholinergic

mechanism of action: Similar to atropine except it is less likely to cause CNS effects because it does not cross the blood-brain barrier also less likely to cause arrythmia

vtt 117 - surgical tech (8 decks)

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